Midterm Flashcards
1
Q
What is the legal aspect of pharmacology?
A
veterinarian-client-patient relationship
2
Q
What is a drug regimen?
A
the plan for administering a drug (i.e. - 20# Clavamox (62.5mg) 1 tab PO BID x 10 days)
3
Q
What does a regimen include?
A
route of administration, total amount given (dose), frequency of administration, duration of use
4
Q
What are controlled drugs?
A
drugs with potential for abuse or dependency need careful records of inventory use
5
Q
What is the AVMA’s preferred way to disposed of unwanted drugs?
A
incineration
6
Q
Where does drug excretion occur?
A
liver and kidney (kidney most common)
7
Q
What is Pharmacokinetics?
A
the study of the bodily absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
8
Q
What is a pharmacokinetic interaction?
A
absorption, distribution, metabolism or excretion changed by another drug
9
Q
What is a pharmacodynamic interaction?
A
the action or effect of one drug is altered by another
10
Q
What is a pharmaceutic interaction?
A
physical or chemical reaction between drugs from mixing of drugs in syringe
11
Q
What is Therapeutic Index (LD50/ED50)?
A
relationship between drugs ability to achieve desired effect and tendency to cause toxic effects (expressed as a ratio), quantitates margin of safety
12
Q
What are some needle sizes (largest to smallest in diameter)?
A
18g, 20g, 22g, 25g
13
Q
What is a Class I controlled drug?
A
high potential for abuse/no medical application
14
Q
What is the Green Book?
A
list of all animal drug products that have been approved by the FDA for safety and effectiveness
15
Q
What is the process of making a new drugs?
A
preliminary trials, preclinical trials, clinical trials, submission of a new animal drug, final review by FDA, product monitoring
16
Q
What is an agonist?
A
high tendency of a drug to bind to a receptor
17
Q
What is an antagonist?
A
a drug that blocks another drug from combining with a receptor
18
Q
What is extra-label use?
A
use of a drug in a way not specified on the label
19
Q
Where does drug metabolism/biotransformation occur?
A
in the liver
20
Q
What is a trade name?
A
proprietary name of a drug
21
Q
What is a suspension?
A
separates after sitting, shake well
22
Q
What is a bolus?
A
large pill used in large animals
23
Q
What is an elixir?
A
hydroalcoholic liquid with sweeteners, flavoring, and medication
24
Q
What is a liniment?
A
preparations for use on skin as a counterirritant or to relieve pain
25
What are the six rights of drug administration?
right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time/frequency, right documentation
26
Which route of injection has the slowest onset of action (IM, IV, SQ)?
SQ
27
What are insulin syringes?
25g needle, measure in units
28
What is Naloxone?
stimulates respiration by reversing opioid overdose
29
Which drugs are reversal agents?
Yohimbine, Naloxone, Atipamezole
30
What are the 4 categories of bronchodilators?
cholinergic blockers, antihistamines, beta-2 adrenergic agonist, methylxanthines
31
What are some examples of beta-2 adrenergic agonists?
epinephrine, albuterol, clenbuterol (both commonly used), and terbutaline (common)
32
What are some forms of methylxanthines?
theophylline and aminophylline
33
What are some forms of antihistamines?
diphenhydramine (benadryl), hydroxyzine, cyprohepatadine, cetirizine (xyrtec)
34
What drug is given to neonates to stimulate respiration?
Doxapram
35
Which drugs fall under the antitussive group?
Butorphanol, Hydrocodone, Codeine, Dextromethorphan, Temaril-P
36
What are the major side effect of corticosteroids?
PU/PD, panting, polyphagia, immunosuppression
37
What are some clinical uses of corticosteroids?
equine heaves, feline asthma, allergic pneumonia
38
What are some forms of corticosteroids?
prednisolone, prednisone, beclomethasone, fluticasone propionate (FLOVENT), triamcinolone
39
What drug is an antitussive and steroid?
Temaril-P
40
What does epinephrine treat in high doses?
cardiac arrest
41
What does epinephrine treat in low doses?
anaphylactic shock
42
What diseases do corticosteroids primarily treat?
equine heaves, feline asthma, allergic pneumonia
43
Why are inhaled steroids safer?
provides strong anti-inflammatory with fewer systemic side effects
44
Are most antitussive peripheral or central acting?
central
45
What drug group chemically alters mucous?
Mucolytics
46
What drug groups is used for productive coughs?
