Module 3 Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

Which of the following should be your MOST immediate action?

a. Auscultate his lung sounds.
b. Assess his oxygen saturation.
c. Position him so that he is sitting up.
d. Apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A

c. Position him so that he is sitting up.

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2
Q

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. alveoli
b. the trachea
c. the epiglottis
d. bronchioles

A

c. the epiglottis

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3
Q

The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract.

a. vagus
b. phrenic
c. hypoglossal
d. vestibulocochlear

A

b. phrenic

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4
Q

Which of the following factors will cause a reduction in minute volume in an adult?

a. Shallow breathing
b. Increased tidal volume
c. Respirations of 20 breaths/min
d. Slight increase in respiratory rate

A

a. Shallow breathing

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5
Q

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?

a. Anxiety
b. Cyanosis
c. Tachycardia
d. Restlessness

A

b. Cyanosis

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6
Q

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:

a. adequate amounts of surfactant.
b. water or blood within the alveoli.
c. surfactant-destroying organisms.
d. pulmonary capillary constriction.

A

a. adequate amounts of surfactant.

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7
Q

The presence of elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood is called:

a. acidosis.
b. hypoxia.
c. hypoxemia.
d. hypercarbia.

A

d. hypercarbia.

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8
Q

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?

a. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
b. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations
c. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume
d. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

A

a. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

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9
Q

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

a. ataxic respirations.
b. agonal respirations.
c. eupneic respirations.
d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

A

d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

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10
Q

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?

a. Vomitus
b. The tongue
c. Blood clots
d. Aspirated fluid

A

b. The tongue

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11
Q

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?

a. Muscle
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Kidneys

A

a. Muscle

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12
Q

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:

a. 200 psi.
b. 500 psi.
c. 1,000 psi.
d. 1,500 psi.

A

b. 500 psi.

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13
Q

The hypoxic drive is influenced by:

a. high blood oxygen levels.
b. low blood oxygen levels.
c. high blood carbon dioxide levels.
d. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

A

b. low blood oxygen levels.

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14
Q

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:

a. nasal cannula.
b. nonrebreathing mask.
c. bag-mask device.
d. mouth-to-mask device.

A

b. nonrebreathing mask.

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15
Q

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:

a. 24%
b. 35%
c. 44%
d. 52%

A

c. 44%

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16
Q

High-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation is called:

a. denitrogenation.
b. apneic oxygenation.
c. passive ventilation.
d. active ventilation.

A

b. apneic oxygenation.

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17
Q

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to __________% inspired oxygen.

a. 70
b. 80
c. 90
d. 100

A

c. 90

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18
Q

Oxygen toxicity is a condition in which:

a. excessive blood oxygen levels cause the hypoxic patient to stop breathing.
b. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood.
c. significantly low levels of oxygen in the blood damage the cellular tissue.
d. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood result in free radical production.

A

b. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood.

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19
Q

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).

a. 500
b. 1,000
c. 2,000
d. 3,000

A

c. 2,000

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20
Q

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?

a. Vertical-position flowmeter
b. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
c. Ball-and-float flowmeter
d. Pressure-compensated flowmeter

A

b. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

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21
Q

The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:

a. the study of drugs that are produced illegally.
b. the study of how medications affect the brain.
c. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.
d. the study of drug excretion from the human body.

A

c. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.

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22
Q

A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:

a. stimulates receptor sites and allows other chemicals to attach to them.
b. enhances the effects of another medication when given in a higher dose.
c. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals to attach to them.
d. produces a cumulative effect when mixed with the same type of medication.

A

c. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals to attach to them.

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23
Q

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug?

a. Bayer
b. Advil
c. Excedrin
d. Aspirin

A

d. Aspirin

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24
Q

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct?

a. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally.
b. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.
c. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects.
d. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system.

A

b. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

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25
Q

Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or fentanyl patch?

a. Sublingual
b. Intraosseous
c. Subcutaneous
d. Transcutaneous

A

d. Transcutaneous

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26
Q

The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.

a. type
b. form
c. class
d. name

A

b. form

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27
Q

Separation is especially an issue with medicine used as a(n):

a. suspension.
b. solution.
c. elixir.
d. gel.

A

a. suspension.

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28
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct?

a. MDIs are contraindicated for patients with asthma or emphysema.
b. MDIs are most commonly used by patients with cardiovascular disease.
c. An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used.
d. Shaking an MDI prior to use will cause deactivation of the medication.

