Module 2 Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a continuum of care?

A

Maintaining a consistent care of the patient from patient contact to patient discharge.

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2
Q

If your team lead advises to do assisted ventilations at a specific rate, but you remember that you are suppose to ventilate at a different rate this is an example of ____________.

A

constructed intervention

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3
Q

Which of the following would the EMT most likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?

a. Visualization of the vocal cords
b. Placement of the endotracheal tube
c. Suction under direct laryngoscopy
d. Preoxygenation with a BVM

A

d. Preoxygenation with a BVM

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4
Q

In an independent group, you would have:

a. Parallel Work.
b. A common set of tasks.
c. Shared transportation.
d. Your own work area.

A

d. Your own work area.

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5
Q

In an interdependent group, when one person fails:

a. everyone fails.
b. that person is fired.
c. management will be changed.
d. pay is withheld.

A

a. everyone fails.

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6
Q

To be a great EMT, strive for:

a. retraining.
b. foundational knowledge.
c. management work.
d. the chance to replace an EMR.

A

b. foundational knowledge.

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7
Q

Which comes first in EMS decision making?

a. Data gathering
b. Data interpretation
c. Planning
d. Team communication

A

a. Data gathering

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8
Q

Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred?

a. Data gathering
b. Outcome evaluation
c. Planning
d. Team communication

A

b. Outcome evaluation

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9
Q

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, “Why even splint the patient’s leg if they’re only going to remove it in the ED?” This statement indicates that:

a. the EMT’s focus is not on the common goal.
b. the patient’s leg does not require splinting.
c. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff.
d. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking.

A

a. the EMT’s focus is not on the common goal.

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10
Q

An effective team leader should:

a. command his or her team.
b. help the team accomplish goals.
c. perform all difficult interventions.
d. refrain from any direct patient care.

A

b. help the team accomplish goals.

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11
Q

In contrast to a health care group, a health care team:

a. works independently.
b. works interdependently.
c. is not assigned specific roles.
d. does not function under protocols.

A

b. works interdependently.

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12
Q

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:

a. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.
b. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.
c. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks.
d. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities.

A

a. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

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13
Q

EMT’s arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that:

a. the patient had a reported syncopal episode.
b. she should contact the EMR about the incident.
c. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode.
d. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode.

A

a. the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

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14
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?

a. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report.
b. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level.
c. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.
d. Providing the handoff report only to a physician.

A

c. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

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15
Q

For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use:

a. common language.
b. common goals.
c. metric-sized tools.
d. shared training.

A

a. common language.

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16
Q

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?

a. Streamlining
b. Bias
c. Overconfidence
d. Anchoring

A

d. Anchoring

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17
Q

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

a. Cyanosis
b. Headache
c. Tachycardia
d. Hypertension

A

b. Headache

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18
Q

Which of the following finding indicates that your patient has a patent airway?

a. Audible breathing
b. Ability to speak
c. Inspiratory stridor
d. Unresponsiveness

A

b. Ability to speak

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19
Q

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of

a. 100%
b. 94% to 99%
c. 90% to 94%
d. 88% to 90%

A

b. 94% to 99%

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20
Q

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the _________ artery.

a. radial
b. carotid
c. brachial
d. femoral

A

a. radial

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21
Q

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:

a. increased blood oxygen.
b. peripheral vasodilation.
c. venous vasoconstriction.
d. decreased blood oxygen.

A

d. decreased blood oxygen.

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22
Q

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:

a. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.
b. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.
c. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.
d. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

A

b. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

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23
Q

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:

a. maintain stabilization of the head.
b. look in the ears for gross bleeding.
c. prepare the immobilization equipment.
d. assess the rest of the body for bleeding.

A

a. maintain stabilization of the head.

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24
Q

Capnography is used to:

a. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.
b. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin.
c. trend a patient’s blood pressure and assess for shock.
d. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body’s tissues.

A

a. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

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25
Q

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?

a. Focused secondary assessment
b. Assessment of oxygen saturation
c. Systematic head-to-toe examination
d. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring

A

c. Systematic head-to-toe examination

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26
Q

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:

a. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries.
b. assess only the parts of the body that are injured.
c. definitively rule out significant internal injuries.
d. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

A

d. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

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27
Q

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on:

a. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened.
b. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.
c. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI.
d. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

A

d. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

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28
Q

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient’s arm will give a:

a. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading.
b. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading.
c. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.
d. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.

