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401-101 > Mines, Booby Traps, SEDs, IEDs > Flashcards

Mines, Booby Traps, SEDs, IEDs Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 3 catagories of landmines?

A

Anti-Personnel
Anti-Vehicle
Practice

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2
Q

List various spring-operated mine firing mechanisms.

A 
Pin, plate or ball
Diaphragm
Shear pin
Electrical contact
Chemical
Friction
Double pressure (double impulse)
Anti-handling device
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3
Q

List some modern methods to initiate mines.

A 
Magnetic
Seismic
Radio influence
Audio frequency
Electrical command
Timer run down
IR
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4
Q

What weight will function an anti-personnel mine and an anti-tank mine?

A

1-20kg and 100-300kg

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5
Q

What are the 3 criteria of a booby trap? They must all be satisfied to classify as a booby trap. Otherwise it is classed an IED.

A

Contains military ordnance or devices only
They must function as designed
The device must not have a secondary explosive device
Booby traps are mostly simple, versatile, cheap, reliable and indiscriminate.

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6
Q

What are the desired tactical effects of booby traps?

A

Create uncertainty and fear
Lower morale
Delay military action by creating fear and caution

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7
Q

What are the booby trap methods of operation?

A
  • Pull
  • Pressure
  • Pressure Release
  • Tension Release
  • Delay
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8
Q

What are the two categories of booby traps?

A

Victim operated

Delayed action

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9
Q

Four main parts of a booby trap?

A
  • Switch mechanism
  • Explosive charge
  • Connecting mechanism to charge
  • Concealment and operation
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10
Q

What are the safety precautions during booby trap clearance?

A

Avoid fatigue - rotate pairs
Clear both sides of doors/windows before opening
Obstacles/furniture to be pulled
Cleared items marked and accessible positions
Doors, drawers etc left open/marked
Safe routes marked
Torches not used unless cleared
Non-essential personnel to ICP when positive action taken

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11
Q

What are the 4 methods of clearing a booby trap?

A

BIP - consider damage
Disruption - device may function
Pulling - deliberately activate the device
Neutralise/disarm - Only if damage unacceptable

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12
Q

What is a specialist explosive device?

A

An explosive device purpose-designed and manufactured for military use. It can incorporate time delay, command and victim-operated functions.

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13
Q

What is a threat device?

A

Threat devices can encompass IED’s, improvised weapons, booby-traps and specialist explosive devices.

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14
Q

What does BIP (Blow in place) mean?

A

The item is left in the state found and a charge is placed to destroy the item

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15
Q

What does neutralisation mean?

A

The separation of one or more components. Altering the state of the device so that it can no longer function

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16
Q

What does Rendered Safe mean?

A

The separation of all the components in a device. The device can not function

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17
Q

What is a positive action?

A

an action taken on or near a threat device which could reasonably be expected to alter the state of the device

18
Q

What are remote actions?

A

defined as actions taken on the device while the technician stays outside of the perceived blast effects zone. Remote positioning vehicle.

19
Q

What are semi-remote actions?

A

actions taken requiring a manual approach to take a remote action. Placing disrupter at the device to remotely fire.

20
Q

What is a manual action?

A

Techniques and procedures aimed at neutralising or disarming a threat on top of the device.

21
Q

What does revert mean when dealing with a threat device?

A

stepping back to the next safer option and reducing their own exposure to the threat at the first available opportunity. Always exhaust remote options and manual actions are the last option.

22
Q

What are the 4 main ideas of ADF IEDD Doctrine?

A
  • Aim of IEDD
  • Philosophy
  • Principles
  • Mandatory actions
23
Q

What is the doctrine aim of IEDD?

A

To deny adversaries and criminals their objectives

24
Q

In priority, what is the IEDD philosophy?

A
  • Save Life
  • Preservations of Property
  • Return to normality
  • Preserve and collect forensic evidence
25
Q

Who can approve deviations from the IEDD mandatory actions?

A

The EODCC or EOD commander

26
Q

What is an IED hoax?

A

A simulated IED or object deliberately placed to cause disruption

27
Q

What is an IED false report?

A

An object reported in good faith to be an IED but is not when inspected

28
Q

What is an IED postal device?

A

A letter or parcel IED delivered through a postal/courier service.

29
Q

What are the 4 categories for an IED task?

A

Cat A - Grave and immediate threat
Cat B - Indirect threat
Cat C - Little threat
Cat D - No current threat

30
Q

What are the 5 components of an IED?

A
  • Switch
  • Initiator
  • Main Charge
  • Power source
  • Container
31
Q

What are the 3 switch types for an IED?

A

Command
Timed
Victim operated (VO)

32
Q

What are the 2 types of IED command initiated systems?

A

Linked - There is a physical link or trail

Separated - No physical connection

33
Q

What are methods to initiate a VOIED?

A 
Pull/trip
Pressure
Pressure release
Movement sensitive
Light sensitive
Other electronic
PIR
AIR
34
Q

List the 6 mandatory actions when dealing with a threat device.

A

Must revert to remote/semi-remote means whenever possible
Secondary soak is to be applied after any positive action before manual approach
one-person risk manual approach where tactically possible
manual approaches under full patrol ECM (FPECM). EOD carry forward ECM not likely to be physically or tactically possible
RCIEDs found are to be inhibited by FPECM
Positive actions must not be conducted without cordon set

35
Q

What is the threat triad and the questions associated with each point?

A

Aim - What is their aim?
Type - What devices do they have?
Location - Where will they place the device?

36
Q

What is the hierarchy of deal action for threat devices?

A

Emergency action - stabilisation of firing switches that pose an immediate threat (mechanical timer, loose wire or loose door with switch attached)
Disposal - BIP
Reduction - reduce hazards or effects of device functioning (split explosive chain, cut slack trip wires)
Neutralisation - safe separation of one or more components to stop functioning as designed

37
Q

What does explosive entry provide in relation to IEDs?

A

A method to remotely gain access to an IED

38
Q

What is the in service X-ray device used by the ADF?

A

Logos ORAMA II

39
Q

How often does the ORAMA X-ray device need to be inspected?

A

Yearly

40
Q

What is a Dosimeter and when is it required to be worn?

A

It detects the cumulative amount of x-ray radiation received by a person and must be worn anytime you work with in service X-ray devices.

41
Q

What are the radiation safety distances for the ORAMA II?

A

3m radius, 30m forward and 11m either side of the radiation beam axis.

42
Q

List the 6 mandatory actions when dealing with a threat device.

A

Must revert to remote/semi-remote means whenever possible
Secondary soak is to be applied after any positive action before manual approach
one-person risk manual approach where tactically possible
manual approaches under full patrol ECM (FPECM). EOD carry forward ECM not likely to be physically or tactically possible
RCIEDs found are to be inhibited by FPECM
Positive actions must not be conducted without cordon set

401-101 (17 decks)

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