A

c. An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used.

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29
Q

What medication form does oral glucose come in?

a. Gel
b. Liquid
c. Suspension
d. Fine powder

A

a. Gel

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30
Q

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if:

a. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension.
b. authorization from medical control has been obtained.
c. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes.
d. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke.

A

b. authorization from medical control has been obtained.

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31
Q

In _________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.

a. peer-assisted
b. patient-assisted
c. EMT-administered
d. paramedic-administered

A

a. peer-assisted

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32
Q

The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream is called:

a. adsorption.
b. absorption.
c. suspension.
d. digestion.

A

b. absorption.

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33
Q

The medical term for a low blood glucose level is:

a. hypoglycemia.
b. hyperglycemia.
c. hypotension.
d. hypertension.

A

a. hypoglycemia.

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34
Q

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?

a. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream.
b. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the cells.
c. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic.
d. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.

A

b. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the cells.

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35
Q

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:

a. reduces the associated chest pain.
b. dissolves the coronary artery clot.
c. causes direct coronary vasodilation.
d. prevents the aggregation of platelets.

A

d. prevents the aggregation of platelets.

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36
Q

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain:

a. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries.
b. increases myocardial contraction force.
c. increases blood return to the right atrium.
d. constricts the veins throughout the body.

A

a. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries.

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37
Q

You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control?

a. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly.
b. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance.
c. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.
d. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed.

A

c. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.

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38
Q

You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control?

a. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly.
b. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance.
c. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.
d. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed.

A

c. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.

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39
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct?

a. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine.
b. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.
c. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a present amount of the drug.
d. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector.

A

c. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a present amount of the drug.

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40
Q

With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to ________ oxygen.

a. 14%
b. 24%
c. 34%
d. 44%

A

d. 44%

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41
Q

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of:

a. bacterial infection.
b. cardiovascular disease.
c. reactive airway disease.
d. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

A

b. cardiovascular disease.

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42
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

Which of the following should be your MOST immediate action?

a. Auscultate his lung sounds.
b. Assess his oxygen saturation.
c. Position him so that he is sitting up.
d. Apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A

c. Position him so that he is sitting up.

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43
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

The patient’s blood pressure is 170/90 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min and labored, and oxygen saturation is 75%. Auscultation of his lung sounds reveals coarse crackles bilaterally. What should you do?

a. Ventilate him with a bag-mask device.
b. Begin treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
c. Position him supine and transport.
d. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

A

b. Begin treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

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44
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

Which of the following is a sign of inadequate ventilation?

a. Shallow chest rise during inhalation
b. Oxygen saturation of 98% or less
c. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
d. Frequent coughing with phlegm production

A

a. Shallow chest rise during inhalation

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45
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

In which of the following situations is CPAP therapy contraindicated?

a. Agonal respirations
b. Acute bronchospasm
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Oxygen saturation less than 85%

A

a. Agonal respirations

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46
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

Prior to applying the CPAP device, you must ensure that:

a. the patient has shallow respirations.
b. the patient can follow verbal commands.
c. the patient’s breath sounds are clear to auscultation.
d. the patient’s heart rate is no greater than 110 beats/min.

A

b. the patient can follow verbal commands.

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47
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

Your patient, who has congestive heart failure, is experiencing a ventilation/perfusion mismatch because:

a. the bronchioles in his lungs are severely constricted.
b. a large proportion of his alveoli are totally collapsed.
c. blood return to the right side of the heart is reduced.
d. oxygen is unable to diffuse into and out of the alveoli.

A

d. oxygen is unable to diffuse into and out of the alveoli.

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48
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

Which of the following is a potential cause of an inaccurate pulse oximetry reading?

a. Hypertension
b. Cold temperature
c. Severe anemia
d. Chronic kidney disease

A

b. Cold temperature

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49
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

An end-tidal carbon dioxide reading of 70 mm Hg indicates that:

a. the patient is breathing too rapidly.
b. the patient is breathing too deeply.
c. the patient is breathing too slowly.
d. no CO2 is being made in the cells.

A

c. the patient is breathing too slowly.

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50
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

During treatment of your patient with CPAP, you note that he is becoming cyanotic. He appears tired and is not answering your questions. His oxygen saturation is 72%. What should you do?

a. Increase the CPAP pressure by 10 cm H2O.
b. Begin ventilation with a bag-mask device.
c. Call for a paramedic to perform intubation.
d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

A

b. Begin ventilation with a bag-mask device.

