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Pharm > Host Defenses and Vaccines > Flashcards

Host Defenses and Vaccines Flashcards

1
Q

Normal Immune Responses ___ and ___

A

protect the host from invading pathogens and aids in eliminating disease

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2
Q

Define The Innate Immune System

A

Exists prior to infection and is not enhanced by repeated exposure; inflammation is the immediate response to injury

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3
Q

The Innate Immune System is not enhanced by

A

repeated exposure

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4
Q

The Innate Immune System: ____ is the immediate response to injury

A

inflammation

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5
Q

Innate Immune System: Mechanical - (2 things)

A

skin, mucus

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6
Q

Innate Immune System: Biochemical - (4 things)

A

antimicrobial peptides and proteins, complement, interferons, free radicals

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7
Q

Innate Immune System: Cellular components - (4 things)

A

neutrophils, monocytes, natural kills cells (NK), natural killer-T-cells (NKT)

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8
Q

Adaptive Immune System: Responds to a variety of

A

antigens

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9
Q

Adaptive Immune System: Responds to prior

A

antigen exposure (memory response)

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10
Q

Adaptive Immune System: Memory response results in the production of

A

antibodies

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11
Q

Abnormal Immune Responses:

A

Hypersensitivity - Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV

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12
Q

Abnormal Immune Responses: Hypersensitivity - Type I -

A

Antibody mediated (IgE)

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13
Q

Abnormal Immune Responses: Hypersensitivity - Type I - Immediate reaction -

A

mast cells or basophils release mediators (for example histamine)

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14
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: H___

A

Histamine

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15
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: S___

A

Serotonin

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16
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: L___

A

Leukotrienes

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17
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: Pros___

A

Prostaglandins

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18
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: B___

A

Bradykinins

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19
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: Prot___

A

Proteases

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20
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: E___

A

Eosinophil chemotactic factor

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21
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: N___

A

Neutrophil chemotactic factor

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22
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: Effects: S___

A

Smooth muscle contraction

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23
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: Effects: V___

A

Vasodilation

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24
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: Effects: Increased ___

A

Increased vascular permeability

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25
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: Effects: P____

A

Platelet aggregation

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26
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: Effects: C____

A

Complement activation

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27
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Mediators: Effects: M____

A

Mucus secretion

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28
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Clinical Symptoms of the body’s response: A___

A

Asthma

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29
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Clinical Symptoms of the body’s response: H___ F___

A

Hay fever

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30
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Clinical Symptoms of the body’s response: S___ R___

A

Skin rashes

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31
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Clinical Symptoms of the body’s response: L___ A___

A

local anaphylaxis

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32
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type I - Clinical Symptoms of the body’s response: S__ A__

A

Systemic anaphylaxis

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33
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type II -

A

antibody mediated (IgM or IgG)

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34
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type II - Results from

A

formation of antigen-antibody complexes between foreign antigen and IgM or IgG immunoglobulins

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35
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type II - Results from formation of antigen-antibody complexes between foreign antigen and IgM or IgG immunoglobulins. 2 examples:

A

Blood transfusions and Rh discordance between mother and fetus

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36
Q

Hypersensitivity - Type II - Rh (rhesus) positive people have the

A

Rh antigen (rhesus factor, D antigen) on the surface of their red blood cells. Rh negative people do not.

37
Q

When an Rh-____ mother carries an Rh-____ baby, and some of the baby’s blood enters the mother’s bloodstream, this is called Rh-incompatibility.

A

negative mother

positive baby

38
Q

When the mother is Rh negative and baby is Rh positive,

A

The mother’s immune system sees the baby’s red blood cells as “foreign” and will try to eliminate them as invaders.

39
Q

Rh-incompatibility usually does not affect the mother’s ___ baby

A

first

40
Q

Rh-incompatibility usually does not affect the mother’s first baby, but once she has produced an immune response (called “Rh-sensitization”), all future Rh-positive babies are at risk for developing

A

hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)

41
Q

For the newborn, HDFN (hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn) is a serious condition that may cause a____, j____, h___ f___, b___ d____

A

anemia, jaundice, and in severe cases, heart failure and possible brain damage.

42
Q

Rho(D) Immune globulin should be administered to the mother after the first

A

discordant pregnancy

43
Q

Rho(D) Immune globulin should be administered to the mother after the first discordant pregnancy. The dose should be administered to the mother within

A

the first 72 hours of delivery.

44
Q

Rh incompatibility- Antepartum: Prophylaxis at __ weeks gestation

A

26 to 28

45
Q

Rh incompatibility- Antepartum: Prophylaxis at 26 to 28 weeks gestation. Administer within 72 hours of ______ resulting from:
Amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling (CVS) and percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
Abdominal trauma or obstetrical manipulation
Ectopic pregnancy
Threatened pregnancy loss after 12 weeks gestation with continuation of pregnancy
Pregnancy termination (spontaneous or induced) beyond 12 weeks gestation

A

suspected or proven exposure to Rh-positive red blood cells

46
Q

Rho(D)

A

a medication used to prevent RhD isoimmunization in mothers who are RhD negative

47
Q

If Rho(D) Immune globulin is administered early in pregnancy (before 26 to 28 weeks), there is an obligation to

A

maintain a level of passively acquired anti-D by administration of immune globulin at 12-week intervals until birth

48
Q

Type III - Antibody mediated

A

Elevated levels of antigen-antibody complexes in the circulation deposits on basement membranes in tissues and vessels

49
Q

Type III - Antibody mediated: Elevated levels of antigen-antibody complexes in the circulation deposits on basement membranes in tissues and vessels resulting in

A

skin rashes, glomerulonephritis or arthritis.

