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1st Aid Memorize > Micro (Bacteria and Parasites) > Flashcards

Micro (Bacteria and Parasites) Flashcards

1
Q

3 Parts of LPS

A
  • Lipid A
  • O Antigen
  • Polysaccharide
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2
Q

Function of lipid A

A

TNF and IL-1 induction for gram negative sepsis

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3
Q

Function of O antigen

A

used for typing of Gram Negative species

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4
Q

Branching filaments

A

Actinomyces

Nocardia

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5
Q

Difference between actinomyces and nocardia

A

Nocardia is weakly acid fast

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6
Q

Mycoplasma cell membrane/cell wall features

A
  • Sterols in cell membrane

- NO cell wall

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7
Q

Mycobacteria cell membrane/cell wall features

A
  • Contain mycolic acid

- High lipid content

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8
Q

Bugs that do not gram stain well (and why)

A
  • Treponema (too thin)
  • Mycobacteria (tons of lipid in cell wall)
  • Mycoplasma (no cell wall)
  • Legionella (intracellular)
  • Rickettsia (intracellular)
  • Chlamydia (intracellular; lacks muramic acid in cell wall)

“These Microbes May Lack Real Color”

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9
Q

Bugs that stain with Giemsa stain

A 
Chlamydia
Borrelia
Rickettsiae
Trypanosomes
Plasmodium

“Certain Bugs Really Try my Patience”

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10
Q

PAS staining bugs (why)

A

Tropheryma whipplei (stains glycogen and mucopolysaccharides)

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11
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen staining bugs (and why)

A

Nocardia
Mycobacteria
(acid fast)

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12
Q

India ink staining bugs

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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13
Q

What other than india ink can be used to visualize cryptococcus?

A

Mucicarmine (stains thick polysaccharide capsule red)

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14
Q

Silver staining bugs

A

Fungi
Legionella
H. pylori

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15
Q

Isolated on chocolate agar

A

H. flu (needs X and V)

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16
Q

Isolated on Thayer-Martin Media

A

Neisseria

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17
Q

What is in Thayer-Martin Media

A

VPN
Vancomycin (kills GPs)
Polymyxin (kills GNs but neisseria)
Nystatin (kills fungi)

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18
Q

Isolated on Bordet-Gengou agar

A

Bordetella pertussis

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19
Q

Isolated on tellurite agar or Loffler medium

A

C. diptheriae

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20
Q

Isolated on Lowenstein-Jensen agar

A

Tb

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21
Q

Isolated on Eaton agar

A

M. pneumoniae (needs cholesterol)

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22
Q

Pink on MacConkey agar

A

Lactose-fermening enterics

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23
Q

Green metallic sheen on EMB agar

A

E. coli

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24
Q

Isolated on charcoal yeast extract buffered with cysteine and iron

A

Legionella

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25
Q

Isolated on Sabouraud Agar

A

fungi

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26
Q

Obligate aerobes

A 
Nocardia
Pseudomonas
MycoBacterium Tb (apex of lung)

“Nagging Pests Must Breathe”

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27
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

Closridium
Bacteroides
Actinomyces

“Can’t Breathe Air”

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28
Q

What do obligate anaerobes lack?

A

Catalase and/or Superoxide dismutase (so susceptible for oxidative damage)

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29
Q

Obligate intracellular

A

Chlamydia

Rickettsia

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30
Q

Facultative intracellular

A 
Samonella
Neisseria
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Listeria
Francisella
Legionella
Yersinia pestis

“Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY”

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31
Q

Encapsulated Bacteria

A 
Salmonella
H. Influenza
Neisseria meningitidis
E. coli
Strep pneumo
Klebsiella
Strep agalactiae (GBS)

SHINE SKiS

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32
Q

Catalase Positive Bugs

A 
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E. coli
S. aureus
Serratia

“PLACESS for cats”

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33
Q

Urease Positive Bugs

A 
Cryptococcus
H. Pylori
Proteus
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Klebsiella
S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus

“CHuck norris hates PUNKSS”

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34
Q

Yellow “sulfur” granules

A

Actinomyces

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35
Q

Yellow pigment

A

Staph aureus

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36
Q

Blue-green pigment

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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37
Q

Red pigment

A

Serratia marcescens

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38
Q

What produces Protein A?

