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Pharmacology > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the legal aspect of pharmacology?

A

veterinarian-client-patient relationship

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2
Q

What is a drug regimen?

A

the plan for administering a drug (i.e. - 20# Clavamox (62.5mg) 1 tab PO BID x 10 days)

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3
Q

What does a regimen include?

A

route of administration, total amount given (dose), frequency of administration, duration of use

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4
Q

What are controlled drugs?

A

drugs with potential for abuse or dependency need careful records of inventory use

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5
Q

What is the AVMA’s preferred way to disposed of unwanted drugs?

A

incineration

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6
Q

Where does drug excretion occur?

A

liver and kidney (kidney most common)

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7
Q

What is Pharmacokinetics?

A

the study of the bodily absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

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8
Q

What is a pharmacokinetic interaction?

A

absorption, distribution, metabolism or excretion changed by another drug

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9
Q

What is a pharmacodynamic interaction?

A

the action or effect of one drug is altered by another

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10
Q

What is a pharmaceutic interaction?

A

physical or chemical reaction between drugs from mixing of drugs in syringe

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11
Q

What is Therapeutic Index (LD50/ED50)?

A

relationship between drugs ability to achieve desired effect and tendency to cause toxic effects (expressed as a ratio), quantitates margin of safety

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12
Q

What are some needle sizes (largest to smallest in diameter)?

A

18g, 20g, 22g, 25g

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13
Q

What is a Class I controlled drug?

A

high potential for abuse/no medical application

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14
Q

What is the Green Book?

A

list of all animal drug products that have been approved by the FDA for safety and effectiveness

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15
Q

What is the process of making a new drugs?

A

preliminary trials, preclinical trials, clinical trials, submission of a new animal drug, final review by FDA, product monitoring

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16
Q

What is an agonist?

A

high tendency of a drug to bind to a receptor

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17
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

a drug that blocks another drug from combining with a receptor

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18
Q

What is extra-label use?

A

use of a drug in a way not specified on the label

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19
Q

Where does drug metabolism/biotransformation occur?

A

in the liver

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20
Q

What is a trade name?

A

proprietary name of a drug

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21
Q

What is a suspension?

A

separates after sitting, shake well

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22
Q

What is a bolus?

A

large pill used in large animals

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23
Q

What is an elixir?

A

hydroalcoholic liquid with sweeteners, flavoring, and medication

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24
Q

What is a liniment?

A

preparations for use on skin as a counterirritant or to relieve pain

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25
Q

What are the six rights of drug administration?

A

right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time/frequency, right documentation

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26
Q

Which route of injection has the slowest onset of action (IM, IV, SQ)?

A

SQ

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27
Q

What are insulin syringes?

A

25g needle, measure in units

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28
Q

What is Naloxone?

A

stimulates respiration by reversing opioid overdose

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29
Q

Which drugs are reversal agents?

A

Yohimbine, Naloxone, Atipamezole

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30
Q

What are the 4 categories of bronchodilators?

A

cholinergic blockers, antihistamines, beta-2 adrenergic agonist, methylxanthines

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31
Q

What are some examples of beta-2 adrenergic agonists?

A

epinephrine, albuterol, clenbuterol (both commonly used), and terbutaline (common)

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32
Q

What are some forms of methylxanthines?

A

theophylline and aminophylline

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33
Q

What are some forms of antihistamines?

A

diphenhydramine (benadryl), hydroxyzine, cyprohepatadine, cetirizine (xyrtec)

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34
Q

What drug is given to neonates to stimulate respiration?

A

Doxapram

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35
Q

Which drugs fall under the antitussive group?

A

Butorphanol, Hydrocodone, Codeine, Dextromethorphan, Temaril-P

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36
Q

What are the major side effect of corticosteroids?

A

PU/PD, panting, polyphagia, immunosuppression

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37
Q

What are some clinical uses of corticosteroids?

A

equine heaves, feline asthma, allergic pneumonia

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38
Q

What are some forms of corticosteroids?

A

prednisolone, prednisone, beclomethasone, fluticasone propionate (FLOVENT), triamcinolone

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39
Q

What drug is an antitussive and steroid?

A

Temaril-P

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40
Q

What does epinephrine treat in high doses?

A

cardiac arrest

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41
Q

What does epinephrine treat in low doses?

A

anaphylactic shock

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42
Q

What diseases do corticosteroids primarily treat?

A

equine heaves, feline asthma, allergic pneumonia

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43
Q

Why are inhaled steroids safer?

A

provides strong anti-inflammatory with fewer systemic side effects

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44
Q

Are most antitussive peripheral or central acting?

A

central

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45
Q

What drug group chemically alters mucous?

A

Mucolytics

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46
Q

What drug groups is used for productive coughs?

A

Expectorants

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47
Q

What skeletal drug is use as a muscle relaxer in horses?

A

Guaifenesin

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48
Q

What drug group is used to treat Heaves (horses)?