Expectorants
47
What skeletal drug is use as a muscle relaxer in horses?
Guaifenesin
48
What drug group is used to treat Heaves (horses)?
corticosteroids
49
What properties does Dextromethorphan not have that differentiates it from codeine?
no analgesia (pain control) or addictive properties so it is not controlled
50
What is preload stroke volume?
amount of blood that fills the ventricle during diastole
51
What is afterload stroke volume?
resistance that must be overcome to pump blood to body
52
What is the function of positive inotropes?
improves the strength of contraction even in face of disease
53
What are some forms of ACE inhibitors?
Enalapril and Benazepril
54
What drugs fall under the positive inotropes group?
cardiac glycosides, catecholamines, and inotropic mixed dilators
55
What are some forms of Beta Blockers?
Propanolol, Atenolol
56
What are some forms of vasodilator drugs?
hydralazine, nitroglycerin ointment, prazosin, ACE inhibitors
57
What are some forms of catecholamines?
epinephrine, isoproterenol, dopamine, dobutamine
(C.E.I.D.D - cats eat iced dunkin donuts)
58
What are some forms of cardiac glycosides?
Digoxin
59
Which two drugs should never be combined when treating arrhythmias?
lidocaine and epinephrine
60
What effects do beta blockers have? How do they affect the heart?
decrease heart rate and blood pressure
61
What is Pimobendan used to treat?
atrioventricular valve insufficiency and dilated cardiomyopathy
62
What effects do ACE inhibitors have? How do they affect preload and afterload?
decrease blood pressure, reduce preload and afterload
63
What are some side effects of Furosemide?
hypokalemia (low blood potassium)
64
What drug is commonly used to treat hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Propranolol, Diltiazem
65
What does Nitroglycerin do? How is it applied?
reduces preload, improves cardiac output, reduce associated pulmonary edema
applied topically
66
What does Lidocaine do?
control VPC’s, treats ventricular tachycardia
67
What drug treats tachycardia in hyperthyroidism and is a class II antiarrhythmic?
Propranolol
68
What drug most commonly has drug levels monitored (cardiac drugs)?
Digoxin
69
What drugs must be applied using gloves?
Nitroglycerin ointment
70
What does Epinephrine treat?
anaphylactic shock
71
Furosemide is what kind of diuretic?
loop diuretic
72
Methazolamide is in what group of diuretics?
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
73
Mannitol is what kind of diuretic?
Osmotic Diuretic
74
What diuretic spares potassium?
Spironolactone
75
Which drug is a urinary acidifier and is used to manage urinary stones?
Ammonium chloride
76
Diltiazem is what kind of drug?
Calcium Channel Blockers
77
What kind of diuretic works by inhibiting tubular reabsorption of sodium?
Furosemide
78
Which drug is a urinary acidifier?
Potassium citrate
79
What drug is commonly used for the treat of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats?
Diltiazem
80
What drugs works by preventing conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II?
ACE inhibitors
81
Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of what drug?
Furosemide
82
What drug increases the tone of the urethral sphincter?
Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
83
What can Mannitol be used to treat?
reduce intraocular pressure, reduce intracranial pressure, oliguric (low urine production) renal failure
84
Allopurinol can be used to manage what condition, common in Dalmatians?
urate uroliths
85
Where does Spironolactone work?
works in the late distal tubule and collecting duct
86
What condition is Furosemide commonly used to treat?
management of congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema
87
What can Prazosin be used to treat?
treatment of urinary retention due to detrusor arelexia
88
Amlodipine is used to treat what condition?
feline hypertension
89
What drugs are commonly used to treat hormonal urinary incontinence?
diethylstilbestrol (DES), Estriol (Incurin)
90
What drug is used in kidney failure treatment to increase red blood cell production?
Epoetin Alpha
91
What are the side effects of Alpha-2 agonists?
bradycardia
92
What is the reversal agent for Xylazine?
Yohimbine
93
What drug is often combined with Diazepam to induce anesthesia?
Ketamine
94
What effects does epinephrine have on the body?
constriction of blood vessels in the skin, dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscle, dilation of bronchioles
95
What drugs does Atipamezole reverse?
Medetomidine, Detomidine, Dexmedetomidine
96
What breed should Thiobarbiturates not be given to or should be used cautiously in?
sighthounds
97
Which drug is most likely to NOT be used in young stallions?