A

Staph aureus

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39
Q

Wat does Protein A do?

A

Binds Fc region of IgG (to prevent opsonizaiton and phagocytosis)

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40
Q

What produces IgA protease?

A

S. pnumoniae
H. flu
Neisseria

“SHiN”

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41
Q

What does IgA protease do?

A

cleaves IgA in order to colonize respiratory mucosa

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42
Q

What produces M protein?

A

Group A Strep

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43
Q

What does M protein do?

A

helps prevent phagocytosis

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44
Q

Endotoxin or exotoxin: stable at 100 degrees for 1 hr

A

Endotoxin (exotoxin is destroyed at 60 degrees except staph enterotoxin)

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45
Q

Exotoxin or endotoxin: located on outer cell membrane

A

Endotoxin (of most gram negative bacteria)

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46
Q

Exotoxin or endotoxxin: high toxicity

A

Exotoxin

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47
Q

Exotoxin or endotoxin: poorly antigenic

A

Endotoxin (exotoxin induces high-titer Ab’s called anti-toxins)

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48
Q

Which toxins inactivate elongation factor EF-2 via ADP ribosylation?

A 
Diptheria
Exotoxin A (Pseudomonas)
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49
Q

Which toxins inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA?

A

Shiga toxin

Shiga-like toxin (EHEC)

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50
Q

Which toxins overactivate adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP and Cl- secretion in the gut (and H2O efflux)?

A 
LT toxin (ETEC)
Cholera toxin (permanent activaiton of Gs)
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51
Q

Which toxin mimics cholera toxin in the skin?

A

Edema factor (Bacillus anthracis)

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52
Q

Which toxin overactivates adenylate cyclase by disabling Gi (impairing phagocytosis)?

A

Pertussis toxin

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53
Q

Which toxin overactivates guanylate cyclase to incrase cGMP and decreases resorption of NaCl and H2O in the gut?

A

ST toxin (ETEC)

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54
Q

Which toxin prevents release of inhibitory neutotransmitters from Renshaw cells in spinal cord?

A

Tetanospasmin (cleave SNARE proteins)

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55
Q

Which toxin prevents release of stimulatory signals at the NMJ?

A

Botulinum toxin (cleave SNARE proteins)

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56
Q

Which toxin acts by degrading phospholipids?

A

Alpha toxin (lecithinase) of clostridium perfringens

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57
Q

What is the result of alpha toxin in clostridium perfringens?

A
  • Myonecrosis (gas gangrene)

- “Double zone” of hemolysis on blood agar

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58
Q

Which toxin is a protein that degrades cell membranes?

A

Streptolysin O (strep pyogenes)

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59
Q

Which toxins bring MHC II and TCR together at outside of Ag binding iste to cause release of IL-1, TNF-alpha and IL-2?

A
  • TSST-1 (staph aureus)

- Exotoxin A (strep pyogenes)

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60
Q

What things are released with endotoxins?

A

ENDOTOXIN

  • edema (C3a)
  • NO
  • dic/death
  • outer membrane
  • TNF-ALPHA
  • o-antigen
  • extremely heat stable
  • IL-1
  • neutrophil chemotaxis (C5a)
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61
Q

Which bacteria are specialized at transformation (taking up DNA from environment)?

A
  • S. pneumo
  • H. flu
  • Neisseria

“SHiN”

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62
Q

List the 5 bacterial toxins encoded on a lysogenic phage.

A

1) shigA-like toxin
2) Botulinum toxin
3) Cholera toxin
4) Diptheria toxin
5) Erythrogenic toxin of strep. pyogenes

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63
Q

Catalase positive

A

Staph

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64
Q

Novobiocin resistant

A

Staph Saprophyticus

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65
Q

Novobiocin sensitive

A

Staph Epidermidis

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66
Q

Optochin Sensitive

A

Strep pneumoniae

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67
Q

Optochin resistant

A

Strep viridans

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68
Q

Bacitracin sensitive

A

GAS

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69
Q

Bacitracin resistant

A

GBS

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70
Q

Alpha hemolytic

A

Strep pneumo

Viridans strep

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71
Q

Alpha-hemolytic bug that is bile soluble

A

Strep pneumo

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72
Q

Beta hemolytic

A

GBS and GAS

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73
Q

Gamma hemolytic

A

Enterococcus (GDS)

Strep. bovis

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74
Q

Gamma hemolytic with growth in bile and 6.5% NaCl

A

Enterococcus

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75
Q

Gram positive rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

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76
Q

If see subacute endocarditis suspect colon cancer?