A

c. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

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29
Q

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:

a. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.
b. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.
c. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.
d. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.

A

a. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

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30
Q

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:

a. pulse pressure.
b. systolic blood pressure.
c. diastolic blood pressure.
d. cardiac output pressure.

A

b. systolic blood pressure.

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31
Q

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:

a. obtain updated vital signs.
b. reassess your interventions.
c. repeat the primary assessment.
d. confirm medical history findings.

A

c. repeat the primary assessment.

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32
Q

A patient’s short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding:

a. time and place.
b. day and event.
c. event and person.
d. person and place.

A

b. day and event.

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33
Q

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:

a. 10.
b. 12.
c. 13.
d. 14.

A

c. 13.

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34
Q

If you and your partner go on scene and your partner makes you aware of a hazard on scene that is an example of ______________.

A

Situational awareness

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35
Q

What is it considered when sometimes it is necessary for you to respectfull question or correct team members (or the team leader) if you believe a mistake has been or is about to be made? This technique is not only allowed and encouraged—it is essential for effective team performance.

A

Constructive intervention

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36
Q

What are the four important elements of team communication?

A

a. Clear Message
b. Closed-loop Communication
c. Courtesy
d. Constructive intervention

37
Q

What does it mean to speak calmly, confidently, and concisely so that the information delivered or the action requested is clear to your listeners. Be clear who you are speaking to by using names or ranks when giving direction, as opposed to just asking “someone” to do a task.

A

Clear message

38
Q

What does it mean when a team member speaks, you should repeat the message back to him or her. This technique helps confirm that you heard and understand the message, and understand the message, and will act on it.

A

Closed-loop communication

39
Q

What does it mean when all team members expect and deserve to be spoken to politely. “Please” and “thank you” do not take that much time.

A

Coutesy

40
Q

If you and your partner are on a scene and your partner makes you aware of a hazard that’s on the scene; this is an example of ___________.

A

Situational Awareness

41
Q

Pain moving from one part to another is _________.

A

Radiating

42
Q

What does “E” stand for?

A

“E” stands for “event” leading up to

43
Q

If you are called in to an event where you find an unconscious patient and there are no witnesses; what is a way we can ascertain any type of medical history?

A

Determine if our patient has a medical bracelet or wallet

44
Q

The most serious thing a patient is concerned about could be termed their ________.

A

Chief Complaint

45
Q

On a 30-minute transport how many times are we going to reassess a patient that is considered a stable patient?

A

Two times. Stable patients are assessed every 15 minutes, unstable patients need to be reassessed every 5 minutes.

46
Q

Which of the following would most likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal hand off report at the hospital?

a. a brief pause in care to provide a verbal report
b. clearly identifying your EMS certification level
c. use of mutually agreed upon format
d. providing a hand off report only toa physician

A

c. use of mutually agreed upon format

47
Q

Acting within their scope of practice can an EMT perform intubation?

A

No

48
Q

When you transfer a patient to an ALS staff our interference should be?

A

Minimal

49
Q

When you are transferring patient care to another health care provider you should be ________.

a. assertive
b. patient
c. respectful
d. aggressive

A

c. respectful

50
Q

In an interdependent group, if one person fails then _________.

A

We all fail

51
Q

If you are BLS and you are assisting an ALS and you are performing a skill that is outside of your level of certification then you open yourself up to?

A

Legal action

52
Q

What comes first in EMS decision making?

a. data gathering
b. data interpretation
c. planning
d. team communication

A

a. data gathering

53
Q

What is premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?

A

Anchoring

54
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for a toddler?

A

40

55
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for an infant?

A

60

56
Q

A sign or symptom of respiratory distress that are usually only present in pediatric patients is what kind of breathing?

A

Sea-saw breathing, where their chest and bellies inflate and deflate like a sea-saw.

57
Q

If we have an adult patient that is not experiencing difficulty breathing; would they be able to speak in complete sentences without pauses?

A

Yes, they should be able to.

58
Q

If we have an adult patient that is not experiencing difficulty breathing; would they be exhibiting an indentation above the clavicle in the joint ribs?

A

No, that is supraclavicular

59
Q

If we have an adult patient that is not experiencing difficulty breathing; would they have a respiratory rate between 20 and 24 breaths?

A

No

60
Q

By placing the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point would be __________?

A

Palpation

61
Q

What would be the most accurate way to palpate a pulse?

A

By placing the tips your index and long fingers over a pulse point.