Acepromazine
98
What are the forms of Anticholinergic drugs?
Atropine, Glycopyrrolate, Propantheline, Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
99
What adrenergic agent is used to treat urinary incontinence?
Phenylpropanolamine
100
What are Dopamine and Dobutamine used to treat?
congestive heart failure
101
Are Dobutamine and Dopamine sympathomimetic or parasympathomimetic?
sympathomimetic
102
What are the side effects of Acepromazine?
hypotension, lowers seizure threshold in epileptic animals, penile priapism in young stallions
103
What are some forms of Benzodiazepine tranquilizers?
Diazepam (Valium), Midazolam, Alprazolam (Xanax)
104
What medication is used to diagnose Myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium
105
What are Anticholinergic drugs used to treat?
drying of secretions and prevention of bradycardia before anesthesia, dilation of pupils, relief of ciliary spasms
106
What are the forms of Barbiturates?
Phenobarbital, Pentobarbital, Thiopental
107
What is a form of long acting Barbiturate?
Phenobarbital
108
What is a form of short acting Barbiturate?
Pentobarbital
109
What is a form of ultra-short acting Barbiturate?
Thiopental
110
What drug is used as a euthanasia agent?
Pentobarbital
111
What are the side effects of Ketamine?
ataxia, hyperresponsiveness, hallucinations
112
A Phenothiazine tranquilizer is contraindicated in animals with what condition?
epilepsy
113
What drugs are Alpha-2 Agonists?
Xylazine, Detomidine, Medetomidine, Dexmedetomidine, Romifidine
114
What are the effects of Anticholinergics?
block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors
115
Xylazine has what type of effects?
sedative, analgesic and muscle relaxing properties
116
What does Clomipramine treat?
anxiety
117
Phenobarbital is an ____________.
anticonvulsant
118
What drug helps to stimulate respirations?
Doxapram
119
What inhaled anesthetic is used in high-risk patients?
Sevoflurane
120
What drugs treats canine cognitive dysfunction?
Selegiline
121
What are some forms of Dissociatives?
Ketamine, Tiletamine
122
What are some forms of Opioid Agonists?
Morphine, Oxymorphone, Butorphanol Tartrate, Fentanyl, Hydrocodone, Apomorphine, Codeine, Buprenorphine
123
What are some forms of Opioid Antagonists?
Naloxone
124
What drug is used to help prevent and control seizures that can have the adverse side effect of liver toxicity?
Phenobarbital
125
What narcotic opioid can be given as a transdermal patch?
Fentanyl
126
Do inhaled anesthetic like Isoflurane have high or low biotransformation rates?
low biotransformation rate
127
Apnea is the main side of what anesthetic drug?
Propofol
128
What drugs are used to prevent and control seizures?
Diazepam (Valium), Pentobarbital, Phenobarbital, Bromide, Gabapentin, Levetiracetam (Keppra), Zonisamide
129
What drugs are inhaled anesthetics?
Isoflurane, Sevoflurane, Halothane, Methoxyflurane
130
Clomipramine (Clomicalm) is what type of antidepressant?
Tricyclic Antidepressants
131
What drugs fall under the serotonin reuptake inhibitors group?
Fluoxetine, Reconcile, Trazodone, Selegiline, Dexmedetomidine oromucosal gel, Gabapentin
132
What is Pralidoxime used in the treatment of?
treats organophosphate toxicity
133
What drug is used to dilate pupils and treat ciliary spasms?
Anticholinergic drugs
134
What anticonvulsant drug also causes appetite stimulation in cats?
Benzodiazepines
135
What properties does Butorphanol have?
antitussive properties
136
What is Dexmedetomidine oromucosal gel used for?
used for noise aversions
137
What is Guaifenesin used for?
skeletal muscle relaxant used primarily in equine medicine to induce anesthesia, extend anesthesia of another injectable or enhance muscle relaxation of anesthetized patients
138
How does Trazodone work?
causes serotonin to remain in brainstem decreasing anxiety
139
What medication is given in emergency situations to stop seizures?
Diazepam (Valium)
140
What medication is converted to Phenobarbital by the liver which accounts for it's anticonvulsant activity?
Primidone
141
What are Zonisamide and Levetiracetam (Keppra) used for the treatment of?
seizures
142
Why would Atropine be used cautiously in horses?
colic
143
Which medication do we worry about binding to plastic inside a syringe?
Diazepam