A

Strep bovis

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77
Q

Food poisoning with 2-6 hour incubation

A

Staph Aureus (enterotoxin)

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78
Q

Rusty sputum

A

Strep pneumo

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79
Q

Substance made by Strep sanguinis that binds to fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart valves.

A

Dextrans

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80
Q

Sand-paper like rash and strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever (GAS)

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81
Q

What precedes rheumatic fever?

A

strep pharyngitis

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82
Q

What precedes PSGS?

A

impetigo > strep pharyngitis

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83
Q

Produces CAMP factor (enlarges area of hemolysis caused by Staph aureus).

A

GBS

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84
Q

Pregnant women positive for GBS treatment

A

Intrapartum penicillin prophylaxis for mom

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85
Q

What is Lancefield grouping based on?

A

differences in C carbohydrate in bacterial cell wall

86
Q

Spore forming GP bacteria in soil.

A

Bacillus anthracis
Clostridium perfringens
C. tetani

87
Q

Spore forming GP bacteria (not in soil)

A

B. cereus
C. botulinum
Coxiella burnetii

88
Q

What is present in core of spore?

A

dipicolinic acid

89
Q

How do you kill spores?

A

autoclaving (121 degrees for 15 minutes)

90
Q

Toxin A of C-diff

A

Enterotoxin that binds to brush border of gut

91
Q

Toxin B of C-diff

A

Cytotoxin that causes cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization

92
Q

Only bacteria with polypeptide capsule

A

Bacillus anthracis (D-glutamate)

93
Q

Food poisoning with 1-5 hours til N/V and 8-18 hours til Diarrhea

A

B. cerues

94
Q

Only gram positive bacteria to make endotoxin

A

Listeria monocytogenes

95
Q

Branching filaments treated with penicillin

A

actinomyces

96
Q

Branching filaments treated with sulfonamides

A

Nocardia

97
Q

Which GP branching filament is an anaerobe?

A

Actinomyces

98
Q

Which GP branching filament is part of normal oral flora?

A

Actinomyces (nocardia is in soil)

99
Q

Which GP branching filament causes pulmonary infection in immunocompromised or cutaneous infection in immunocompetent with trauma?

A

Nocardia (actinomyces causes oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts)

100
Q

Tumbling motility

A

Listeria

101
Q

Mycobacterium leprae that has humoral Th2 response

A

Lepromatous leprosy

102
Q

Mycobacterium leprae that has largery Th1 type immune response

A

Tuberculoid

103
Q

Comma shaped oxidase positive GN

A

Campylobacter jejuni
Vibrio cholerae
H. pylori

104
Q

Oxiadase positive GN rod

A

Pseudomonas

105
Q

GN gros in 42 degrees

A

Campylobacter jejuni

106
Q

GN Rod lacose nonfermenter

A 
Shigella
Salmonella
Proteus
Yersinia
Pseudomonas
107
Q

GN Rod lactose fermenter

A 
Klebsiella (fast)
E. coli (fast)
Enterobacter (fast)
Citrobacter (slow)
Serratia (slow)

“macConKEES agar used to test!”

108
Q

GN “coccobacilli”

A
  • H. flu
  • Pasteurella
  • Brucella
  • Bordetella pertussus
109
Q

GN diplococci

A

Neisseria

110
Q

Which neisseria ferments maltose?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

111
Q

Bug that makes beta-galactosidase

A

E. coli (breaks lactose into glucose and galactose)

112
Q

Which neisseria has a capsule?

A

Meningococci

113
Q

Whcih neisseria can cause Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?

A

Gonococci

114
Q

Which neisseria is treated with cegtriaxone or penicillin G?

A

Meningococci (gonococci is treated with ceftriaxone + azithromycin or doxy for chlamydia co-infection)

115
Q

Treatment of H. flu mucosal infection.

A

Amoxicillin +/- clavulanate

116
Q

Treatment of H. flu close contacts.

A

Rifampin

117
Q

Treatment of H. flu meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone

118
Q

WHen do you give HiB vaccine?

