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Pharm > midterm review > Flashcards

midterm review Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following are examples of bacteriostatic antibiotics?

a. Doxycycline
b. Penicillin
c. Cefazolin
d. Meropenem

A

Doxycycline

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2
Q

Which of the following are examples of bactericidal antibiotics?

a. Penicillins
b. Cephalosporins
c. Carbapenems
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

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3
Q 
Dion is an 8 year old boy who comes to your clinic with complaints of fever and sore throat. You
want to prescribe an antibiotic.
8. Which antibiotic is most appropriate?
a. Tetracycline
b. Levofloxacin
c. Augmentin
d. a & b
A

Augmentin

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4
Q 
9. If Dion was prescribed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, some known adverse effects may be tooth enamel
dysplasia and bone growth irregularity.
a. Doxycycline
b. Levofloxacin
c. Augmentin
d. Cephalexin
A

Doxycycline

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5
Q

Carter has been diagnosed with community acquired pneumonia and his area has been
identified as having a 35% rate of resistance to macrolides. Which antibiotic is the best choice
for you to prescribe?
a. Azithromycin 500mg x 1 dose, then 250mg x 4 days
b. Clarithromycin 500mg q12h
c. Erythromycin 500mg q6h
d. Doxycycline 100mg q12h

A

Doxycycline 100mg q12h

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6
Q

Bacteriostatic antimicrobials are first line therapy for bacteremia.

a. True
b. False

A

false

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7
Q

Which of the following do NOT require renal adjustment?

a. Penicillin
b. Cefepime
c. Clindamycin
d. Vancomycin

A

Clindamycin

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8
Q

As concentrations of amikacin increases above the MIC, the rate and proportion of bacterial
death also increases. This pharmacodynamic property is referred to as________________.
a. Time dependent killing
b. Concentration dependent killing
c. Post antibiotic effect
d. Time independent killing

A

Concentration dependent killing

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9
Q

A single large dose of an aminoglycoside is considered to have better efficacy with less
toxicity than multiple daily doses.
a. True
b. False

A

true

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10
Q

Which of the following antimicrobials requires therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)?

a. Ceftriaxone
b. Vancomycin
c. Gentamicin
d. b and c

A

b. Vancomycin

c. Gentamicin

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11
Q

Calvin is a 34 year old who was recently diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. You check
his chart for allergies, but notice that he has G6PD deficiency. Which agent should be avoided
based upon this information?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Nitrofurantoin
c. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
d. Vancomycin

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

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12
Q

The most common organism implicated in urinary tract infections is__________.

a. E. coli
b. Pseudomonas
c. Klebsiella
d. Proteus

A

E. coli

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13
Q

Daisy is a 35 year old woman who is in her 3rd trimester of pregnancy and tested positive
for a UTI. You are asked to prescribe an antibiotic. Which is your drug of choice?
a. nitrofurantoin
b. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
c. amoxicillin/clavulanate
d. Ciprofloxacin

A

amoxicillin/clavulanate

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14
Q

Which antibiotic can cause hyperkalemia?

a. Nitrofurantoin
b. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
c. amoxicillin/clavulanate
d. Ciprofloxacin

A

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

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15
Q

The first cephalosporin to offer coverage against MRSA is ____________.

a. Ceftazidime
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Cefepime
d. Ceftaroline

A

Ceftaroline

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16
Q

Maria notices a bump on her arm that started out looking a spider bite is getting larger and is
now filled with pus. You look at it and decide to start empirical MRSA treatment.
Allergies: Penicillin- rash
Current medication list: sertraline (for depression), lisinopril (hypertension), HCTZ
You prescribe:
a. Doxycycline 100mg bid
b. Linezolid 600mg bid
c. Clindamycin 300mg q6h
d. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 1 DS tab bid
e. Either a or c

A

Doxycycline 100mg bid
or
Clindamycin 300mg q6h

17
Q

Which agent(s) are appropriate for healthcare associated MRSA?

a. Doxycycline, linezolid, vancomycin
b. Linezolid, vancomycin, clindamycin
c. Vancomycin, linezolid, daptomycin
d. Ceftaroline, clindamycin, doxycycline

A

Vancomycin, linezolid, daptomycin

18
Q

Daniel, a 65 year old, comes in to refill his asthma medication. While checking his chart, you
notice that he has not been vaccinated. Which vaccines will you offer?
a. Influenza
b. Pneumococcal
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a or b