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51
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure is suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that he is smothering. When you arrive at the scene, you find him lying in bed with his head propped up by three pillows. He is conscious and alert but is experiencing obvious respiratory distress. His skin is pale and diaphoretic.

Recalling how your patient presented (respiratory distress and hypoxemia), the primary origin of his problem was failure of:

a. the airway.
b. ventilation.
c. oxygenation.
d. perfusion.

A

b. ventilation.

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52
Q

You respond to Nathan Lane for a 50-year-old man who reports feeling weak and dizzy. You are greeted at the front door by the patient’s neighbor. You find the patient seated on the couch. His skin looks pale, but he does not appear to be in any distress. He tells you that he has recently switched to two new medications for anxiety and hypertension. He states he took his first dose of both medications this morning.

The patient tells you he takes glimepiride. This name is an example of a(n);

a. trade name.
b. generic name.
c. chemical name.
d. official name.

A

b. generic name.

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53
Q

You respond to Nathan Lane for a 50-year-old man who reports feeling weak and dizzy. You are greeted at the front door by the patient’s neighbor. You find the patient seated on the couch. His skin looks pale, but he does not appear to be in any distress. He tells you that he has recently switched to two new medications for anxiety and hypertension. He states he took his first dose of both medications this morning.

The patient was prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for his anxiety. In this case, anxiety would be considered a(n):

a. indication.
b. contraindication.
c. adverse effect.
d. intended effect.

A

a. indication.

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54
Q

You respond to Nathan Lane for a 50-year-old man who reports feeling weak and dizzy. You are greeted at the front door by the patient’s neighbor. You find the patient seated on the couch. His skin looks pale, but he does not appear to be in any distress. He tells you that he has recently switched to two new medications for anxiety and hypertension. He states he took his first dose of both medications this morning.

The unintended effects that occur after the patient takes his medications are called:

a. indications.
b. contraindications.
c. side effects.
d. therapeutic effects.

A

c. side effects.

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55
Q

You respond to Nathan Lane for a 50-year-old man who reports feeling weak and dizzy. You are greeted at the front door by the patient’s neighbor. You find the patient seated on the couch. His skin looks pale, but he does not appear to be in any distress. He tells you that he has recently switched to two new medications for anxiety and hypertension. He states he took his first dose of both medications this morning.

What information should you include on your PCR related to the patient’s medications?

a. Document the medication names and dosages.
b. Document the medication names and expiration dates.
c. The trade name and the generic name of each medication.
d. Do not document the medication names, these will be determined at the hospital.

A

a. Document the medication names and dosages.

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56
Q

You respond to Nathan Lane for a 50-year-old man who reports feeling weak and dizzy. You are greeted at the front door by the patient’s neighbor. You find the patient seated on the couch. His skin looks pale, but he does not appear to be in any distress. He tells you that he has recently switched to two new medications for anxiety and hypertension. He states he took his first dose of both medications this morning.

If your patient takes insulin for diabetes, what route of administration does he use?

a. Oral
b. Sublingual
c. Injection
d. Inhaled

A

c. Injection

57
Q

You respond to Nathan Lane for a 50-year-old man who reports feeling weak and dizzy. You are greeted at the front door by the patient’s neighbor. You find the patient seated on the couch. His skin looks pale, but he does not appear to be in any distress. He tells you that he has recently switched to two new medications for anxiety and hypertension. He states he took his first dose of both medications this morning.

Your patient tells you he takes eight different prescription and over-the-counter medications every day. Which of the following statements indicates why this is important information?

a. Patients who take multiple medications rarely have problems if the medications are taken as prescribed.
b. It is unlikely that the patient’s chief complaint is related to the medications he takes.
c. Patients are never prescribed medications that are not compatible.
d. Drug interaction is a concern if the patient takes multiple medications.

A

d. Drug interaction is a concern if the patient takes multiple medications.

58
Q

You respond to Nathan Lane for a 50-year-old man who reports feeling weak and dizzy. You are greeted at the front door by the patient’s neighbor. You find the patient seated on the couch. His skin looks pale, but he does not appear to be in any distress. He tells you that he has recently switched to two new medications for anxiety and hypertension. He states he took his first dose of both medications this morning.