A

Between 2-18 months

119
Q

Detect pulmonary infection by antigen in urine?

A

legionella

120
Q

What lab oddity is seen in Legionella infection?

A

hyponatremia

121
Q

DOC for legionella

A

Macrolide

Quinolone

122
Q

DOC for Pseudomonas

A

Aminoglycoside + piperacillin, ticarcillin, cefepime, imipenem, meropenem

123
Q

E. coli that adheres to apical surface, prevents absorption, flattens villi

A

EPEC (affects children)

124
Q

E. coli that invades intestinal mucosa and mimics shigella in manifestations

A

EIEC

125
Q

4 A’s of Klebsiella

A

Aspiration pneumonia
Abscess in lungs/liver
Alcoholics
di-A-betics

126
Q

Salmonella or shigella: flagella

A

salmonella

127
Q

Salmonella or shigella: PMN infiltrate

A

shigella

128
Q

Salmonella or shigella: hematogenous spread

A

salmonella

129
Q

Salmonella or shigella: hydrogen sulfide production

A

salmonella

130
Q

Salmonella or shigella: antibiotics prolong fecal excretion of organism

A

salmonella

131
Q

Salmonella or shigella: OFTEN causes bloody diarrhea

A

shigella (salmonella can cause)

132
Q

What bug has K1 capsular polysaccharide?

A

E. coli

133
Q

What is the function of K1 capsular polysaccharide?

A

Prevents phagocytosis and complement mediated lysis (causes neonatal meningitis)

134
Q

What bug has P fimbriae?

A

E. coli

135
Q

What is the function of P fimbriae?

A

allows adhesion to uroepithelium for UTIs

136
Q

Comma shaped, oxidase +, GN that grows in alkaline media

A

Vibrio cholera

137
Q

Transmitted by puppy poop and pork

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

138
Q

H pylori treatment

A

PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin or metronidazole

139
Q

Spirochetes

A

Borrelia (big)
Leptospira
Treponema

140
Q

Surfers in Hawaii or animal urine

A

Leptospira interrogans

141
Q

Symptoms of Leptospirosis

A

Flu-like
Jaundice
Photophobia
COnjunctival suffusion

142
Q

Weil disease

A

Leptospira interrogans (icterohemorrhagic leptospirosis)

143
Q

Ixodes tick

A

Borrelia burgdorferi
Babesia
Anaplasma

144
Q

VDRL false positives

A

Viruses (mono, hepatitis)
Drugs
Rheumatic fever
Lupus/Leprosy

145
Q

Flu-like syndrome after syphilis treatment

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

146
Q

Monocytes with morulae in cytoplasm

A

ehrlichiosis

147
Q

Granulocytes with morulae in cytoplasm

A

Anaplasmosis

148
Q

Cat scratch, bacillary angiomatosis

A

Bartonella

149
Q

Louse

A
  • Borrelia recurrentis (relapsing fever due to variable surface antigens)
  • Rickettsia prowazekii (epidemic typhus)
150
Q

Unpasteurized dairy

A

Brucella (undulant fever)

151
Q

Puppies, livestock then bloody diarrhea

A

Campylobacter

152
Q

Parrots

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

153
Q

Aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid

A

Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)

154
Q

Lone star tics

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

155
Q

Dermacentor tics

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

156
Q

Ticks, rabbits, deer fly

A

Francisella tularensis

157
Q

Armadillo

A

Mycobacterium leprae

158
Q

Animal bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

159
Q

Fleas

A
  • Rickettsia typhi (endemic typhus)

- Yersinia pestis (on rats and prarie dogs)

160
Q

Whiff test, Clue cells

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

161
Q

Palms and soles rash

A

Coxsackievirus A (HF&M disease)
RMSF (starts on wrists)
Secondary syphilis

162
Q

Rash that starts centrally, spreads out and spares palms/soles (from fleas/louse)

A

Endemic or Epidemic Typhus

163
Q

Stages of chlamydia life cycle

A

Elementary body can live outside cells (gets endocytosed); Reticular body forms from EB and replicated by binary fission; RB transforms into EB

164
Q

Lymphogranuloma venerum

A

Chlamydia trachomatis types L1-L3

165
Q

Chlamydia induced blindness

A

Types A, B, C

166
Q

Cold agglutinins (IgM)