A

a. Influenza
and
b. Pneumococcal

19
Q

Nancy is an asthmatic who has been short of breath and wheezing more often during
allergy season. She has been using her rescue inhaler more often. Nancy arrives at your office
appearing anxious and complains of palpitations. You ask how many inhalations she has taken
over the past 24 hours. She states that she has been taking 3 puffs every 4 hours. Which
inhaler is she most likely using?
a. Albuterol (SABA)
b. Formoterol (LABA)
c. Tiotropium (LAMA)
d. Theophylline

A

a. Albuterol (SABA)

20
Q

What are some counselling points you would provide to you patient after you prescribe
formoterol/budesonide?
a. Rinse mouth with water after inhaler use
b. Clean inhaler regularly
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a or b

A

a. Rinse mouth with water after inhaler use
and
b. Clean inhaler regularly

21
Q

Using an inhaled corticosteroid is always recommended when treating COPD.

a. True
b. False

A

false

22
Q

Asthma is an airway disease that may be reversed.

a. True
b. False

A

true

23
Q

COPD is an airway disease that may be reversed.

a. True
b. False

A

false

24
Q

Which of the following are potential causes of hypertension?

a. Decreased release of vasodilators
b. Increased vascular stiffness
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a & b

A

a. Decreased release of vasodilators
and
b. Increased vascular stiffness

25
Q

All of the following are acceptable first line treatment options for hypertension, except:

a. Minoxidil
b. Chlorthalidone
c. Amlodipine
d. Valsartan

A

Minoxidil

26
Q
  1. _________ is the preferred drug class for initial hypertension treatment in African
    Americans.
    a. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
    b. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
    c. Beta blockers
    d. Calcium channel blockers
A

d. Calcium channel blockers

27
Q

Mark is a 50 year old Caucasian male who comes to your office for a routine visit. His blood
pressure reading is 130/90 mmHg. He is not currently on any medication. You prescribe:
a. Verapamil SR 240mg daily
b. Nifedipine 30mg SA daily
c. Lisinopril 5mg + hydrochlorothiazide 12.5mg daily
d. Atenolol 50mg daily

A

c. Lisinopril 5mg + hydrochlorothiazide 12.5mg daily

28
Q

Carla is a 30 year old who is in her 2nd trimester, She is now consistently reporting blood
pressure readings in the rage of 140/90 to 145/95 mmHg, so her obstetrician sends her to you
so you can prescribe an antihypertensive agent. This is Carla’s first time being diagnosed with
hypertension. Which agent is most appropriate for Carla?
a. Propranolol 40mg bid
b. Methyldopa 250mg q6h
c. Lisinopril 10mg daily
d. Losartan 50g daily

A

b. Methyldopa 250mg q6h

29
Q

Eli is a Caucasian 60 year old with type 2 diabetes, COPD and hyperlipidemia. On his
recent clinic visit you note an elevation in his BP. Given his comorbidities, which is the best
initial agent to treat his hypertension?
a. Lisinopril
b. Propranolol
c. Verapamil
d. Clonidine

A

Lisinopril

30
Q

Minoxidil and hydralazine are direct acting vasodilators often used as monotherapy for the
treatment of hypertension.
a. True
b. False

A

false

31
Q

Which of the following alpha-1 blockers can cause orthostatic hypotension?

a. Doxazosin
b. Prazosin
c. Terazosin
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

32
Q

Which of the following are contraindicated in pregnancy?

a. Aliskiren
b. Lisinopril
c. Losartan
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

33
Q

Loop diuretics selectively inhibits NaCl reabsorption in the kidneys and is considered the
most efficacious agents in this class. Sodium is not the only electrolyte affected by the use of
loop diuretics. Which statement below is most accurate?
a. Hypernatremia
b. Hypermagnesemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. None of the above

A

None of the above

34
Q

Individuals should be screened for allergies prior to initiation of any new medication. Loop
diuretics have the potential to be cross allergenic with _________________.
a. Penicillins
b. Sulfonamides
c. Fluoroquinolones
d. Thiazides

A

Sulfonamides

35
Q

Thiazide diuretics have the potential to increase uric acid levels. Close monitoring due to
this effect may be advised in which disease state?
a. Type II diabetes
b. Gout
c. Hypertension
d. Angina

A

Gout

Pharm (23 decks)

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