Module 1 Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

EMT training is regulated and governed by the ________.

A

Department of Transportation

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2
Q

Although the specific training and licensure requirements vary from state to state, almost every state’s requirements follow or exceed the guidelines recommended in the current __________________ EMS Education Standards.

A

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

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3
Q

You can give certain medications as an EMT. Who gives you the authority to do so?

A

The medical director gives you that authority via standing orders are offline medical direction.

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4
Q

Who are Emergency Medical Responders, and why are they important?

A

Fire Fighters, because they are readily available.

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5
Q

Who is in charge of your career progression, demographics, paperwork, and payroll?

A

Human Resources

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6
Q

Be aware of where your authorization comes from to perform Emergency Medical Care.

A

Local Medical Director. Dr. Nakamoto

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7
Q

Physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (off-line/in-direct), as authorized by the medical director of the service program is known as __________.

A

medical control

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8
Q

The physician who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field is the _________.

A

medical director

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9
Q

The ______________ is a document created by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) that outlines the skills performed by various EMS providers.

A

“National EMS Scope of Practice Model”

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10
Q

How do we treat a patient with Tuberculosis experiencing difficulty breathing?

A

Give them a non-rebreather mask with adequate volume of oxygen 8-12 liters a minute. You could also use a nasal cannula and place a surgical mask over the nasal cannula. Make sure I have the necessary PPE to protect myself.

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11
Q

Infectious Control Plans are in place to protect the ______________.

A

Healthcare worker (Fire/EMS)

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12
Q

What are the 7 steps designated to establishing an “Infection Control Routine?”

A

a. En route to the scene, make sure that PPE is out and available.
b. On arrival, identify and address safety hazards, then perform a rapid scan of the patient, noting whether any blood or body fluids are present.
c. Select the proper PPE according to the tasks you are likely to perform. Typically, gloves and protective eyewear will be used for all patient contacts. A disposable gown, and masks are often required during epidemic or pandemic situations, and the type of mask will depend on the transmission mode of the relevant pathogen.
d. Change gloves or remove the topmost layer of gloves if wearing multiple layers of gloves.
e. Wash hands or at the very least use hand sanitizer between patients; don PPE as quickly as possible to minimize time spent before initiating care. Remove gloves and other gear after contact with the patient, unless you are in the patient compartment. Remember that good hand hygiene is always necessary.
f. Limit the number of people who are involved in patient care if there are multiple injuries and a substantial amount of blood at the scene.
g. If you or your partner is exposed while providing care, try to relieve one another as soon as possible so that you can seek care, including basic first aid care such as cleaning and dressing a wound. Notify the designated officer and report the incident. This will also help to maintain confidentiality for both the patient and for you.

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13
Q

What steps are the 3 steps included in “Determination of Exposure Risk” portion of the “Infection Control Plan?”

A

a. Determines who is at risk for ongoing contact with blood and other body fluids.
b. Creates a list of tasks that pose a risk for contact with blood or other body fluids.
c. Includes PPE required by OSHA.

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14
Q

What are the 3 steps are included in “Education and Training” portion of the “Infection Control Plan?”

A

a. Explains why a qualified individual is required to answer questions about communicable diseases and infection control, rather than relying on packaged training materials.
b. Allows for an instructor able to train EMTs regarding bloodborne and airborne pathogens, such as hepatitis B and C, HIV, syphilis, and tuberculosis.
c. Ensures the instructor provides appropriate education, which is the best means for dispelling many myths surrounding these issues.

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15
Q

What steps are the 3 steps listed in the “Personal Protective Equipment” portion of the “Infection Control Plan?”

A

a. Lists the PPE offered and why it was selected.
b. Lists how much equipment is available and where to obtain additional PPE.
c. States when each type of PPE is to be used for each risk procedure.

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16
Q

What are the 3 steps listed in the “Cleaning and Disinfection Practices” portion of the “Infection Control Plan?”

A

a. Describes how to care for and maintain vehicles and equipment.
b. Identifies where and when cleaning should be performed, how it is to be done, what PPE to use, and what cleaning solution to use.
c. Addresses medical waste collection, storage, and disposal.

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17
Q

What are the 3 steps listed in the “Tuberculin Skin Testing/Fit Testing” portion of the “Infection Control Plan?”

A

a. Addresses how often employees should undergo skin testing.
b. Addresses how often fit testing should be done to determine the proper-size mask to protect the EMT from airborne disease transmission.
c. Addresses all issues dealing with particulate respirator masks.