If you placed this patient this on supplemental oxygen, what type of medication delivery would this be?

a. Self-administered
b. EMT-administered
c. Patient-assisted
d. Medical director-assisted

A

b. EMT-administered

59
Q

You respond to Nathan Lane for a 50-year-old man who reports feeling weak and dizzy. You are greeted at the front door by the patient’s neighbor. You find the patient seated on the couch. His skin looks pale, but he does not appear to be in any distress. He tells you that he has recently switched to two new medications for anxiety and hypertension. He states he took his first dose of both medications this morning.

Which of the following is an advantage of MDI drug administration over SVN drug administration?

a. The MDI route does not require an external oxygen source.
b. The patient does not need to be conscious for MDI drug administration.
c. MDI medications have no adverse effects.
d. MDI medications do not expire.

A

a. The MDI route does not require an external oxygen source.

60
Q

What route of medication administration has the fastest onset of action? Why?

A

Medications delivered intravenously have the fastest onset of action because they are delivered directly into the bloodstream.

61
Q

Why is it important to ask patients if they take any OTC medications, vitamins, or herbal remedies, in addition to prescription medications?

A

Many times patients may not consider OTC medications, vitamins, or herbal supplements important to mention because they are usually not prescribed by a physician. However, this information is crucial because OTC medications, vitamins, and herbal supplements frequently interact with the prescription medications, which may be the cause of the patient’s problem or may contribute to it.

62
Q

Shock is the result of:

a. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.
b. the body’s maintenance of homeostasis.
c. temporary dysfunction of a major organ.
d. widespread constriction of the blood vessels.

A

a. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.

63
Q

Capillary sphincters are:

a. under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system.
b. capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs.
c. responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion.
d. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries.

A

d. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries.

64
Q

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is:

a. lactic acid.
b. carbon dioxide.
c. pyruvic acid.
d. carbon monoxide.

A

b. carbon dioxide.

65
Q

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?

a. Liver laceration
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. Simple pneumothorax
d. Spinal cord injury

A

b. Cardiac tamponade

66
Q

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?

a. Pallor
b. Dizziness
c. Wheezing
d. Hypotension

A

c. Wheezing

67
Q

Neurogenic shock occurs when:

a. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
b. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
c. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
d. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.

A

a. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.

68
Q

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:

a. hypovolemia.
b. tachycardia.
c. diaphoresis.
d. hypothermia.

A

d. hypothermia.

69
Q

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. cool and clammy skin.
b. absent peripheral pulses.
c. restlessness or anxiety.
d. rapid, shallow breathing.

A

b. absent peripheral pulses.

70
Q

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock?

a. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils
b. A 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia
c. A 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations
d. A 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

A

a. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils

71
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?

a. Severe vomiting
b. Liver laceration
c. Excessive sweating
d. Repeated diarrhea

A

b. Liver laceration

72
Q

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:

a. anaphylaxis.
b. spinal injury.
c. severe infection.
d. ischemic stroke.

A

d. ischemic stroke.

73
Q

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:

a. apply pressure to the brachial artery.
b. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
c. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.
d. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.

A

b. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

74
Q

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as:

a. the skin.
b. the heart.
c. the brain.
d. the lungs.

A

a. the skin.

75
Q

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:

a. septic shock.
b. neurogenic shock.
c. cardiogenic shock.
d. anaphylactic shock.

A

c. cardiogenic shock.

76
Q

Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. heart attack.
b. increased afterload.
c. increased preload.
d. poor contractility.

A

c. increased preload.

77
Q

Distributive shock occurs when:

a. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function.
b. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the brain.
c. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain.
d. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

A

d. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

78
Q

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:

a. septic shock.
b. pump failure.
c. a local infection.
d. decompensated shock.

A

a. septic shock.

79
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?

a. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen.
b. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure.
c. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure.
d. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

A

d. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

80
Q

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax?

a. Early administration of high-flow oxygen
b. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
c. Decompression of the injured side of the chest
d. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask

A

c. Decompression of the injured side of the chest

81
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?

a. Larynx
b. Pharynx
c. Bronchus
d. Oropharynx

A

c. Bronchus

82
Q

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. alveoli
b. the trachea
c. the epiglottis
d. bronchioles

A

c. the epiglottis

83
Q

The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract.

a. vagus
b. phrenic
c. hypoglossal
d. vestibulocochlear

A

b. phrenic

84
Q

Which of the following factors will cause a reduction in minute volume in an adult?

a. Shallow breathing
b. Increased tidal volume
c. Respirations of 20 breaths/min
d. Slight increase in respiratory rate

A

a. Shallow breathing

85
Q

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?

a. Anxiety
b. Cyanosis
c. Tachycardia
d. Restlessness

A

b. Cyanosis

86
Q

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:

a. adequate amounts of surfactant.
b. water or blood within the alveoli.
c. surfactant-destroying organisms.
d. pulmonary capillary constriction.