A

corticosteroids

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49
Q

What properties does Dextromethorphan not have that differentiates it from codeine?

A

no analgesia (pain control) or addictive properties so it is not controlled

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50
Q

What is preload stroke volume?

A

amount of blood that fills the ventricle during diastole

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51
Q

What is afterload stroke volume?

A

resistance that must be overcome to pump blood to body

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52
Q

What is the function of positive inotropes?

A

improves the strength of contraction even in face of disease

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53
Q

What are some forms of ACE inhibitors?

A

Enalapril and Benazepril

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54
Q

What drugs fall under the positive inotropes group?

A

cardiac glycosides, catecholamines, and inotropic mixed dilators

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55
Q

What are some forms of Beta Blockers?

A

Propanolol, Atenolol

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56
Q

What are some forms of vasodilator drugs?

A

hydralazine, nitroglycerin ointment, prazosin, ACE inhibitors

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57
Q

What are some forms of catecholamines?

A

epinephrine, isoproterenol, dopamine, dobutamine
(C.E.I.D.D - cats eat iced dunkin donuts)

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58
Q

What are some forms of cardiac glycosides?

A

Digoxin

59
Q

Which two drugs should never be combined when treating arrhythmias?

A

lidocaine and epinephrine

60
Q

What effects do beta blockers have? How do they affect the heart?

A

decrease heart rate and blood pressure

61
Q

What is Pimobendan used to treat?

A

atrioventricular valve insufficiency and dilated cardiomyopathy

62
Q

What effects do ACE inhibitors have? How do they affect preload and afterload?

A

decrease blood pressure, reduce preload and afterload

63
Q

What are some side effects of Furosemide?

A

hypokalemia (low blood potassium)

64
Q

What drug is commonly used to treat hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Propranolol, Diltiazem

65
Q

What does Nitroglycerin do? How is it applied?

A

reduces preload, improves cardiac output, reduce associated pulmonary edema
applied topically

66
Q

What does Lidocaine do?

A

control VPC’s, treats ventricular tachycardia

67
Q

What drug treats tachycardia in hyperthyroidism and is a class II antiarrhythmic?

A

Propranolol

68
Q

What drug most commonly has drug levels monitored (cardiac drugs)?

A

Digoxin

69
Q

What drugs must be applied using gloves?

A

Nitroglycerin ointment

70
Q

What does Epinephrine treat?

A

anaphylactic shock

71
Q

Furosemide is what kind of diuretic?

A

loop diuretic

72
Q

Methazolamide is in what group of diuretics?

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

73
Q

Mannitol is what kind of diuretic?

A

Osmotic Diuretic

74
Q

What diuretic spares potassium?

A

Spironolactone

75
Q

Which drug is a urinary acidifier and is used to manage urinary stones?

A

Ammonium chloride

76
Q

Diltiazem is what kind of drug?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

77
Q

What kind of diuretic works by inhibiting tubular reabsorption of sodium?

A

Furosemide

78
Q

Which drug is a urinary acidifier?

A

Potassium citrate

79
Q

What drug is commonly used for the treat of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats?

A

Diltiazem

80
Q

What drugs works by preventing conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II?

A

ACE inhibitors

81
Q

Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of what drug?

A

Furosemide

82
Q

What drug increases the tone of the urethral sphincter?

A

Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)

83
Q

What can Mannitol be used to treat?

A

reduce intraocular pressure, reduce intracranial pressure, oliguric (low urine production) renal failure

84
Q

Allopurinol can be used to manage what condition, common in Dalmatians?

A

urate uroliths

85
Q

Where does Spironolactone work?

A

works in the late distal tubule and collecting duct

86
Q

What condition is Furosemide commonly used to treat?

A

management of congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema

87
Q

What can Prazosin be used to treat?

A

treatment of urinary retention due to detrusor arelexia

88
Q

Amlodipine is used to treat what condition?

A

feline hypertension

89
Q

What drugs are commonly used to treat hormonal urinary incontinence?

A

diethylstilbestrol (DES), Estriol (Incurin)

90
Q

What drug is used in kidney failure treatment to increase red blood cell production?

A

Epoetin Alpha

91
Q

What are the side effects of Alpha-2 agonists?

A

bradycardia

92
Q

What is the reversal agent for Xylazine?

A

Yohimbine

93
Q

What drug is often combined with Diazepam to induce anesthesia?

A

Ketamine

94
Q

What effects does epinephrine have on the body?

A

constriction of blood vessels in the skin, dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscle, dilation of bronchioles

95
Q

What drugs does Atipamezole reverse?

A

Medetomidine, Detomidine, Dexmedetomidine

96
Q

What breed should Thiobarbiturates not be given to or should be used cautiously in?

A

sighthounds

97
Q

Which drug is most likely to NOT be used in young stallions?

A

Acepromazine

98
Q

What are the forms of Anticholinergic drugs?