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18
Q

What are the 2 steps listed in the “Hepatitis B Vaccine Program” portion of the “Infection Control Plan?”

A

a. Describes the vaccine offered, its safety and efficacy, record keeping, and tracking.
b. Addresses the need for postvaccine antibody titers to identify patients who do not respond to the initial three-dose vaccination series.

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19
Q

Taking yourself out of a fire fighter role, and putting yourself in an EMS role for this next question. On a “very nasty” call that you could not decon the ambulance at the hospital, what would you do?

A

Take the ambulance back to the “home base” or an approved location and shut the unit down until the ambulance has been thoroughly cleaned and “deconned.”

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20
Q

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health) requires your ________ to make sure that you are protected from Hep C free of charge.

A

employer

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21
Q

Name some diseases that we currently have vaccines for.

A

Polio, MMR, Hep A, Hep B

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22
Q

Name some diseases that we do not have vaccines for.

A

Hep C, HIV

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23
Q

What are some the signs and symptoms of PTSD? What could trigger someone to have an episode of PTSD?

A

Some of the symptoms include depression, startle reactions, flashback phenomena, and dissociative episodes (eg, amnesia of the event).

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24
Q

As an EMT in an active shooter situation what would be your best protection?

A

Most dense piece of concealment such as an engine block on the rig. Looking for the biggest, thickest piece to seek cover behind.

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25
Q

When an EMT is approaching a patient what does the EMT need from the patient if they are able to convey it before an EMT can legally provide medical attention to?

A

Expressed consent

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26
Q

What do we need to do if our patient is someone that is hurt, or sick and could die if they refuse treatment and are alert, conscious and aware of their surroundings that are adamant about not going to the hospital?

A

We as EMT’s need to thoroughly document the refusal as well as expressing to the patient the possibility of what could happen to them (i.e. death) and the consequences of their refusal for treatment.

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27
Q

What do we as EMT’s need to do in aspects of CYA (cover your ass) in dealing with a patient whom has decision making capacity and refuses transport?

A

Thoroughly documenting their refusal. If it is not properly documented then it did not happen.

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28
Q

Where do we normally find a document that states the identification of an organ donor?

A

Driver’s license.

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29
Q

We as EMTs are not allowed to share patient information unless the patient signs a _______.

A

release form

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30
Q

On our documentation for a call what would be considered to not be protected health information?

A

You cannot give out their name. Vital signs, but you cannot release what the vital signs were; you can say what you responded to but not what you actually found.

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31
Q

When dropping off a patient to the ER who are the only people we are legally allowed to hand our patient over to?

A

We are legally allowed to only hand our patient off to a physician that has equal or higher level of training in the EMS field such as an Advanced EMT, Paramedic, or Nurse.

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32
Q

When you are online or on a radio and given a directive what should you do for verification?

A

Repeat the directive word for word.

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33
Q

When calling in to the ER, what the first 3 things that need to be relayed to the ER for a PCR (Patient Care Report)?

A

Age, gender, and chief complaint

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34
Q

If we’re doing an oral report during our patient handoff (transfer of care); would it be important to include chief complaint, mechanism of injury?

A

Yes

35
Q

If we’re doing an oral report during our patient handoff (transfer of care); would it be important to include important medical history?

A

Yes

36
Q

If we’re doing an oral report during our patient handoff (transfer of care); would it be viable to record patient response and treatment I provided?

A

Yes

37
Q

If we’re doing an oral report during our patient handoff (transfer of care); would it be important to report a base line of vitals we took on scene?

A

No, it’s more important to report the most recent vitals taken from the patient.

38
Q

When we are giving a radio or verbal report, are we diagnosing the patient?

A

No

39
Q

What would it mean if a patient has been reported to have a bilateral femur fracture?

A

Femur fractured on both sides of the body.

40
Q

How would you describe the placement of a gunshot wound on a patient that is on the far-left side of their body (outside of their left nipple) on the front side of their body?

A

Anteriorly-lateral anything that is between the naval and nipple is considered medial (closest to the midline), and anything that is on the other side of the nipple is considered to be lateral (farthest from the midline).

41
Q

What does it mean if something is “dorsal”?

A

It is on the back surface of the body.

42
Q

What does it mean if something is “posterior”?

A

It is on the back surface of the body.

43
Q

What does it mean if something is “ventral”?

A

It is on the front surface of the body.

44
Q

What does it mean if something is “anterior”?

A

It is on the front surface of the body.

45
Q

What position should a patient be placed in if they have no suspected injury, and is reporting chest pain or respiratory distress?