A

a. adequate amounts of surfactant.

87
Q

The presence of elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood is called:

a. acidosis.
b. hypoxia.
c. hypoxemia.
d. hypercarbia.

A

d. hypercarbia.

88
Q

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?

a. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
b. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations
c. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume
d. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

A

a. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

89
Q

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

a. ataxic respirations.
b. agonal respirations.
c. eupneic respirations.
d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

A

d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

90
Q

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?

a. Vomitus
b. The tongue
c. Blood clots
d. Aspirated fluid

A

b. The tongue

91
Q

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?

a. Muscle
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Kidneys

A

a. Muscle

92
Q

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:

a. 200 psi.
b. 500 psi.
c. 1,000 psi.
d. 1,500 psi.

A

b. 500 psi.

93
Q

The hypoxic drive is influenced by:

a. high blood oxygen levels.
b. low blood oxygen levels.
c. high blood carbon dioxide levels.
d. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

A

b. low blood oxygen levels.

94
Q

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:

a. nasal cannula.
b. nonrebreathing mask.
c. bag-mask device.
d. mouth-to-mask device.

A

b. nonrebreathing mask.

95
Q

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:

a. 24%
b. 35%
c. 44%
d. 52%

A

c. 44%

96
Q

High-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation is called:

a. denitrogenation.
b. apneic oxygenation.
c. passive ventilation.
d. active ventilation.

A

b. apneic oxygenation.

97
Q

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to __________% inspired oxygen.

a. 70
b. 80
c. 90
d. 100

A

c. 90

98
Q

Oxygen toxicity is a condition in which:

a. excessive blood oxygen levels cause the hypoxic patient to stop breathing.
b. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood.
c. significantly low levels of oxygen in the blood damage the cellular tissue.
d. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood result in free radical production.

A

b. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood.

99
Q

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).

a. 500
b. 1,000
c. 2,000
d. 3,000

A

c. 2,000

100
Q

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?

a. Vertical-position flowmeter
b. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
c. Ball-and-float flowmeter
d. Pressure-compensated flowmeter

A

b. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

101
Q

Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient’s airway when a spinal injury is suspected?

a. Jaw-thrust
b. Tongue-jaw lift
c. Head tilt-neck lift
d. Head tilt-chin lift

A

a. Jaw-thrust

102
Q

A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:

a. is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately.
b. has experienced trauma, but is breathing efficiently.
c. is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately.
d. has a pulse but is unresponsive and breathing shallowly.

A

c. is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately.

103
Q

If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:

a. reposition the patient’s airway.
b. suction the patient’s oropharynx.
c. insert an oropharyngeal airway.
d. increase the rate of ventilation.

A

a. reposition the patient’s airway.

104
Q

To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient’s chest at a rate of:

a. 80 to 100 compressions per minute.
b. at least 120 compressions per minute.
c. 100 to 120 compressions per minute.
d. no greater than 100 compressions per minute.

A

c. 100 to 120 compressions per minute.

105
Q

In most cases cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:

a. a drug overdose
b. respiratory arrest
c. severe chest trauma
d. a cardiac dysrhythmia

A

b. respiratory arrest

106
Q

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR?

a. 3:1
b. 5:1
c. 30:2
d. 15:2

A

d. 15:2

107
Q

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest

a. until a radial pulse is full.
b. with one or two hands.
c. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
d. 80 to 100 times per minute.

A

b. with one or two hands.

108
Q

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or is very obese?

a. Back slaps
b. Finger sweeps
c. Chest thrusts
d. Abdominal thrusts

A

C. Chest thrusts

109
Q

CPR training is the MOST effective when it

a. is self-paced and brief
b. occurs every 24 months
c. is delivered by computer
d. involves hands-on practice

A

d. involves hands-on practice

110
Q

When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress

a. at least 1 inch.
b. at least 2 inches.
c. between 1 inch and 2 inches
d. greater than 2 - 4 inches

A

b. at least 2 inches.