A

Atropine, Glycopyrrolate, Propantheline, Pralidoxime (2-PAM)

99
Q

What adrenergic agent is used to treat urinary incontinence?

A

Phenylpropanolamine

100
Q

What are Dopamine and Dobutamine used to treat?

A

congestive heart failure

101
Q

Are Dobutamine and Dopamine sympathomimetic or parasympathomimetic?

A

sympathomimetic

102
Q

What are the side effects of Acepromazine?

A

hypotension, lowers seizure threshold in epileptic animals, penile priapism in young stallions

103
Q

What are some forms of Benzodiazepine tranquilizers?

A

Diazepam (Valium), Midazolam, Alprazolam (Xanax)

104
Q

What medication is used to diagnose Myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium

105
Q

What are Anticholinergic drugs used to treat?

A

drying of secretions and prevention of bradycardia before anesthesia, dilation of pupils, relief of ciliary spasms

106
Q

What are the forms of Barbiturates?

A

Phenobarbital, Pentobarbital, Thiopental

107
Q

What is a form of long acting Barbiturate?

A

Phenobarbital

108
Q

What is a form of short acting Barbiturate?

A

Pentobarbital

109
Q

What is a form of ultra-short acting Barbiturate?

A

Thiopental

110
Q

What drug is used as a euthanasia agent?

A

Pentobarbital

111
Q

What are the side effects of Ketamine?

A

ataxia, hyperresponsiveness, hallucinations

112
Q

A Phenothiazine tranquilizer is contraindicated in animals with what condition?

A

epilepsy

113
Q

What drugs are Alpha-2 Agonists?

A

Xylazine, Detomidine, Medetomidine, Dexmedetomidine, Romifidine

114
Q

What are the effects of Anticholinergics?

A

block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors

115
Q

Xylazine has what type of effects?

A

sedative, analgesic and muscle relaxing properties

116
Q

What does Clomipramine treat?

A

anxiety

117
Q

Phenobarbital is an ____________.

A

anticonvulsant

118
Q

What drug helps to stimulate respirations?

A

Doxapram

119
Q

What inhaled anesthetic is used in high-risk patients?

A

Sevoflurane

120
Q

What drugs treats canine cognitive dysfunction?

A

Selegiline

121
Q

What are some forms of Dissociatives?

A

Ketamine, Tiletamine

122
Q

What are some forms of Opioid Agonists?

A

Morphine, Oxymorphone, Butorphanol Tartrate, Fentanyl, Hydrocodone, Apomorphine, Codeine, Buprenorphine

123
Q

What are some forms of Opioid Antagonists?

A

Naloxone

124
Q

What drug is used to help prevent and control seizures that can have the adverse side effect of liver toxicity?

A

Phenobarbital

125
Q

What narcotic opioid can be given as a transdermal patch?

A

Fentanyl

126
Q

Do inhaled anesthetic like Isoflurane have high or low biotransformation rates?

A

low biotransformation rate

127
Q

Apnea is the main side of what anesthetic drug?

A

Propofol

128
Q

What drugs are used to prevent and control seizures?

A

Diazepam (Valium), Pentobarbital, Phenobarbital, Bromide, Gabapentin, Levetiracetam (Keppra), Zonisamide

129
Q

What drugs are inhaled anesthetics?

A

Isoflurane, Sevoflurane, Halothane, Methoxyflurane

130
Q

Clomipramine (Clomicalm) is what type of antidepressant?

A

Tricyclic Antidepressants

131
Q

What drugs fall under the serotonin reuptake inhibitors group?

A

Fluoxetine, Reconcile, Trazodone, Selegiline, Dexmedetomidine oromucosal gel, Gabapentin

132
Q

What is Pralidoxime used in the treatment of?

A

treats organophosphate toxicity

133
Q

What drug is used to dilate pupils and treat ciliary spasms?

A

Anticholinergic drugs

134
Q

What anticonvulsant drug also causes appetite stimulation in cats?

A

Benzodiazepines

135
Q

What properties does Butorphanol have?

A

antitussive properties

136
Q

What is Dexmedetomidine oromucosal gel used for?

A

used for noise aversions

137
Q

What is Guaifenesin used for?

A

skeletal muscle relaxant used primarily in equine medicine to induce anesthesia, extend anesthesia of another injectable or enhance muscle relaxation of anesthetized patients

138
Q

How does Trazodone work?

A

causes serotonin to remain in brainstem decreasing anxiety

139
Q

What medication is given in emergency situations to stop seizures?

A

Diazepam (Valium)

140
Q

What medication is converted to Phenobarbital by the liver which accounts for it’s anticonvulsant activity?

A

Primidone

141
Q

What are Zonisamide and Levetiracetam (Keppra) used for the treatment of?

A

seizures

142
Q

Why would Atropine be used cautiously in horses?

A

colic

143
Q

Which medication do we worry about binding to plastic inside a syringe?

A

Diazepam

Pharmacology (13 decks)

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