50
Q

Type III - Antibody mediated: Time of onset

A

3-4 days

51
Q

Type IV - Delayed hypersensitivity examples

A

TST and poison ivy (3 to 4 days onset)

52
Q

The tuberculin most widely used for intradermal testing is

A

purified protein derivative (PPD)

53
Q

The tuberculin most widely used for intradermal testing is purified protein derivative (PPD) which is derived from

A

cultures of M. tuberculosis.

54
Q

After intradermal injection of 5 tuberculin units, a pale wheel, ___mm in diameter should be seen.

A

6 to 10

55
Q

TST: ____ sensitized by prior exposure produce local induration through local vasodilation, edema, and inflammatory cells.

A

T-cells

56
Q

TST: Macrophages are activated and cause

A

tissue damage associated with delayed hypersensitivity

57
Q

TST: The peak reaction to the antigen exposure will occur more than __ hours from time of injection

A

24

58
Q

TST: The formation of vesicles, bullae, or necrosis at the test site indicate higher degrees of sensitivity and presence of

A

active disease

59
Q

Autoimmunity

A

Body mounts an immune response against itself

60
Q

Immunodeficiency Diseases- Results from an inadequate function in the immune system. Consequences include increase susceptibility to infections as well as

A

prolonged duration and severity of disease.

61
Q

2 causes of Immunodeficiency Diseases

A
  1. Congenital

2. Derived from extrinsic factors - bacterial or viral infections, drug treatment

62
Q

Autoimmune diseases: Rheumatoid arthritis: Step 1

A

IgM antibodies (rheumatoid factors) are produced

63
Q

Autoimmune diseases: Rheumatoid arthritis: Step 2

A

IgM reacts with IgG and may form immune complexes that activate the complement cascade

64
Q

Autoimmune diseases: Rheumatoid arthritis: Step 3

A

The result is chronic inflammation of the joints and kidneys.

65
Q

Autoimmune diseases: Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

antibodies are made against DNA, histones, red blood cells, platelets, and other cellular components.

66
Q

Autoimmune diseases: Multiple sclerosis

A

cell-mediated autoimmune attack that destroys myelin surrounding nerve cells

67
Q

Autoimmune diseases: Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1 diabetes): cell-mediated autoimmune attack that

A

destroys insulin-producing islet beta cells of the pancreas

68
Q

Autoimmune diseases: Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1 diabetes): activated CD4 TDTH cells that infiltrate the islets of Langerhans and recognize self islet beta cell peptides are thought to

A

produce cytokines that stimulate macrophages to produce lytic enzymes, which destroy islet beta cells.

69
Q

Vaccines: Active Immunization: Two facts

A
  1. Administration of antigen to host to produce antibody response
  2. May require time to develop antibodies
70
Q

Vaccines: Passive Immunization: definition

A

Use of preformed immunological products (immunoglobulins) to transfer immunity to the host

71
Q

Vaccines: Passive Immunization: May be derived from

A

either animals or humans

72
Q

Vaccines: Passive Immunization: May be directed against

A

a specific antigen

73
Q

Vaccines: Passive Immunization: may contain antibodies found in

A

the general population

74
Q

Vaccines: Passive Immunization: Products of the ___ have also been used

A

cellular immune system (interferons)

75
Q

Live Vaccines contain

A

modified and weakened live virus

76
Q

Live Vaccines: Contraindicated in:

A

Immunosuppressed
pregnancy
children less than 1 year old

77
Q 
MMR 
Varicella
Zoster 
Rotavirus 
Intranasal Influenza 
Oral Polio (unavailable in US)
A

Live, attenuated vaccines

78
Q 
Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis 
Polio (injection) 
Hepatitis A 
Hepatitis B 
Influenza (injection) 
HPV 
Rabies
A

Inactivated vaccines

79
Q

Inactivated vaccines: cannot

A

replicate in the body

80
Q

Since Inactivated vaccines cannot replicate in the body,

A

they usually require several doses

81
Q

Pure Polysaccharide vaccines should not be administered to

A

children less than 2 years old.

82
Q

Pure Polysaccharide vaccines should not be administered to children less than 2 years old because

A

Due to the immaturity of their immune system, they cannot yet form an immune response.

83
Q

Pure Polysaccharide vaccines, 2 examples

A

Pneumococcal Polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23)

Meningococcal polysaccharide vaccine (MPSV4)

84
Q

How many vaccines can be given in one visit

A

unlimited

85
Q

Live, attenuated injectable vaccines must be separated by

A

at least 4 weeks (if not administered at same visit)

86
Q

vaccines administered in a series: Increasing interval will

A

not diminish effect of vaccine, but will delay time to achieve full protection

87
Q

vaccines administered in a series: Decreasing the interval between administration

A

may interfere with the immune response

88
Q

vaccines administered in a series: vaccines may be administered up to ___ before the next scheduled dose

A

4 days

89
Q

attenuated vaccines

A

MMR
Oral Polio (unavailable in US)
Rotavirus

Intranasal Influenza
Varicella
Zoster

More IVsss

Pharm (23 decks)

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