A

They should be placed in a position of comfort—typically a Fowler, or semi-Fowler position.

46
Q

How should a patient that is in shock be packaged and placed in?

A

Supine Position

47
Q

How should a patient that is in late stages of pregnancy be positioned and transported?

A

They should be positioned and transported on their left side if they are uncomfortable or hypotensive when supine.

48
Q

How should you place an unresponsive patient with no suspected spinal, hip, or pelvic injury?

A

They should be placed in the “recovery position” by rolling the patient onto his or her side without twisting the body.

49
Q

What is the recovery position?

A

A side-lying position used to maintain a clear airway in unresponsive patients who are breathing adequately and do not have suspected injuries to the spine, hips, or pelvis.

50
Q

What is the medical term for severe pain in the kidneys?

A

Nephralgia. Nephr = Kidney Algia = Pertaining to pain.

51
Q

Describe a patient that is in the “prone” position.

A

Patient is lying face down.

52
Q

Describe a patient that is in the “supine” position.

A

Patient is lying faceup.

53
Q

The finger is ___________ to the shoulder.

A

Distal

54
Q

The humerus is __________ to the shoulder.

A

Distal

55
Q

The humerus is __________ to the elbow.

A

Proximal

56
Q

If we are checking lung sounds we want to hear them __________.

A

Bilaterally

57
Q

If we are checking lung sounds and we only hear lung sounds from one side then the lung sounds are ________.

A

Unilaterally

58
Q

If we are checking the chest and lungs and only one side is rising and falling then this is considered ____________.

A

Unilateral pneumothorax

59
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for healthy adults?

A

12 to 20 breaths/min

60
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for healthy children?

A

12 to 40 breaths/min

61
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for healthy infants?

A

30 to 60 breaths/min

62
Q

What is at the base of the cranium that is a large opening? It is Latin for “great opening” and serves as the passageway for the spinal cord to connect with the brain and descend into the spinal, or vertical column.

A

Foramen Magnum

63
Q

How many vertebrae are in the vertebral column?

A

33

64
Q

How many sections are in spinal column?

A

5

65
Q

What are the different sections of the spinal cord labeled as and how many vertebrae are in each section? List these in order going from superior to inferior.

A
Cervical Spine = 7,
Thoracic Spine = 12
Lumbar Spine = 5
Sacrum = 5
Coccyx = 4
66
Q

What is the separation between the thorax and abdomen?

A

Diaphragm

67
Q

If you are deficient in ____________ your bones will become brittle and powdery.

A

Calcium

68
Q

The air we breathe in is used by the alveoli everything before that is known as _________________.

A

Dead space

69
Q

Gas remains in the lungs after exhalation simply to keep the lungs open. This is the __________. A loss of _________ occurs when a person is hit in the chest and has the “wind knocked out” of him or her.

A

Residual Volume

70
Q

What are the components of the central nervous system?

A

The brain and spinal cord.

71
Q

This nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves; these may be sensory nerves, motor nerves, or connecting nerves.

A

Peripheral Nervous System

72
Q

Why do middle adults often have financial problems?

A

Parents of middle adults have become older adults and are left with the responsibility of supporting their own children going through college while simultaneously caring for their aging parents.

73
Q

What age group is considered to be classified as “middle adult?”

A

41 – 60

74
Q

What age group is starting to actively think about retirement?

A

Middle Adult 41-60

75
Q

Why does the heart have to work harder to move blood effectively as you get older?

A

Blood vessels become more stiff and lose their elasticity.

76
Q

What do we need to do in order to care for an infant exhibiting respiratory problems?

A

Make sure their nose and nostrils are clear. They are primarily breathing through their nose at this age.

77
Q

What determines somebody between adolescent teenagers and considering them as adults?

A

Physical changes such as hair under the armpits, Adam’s apple.

78
Q

In a 16 year old female that is having complaints of cramping, spotting, vaginal bleeding; what would be one of the first questions we would want to ask?

A

Is there a possibility that you could be pregnant?

79
Q

What is a leading cause in the formation of a hemorrhagic stroke in older people?

A

Their brain starts shrinking.

80
Q

What technique is used in which the stretcher or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb?

A

Power Grip

81
Q

What would be the most appropriate immobilization device for a patient with suspected spinal injury?

A

Long spine-board

82
Q

If we have someone that is abnormally heavy, what do we need to try and get on scene before we try and move that patient?

A

More help

83
Q

If we get on scene and have two elderly people unconscious with no obvious signs mechanism of injury; how do we remove them to a safe area?

A

Using an “emergency move”