111
Q

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:

a. prone
b. supine
c. horizontal
d. on a firm surface

A

a. prone

112
Q

In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:

a. 5:1
b. 5:2
c. 15:2
d. 30:2

A

d. 30:2

113
Q

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant?

a. 90
b. 100
c. 110
d. 120

A

b. 100

114
Q

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the _______ artery.

a. radial
b. carotid
c. femoral
d. brachial

A

d. brachial

115
Q

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:

a. back slaps.
b. bag-mask ventilation.
c. abdominal thrusts.
d. blind finger sweeps.

A

a. back slaps.

116
Q

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:

a. in patients who are intubated.
b. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
c. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
d. when the airway is completely obstructed.

A

b. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

117
Q

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. rib fractures.
b. liver lacerations.
c. gastric distention.
d. a fractured sternum.

A

c. gastric distention.

118
Q

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:

a. start CPR and transport immediately.
b. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
c. determine if he has a valid living will.
d. begin CPR until an AED is available.

A

d. begin CPR until an AED is available.

119
Q

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:

a. almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem.
b. is focused on the nature of illness, the patient’s chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.
c. requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems.
d. is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.

A

b. is focused on the nature of illness, the patient’s chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.

120
Q

An index of suspension is MOST accurately defined as:

a. the EMT’s prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched.
b. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
c. ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms.
d. determining the underlying cause of a patient’s medical condition based on signs and symptoms.

A

b. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.

121
Q

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should:

a. assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate.
b. squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds.
c. attempt to illicit a verbal response by talking to the patient.
d. direct your partner to apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A

c. attempt to illicit a verbal response by talking to the patient.

122
Q

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?

a. Medical history
b. Index of suspicion
c. Baseline vital signs
d. Primary assessment

A

a. Medical history

123
Q

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected _________ problem.

a. cardiac
b. endocrine
c. respiratory
d. neurologic

A

d. neurologic

124
Q

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

a. reassessing the nature of the illness.
b. taking another set of vital signs.
c. repeating the primary assessment.
d. reviewing the treatment performed.

A

c. repeating the primary assessment

125
Q

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:

a. typically does not require the EMT to contact medical control.
b. focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made.
c. addresses the patient’s symptoms more than the actual disease process.
d. involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital.

A

c. addresses the patient’s symptoms more than the actual disease process.

126
Q

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

a. contact medical control.
b. taking standard precautions.
c. quickly access the patient.
d. notify law enforcement.

A

b. taking standard precautions

127
Q

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you specifically inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?

a. Recent travel
b. HIV status
c. Sexual practices
d. Drug allergies

A

a. Recent travel

128
Q

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C which means that it:

a. is less resistant to treatment.
b. is a more contagious type of disease.
c. has a greater ability to produce disease.
d. leads to chronic infection after exposure.

A

c. has a greater ability to produce disease.

129
Q

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:

a. hepatitis.
b. meningitis.
c. MERS-CoV.
d. tuberculosis.

A

b. meningitis

130
Q

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:

a. ask all patients if they if they have recently traveled abroad.
b. get vaccinated against diphiheria, tetanus, and pertussi.
c. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.
d. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.

A

b. get vaccinated agains diphiheria, tetanus, and pertussia.

131
Q

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patients disease?

a. trending of the patient’s vital signs over time.
b. asking questions related to the chief complaint.
c. refraining from asking open-ended questions.
d. focusing solely on how the call is dispatched.

A

b. asking questions related to the chief complaint.

132
Q

The secondary assessment of a medical patient:

a. should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe.
b. should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill.
c. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
d. is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.

A

c. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.

133
Q

Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint:

a. Aspirin
b. ibuprofen
c. Albuterol
d. Oral glucose

A

b. ibuprofen

134
Q

Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include:

a. fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing.
b. crushing chest pain, vomiting, and weakness.
c. headache, low back pain, and arm numbness.
d. joint pain, muscle aches, and blurred vision.

A

a. fever, rash, nausea, and difficultry breathing.

135
Q

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:

a. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream.
b. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.
c. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms.
d. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms through the body.

A

d. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms through the body.

136
Q

Which of the following patients is at greater risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?

a. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm.
b. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes.
c. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension.
d. 50-year-old woman with moderate obesity.

A

b. 68-year-old woman with type2 diabetes.

137
Q

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest for transmitting the disease when they:

a. cough.
b. vomit.
c. are bleeding.
d. have a fever.

A

a. cough

138
Q

Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include:

a. prior exposure to mycobacterium tuberculosis.
b. failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis.
c. a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks.
d. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.

A

d. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.