62
Q

If you are sitting in a chair and leaning forward with out-stretched arms and your head chin tilt forward; what is this position?

A

Tripod Position

63
Q

If you find a patient in a tripod position, what is this patient most likely to be suffering from?

A

Difficulty breathing/respiratory distress

64
Q

Describe how to take a palpated carotid pulse of a responsive patient.

A

Place your index and middle fingers are on the carotid artery over the bone.

65
Q

Would you use 2 hands to palpate a carotid pulse? Why yes, or no?

A

No, by using 2 hands it would give the impression that we may be choking our patient.

66
Q

What should you do if you cannot find a palpated pulse on an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed?

A

Begin CPR

67
Q

What do we do if we arrive at a potentially unsafe scene?

A

Do not get on scene until you feel it is safe. If needed, then radio dispatch to have law enforcement en route.

68
Q

At minimal, when we get off the truck what should we have?

A

Gloves, PPE, BSI (body, substance, isolation), is my scene safe?

69
Q

When you pull up to a scene and you determine that there are multiple patients; what should you do?

A

Call for additional resources.

70
Q

If we have a patient that only moves or cries out when we squeeze their trapeze muscle; they are said to be ___________.

A

Alert to painful stimuli.

71
Q

A 29 year old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused to the time and date and is able to move all extremities on command. His GCS is ________.

A

13

72
Q

An injured patient is assigned to a total score of 9 on GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent within his GCS score?

a. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, and localizes pain.
b. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain.

A

b. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain.

73
Q

If you shine a light into one pupil, what should the other pupil do?

A

They should both restrict. They should be equal and reactive.

74
Q

If you have an issue with your partner on scene and it doesn’t affect the patient; when should you handle this?

A

After the patient care has been transferred and after the scene.

75
Q

An effective team leader should:

a. Command his or her team
b. Help the team accomplish goals
c. Perform all difficult interventions
d. Refrain from attaining patient care

A

b. Help the team accomplish goals

76
Q

In contrast to Health Care Group, a Health Care Team works:

a. Idependently
b. Interdependently
c. Only assigned to specific orders
d. Not function within a group

A

b. Interdependently

77
Q

When working as a Health Care Group Member, the EMT should expect that he/she:

a. will receive no support or guidance from EMS Supervisor.
b. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task.
c. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.
d. will rely on the group leader to virtually making all decisions.

A

c. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

78
Q

When EMT’s and other health care providers function as a “true team” they work ________.

A

Interdependently

79
Q

A team of EMT’s caring for a “critically red” patient, and the team leader advises that transport will not commence until the critically injured extremity has been splinted. Utilizing the “Crew Resource Management” model the EMT should:

a. repeat the request back to the Team Leader and splint the patient’s arm
b. be sure that the entire team that transport will be delayed
c. disregard the Team Leader’s request and contact Medical Control for advice
d. advise the Team Leader that transport is more important than splinting.

A

d. advise the Team Leader that transport is more important than splinting.

80
Q

Which of the following would an EMT be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotrachial intubation?

a. visualization of the vocal chords
b. placement of the endotrachial tube
c. suctioning directly under the larynoscopy
d. preoxygenation of a bag-valve-mask

A

d. preoxygenation of a bag-valve-mask

81
Q

As an Independent group, you would have:

a. a parallel work
b. common set tasks
c. shared transportation
d. your own work area

A

d. your own work area

82
Q

Where would you notice color changes in deeply pigmented skin?

A

Lips or oral macusa

83
Q

Where would you assess the skin color for infants or small children?

A

Palmer and pedal areas/palms or soles of feet

84
Q

Bluish tint of the skin of an unresponsive patient is called ________.

A

Cyanosis

85
Q

What is cyanosis caused by?

A

Lack of oxygen.

86
Q

What would be the normal skin color, temperature, and condition?

A

Pink, warm, and dry.

87
Q

A 40-year-old male presents pain in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen, and is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment you notice that his skin and splera are jaundice. You should suspect __________.

A

The patient is suffering from liver damage.

88
Q

What is the capillary refill in an infant?

A

2 seconds

89
Q

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar, as you approach the patient you note that he his conscious and screaming in pain and is attempting to control his bleeding that is bright red and spurting from his groin area; you should ____________.

a. Should you assure that his airway is patent.
b. Apply direct pressure to the wound, and falling CAB protocol.

A

b. Apply direct pressure to the wound, and falling CAB protocol.