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

167
Q

MIssissippi and OH river valleys (caves)

A

HIstoplasmosis (macrophage filled with Histoplasma)

168
Q

East of Mississippi and Central America

A

Blastomycosis (broad based buds)

169
Q

Southwestern USA (California after earthquake)

A

Coccidioidomycosis (spherules filled with endospores)

170
Q

Latin America

A

Paracoccidioidomycosis (looks like captin’s wheel)

171
Q

Spaghetti and meatballs

A

Malassezia furfur (tinea versicolor)

172
Q

Treatment of versicolor

A

Topical miconazole

Selenium sulfide

173
Q

Pseudohyphae at 20; germ tubes at 37

A

Candida albicans (opportunistic)

174
Q

Septate hyphae at 45; Conidiophore with radiating chains

A

Aspergillus fumigatus (opportunistic)

175
Q

Opportunistic fungi that causes meningitis

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

176
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis and leukemic patients

A

Mucormycosis

177
Q

Latex agglutination test to detech polysaccharide capsular antigen

A

Cryptococcus

178
Q

Fungal infection that increases risk of HCC

A

Aspergillus (produces aflatoxins)

179
Q

Pigeon droppings

A

Cryptococcus

180
Q

Treatment for pneumocystic jirovecci

A

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis with dapsone or atovaquone at CD4 <200)

181
Q

Nodules along draining lymphatics

A

Sporothrix schenckii (from rose prick)

182
Q

Treatment for sporothrix schenckii

A

Potassium iodide or itraconazole

183
Q

Oocysts in water transmission

A

Cryptosporidium

184
Q

Cysts in water transmission

A

Giardia lamblia

Entamoeba histolytica

185
Q

Bloody diarrhea; Flask shaped ulcer; liver abscess with anchovy paste exudate

A

Entamoeba histolytica

186
Q

Bloating, flatulence, fatty diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

187
Q

Severe diarrhea in AIDS

A

Cryptosporidium

188
Q

Trophozoites (with RBCs in cytoplasm) or Cysts (with up to 4 nuclei)

A

Entamoeba histolytica

189
Q

Cryptosporidium treatment

A

Nitazoxanide

190
Q

Transmitted by cysts in meat or oocysts in cat feces

A

Toxoplasma gondii

191
Q

Transmitted by Tsetse fly (painful bite)

A

Trypanosoma brucei (African sleeping sickness)

192
Q

Transmitted when freshwater lake swimming and enters cribriform plate

A

Naegleria fowleri

193
Q

Causes ring-enhancing grain lesions and chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and intracranial calcifications

A

Toxoplasmosis

194
Q

Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis with amoebas in spinal fluid

A

Naegleria fowleri

195
Q

Treatment for Trypanosoma infection

A

Suramin (blood borne disease)

Melarsoprol (CNS penetration)

196
Q

Maltese cross on blood smear

A

Babesia

197
Q

Reduviid bug

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

198
Q

Sandfly

A

Leishmania donovani

199
Q

Sexual protozoa

A

Trichomonas vaginalis (treat partner with metronidazole)

200
Q

Blackfly bite

A

Onchocerca volvulus (causes hyperpigmentation and river blindness)

201
Q

Ingested nematodes

A

Enterobius (pinworm)
Ascaris (fiant roundworm)
Toxocara canis (causes visceral larva migrans)

202
Q

Nematodes that penetrate skin

A

Strongyloides (worm ball)
Ancylostoma (hookworm)
Necator (hookworm)

203
Q

Nematodes that enter via bites

A 
Loa Loa (worm in conjunctiva)
Onchocerca volvulus (River blindness)
Wuchereria bancrofti (elephantitis)
204
Q

Biliary tract disease, cholangiocarcinoma

A

Clonorchis sinensis (from undercooked fish)

205
Q

Brain cysts, seizures

A

Taenia solium (cysticercosis fromeating eggs)

206
Q

Hematuria, bladder cancer

A

Schistosoma haematobium

207
Q

Liver (hyadatid) cysts

A

Echinococcus granulosus

208
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

Ancyostoma

Necator

209
Q

Perianal pruritis

A

Enterobius

210
Q

Portal HTN

A

Schistosoma mansoni

Schistosoma japonicum

211
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

1st Aid Memorize (21 decks)

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