Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PMP - BrainBOK > Medium Difficulty 3 > Flashcards

Medium Difficulty 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the only way for a project management practitioner to resolve conflict of interest?

A

To disclose the conflict to the parties affected by the conflict and let them make a decision on how he/she should proceed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is making decisions in the best interest of the society an aspirational or a mandatory standard?

A

Aspirational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Accepting only those assignments that we are skilled or qualified to do demonstrates which core value?

A

Responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fulfilling our commitment demonstrates which core value?

A

Responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is accepting accountability for our mistakes and the resulting consequences an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?

A

Aspirational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is the protection of confidential information entrusted on us an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?

A

Aspirational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is upholding the policies, rules, regulations and laws that govern our work an aspirational or mandatory standard?

A

Mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is reporting unethical or illegal conduct an aspirational or mandatory standard?

A

Mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What should we ensure before filing an ethics complaint?

A

Ensure that the ethics complaint is substantiated by facts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should we do when we come across individuals who knowingly make false allegations against others?

A

We should pursue disciplinary action against them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When we inform ourselves of norms and customs of others, which core value do we exhibit?

A

Respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When we listen to others’ viewpoint and try to understand them, which core value do we exhibit?

A

Respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should we do with people with whom we have a conflict or disagreement?

A

We should approach them directly and try to resolve the conflict or disagreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

By conducting ourselves in a professional manner, which core value do we exhibit?

A

Respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is negotiating in good faith an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?

A

Mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acting in an abusive manner violates which core value?

A

Respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Infringing on the property rights of others is a violation of which core value?

A

Respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

By exercising our power of expertise or position to manipulate others, which standard do we violate?

A

Mandatory Standard for Respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

By demonstrating transparency in our decision-making, which core value do we exhibit?

A

Fairness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

By demonstrating impartiality and objectivity, which core value do we exhibit?

A

Fairness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

By not providing equal access to information to those who are authorized to access it, which standard do we violate?

A

Aspirational Standard for Fairness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If we do not provide equal information to all the qualified bidders in a bidding process, which standard are we violating?

A

Aspirational Standard for Fairness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is proactively disclosing all real and potential conflicts of interest to the stakeholders an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?

A

Mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What should we do if we determine that we have a potential conflict of interest?

A

Refrain from decision-making until we have made a full disclosure to the stakeholders and received their consensus to proceed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

By discriminating with others based on their religion, gender, caste, creed, race, nationality, age, etc., which standard do we violate?

A

Mandatory Standard for Fairness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Exhibiting nepotism in professional matters is a violation of which standard?

A

Mandatory Standard for Fairness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Being truthful in our communication and conduct is a demonstration of which core value?

A

Honesty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Having the courage to share bad news even if it is received poorly is a demonstration of which core value?

A

Honesty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Is creating an environment in which others feel safe to tell the truth an aspirational or a mandatory standard?

A

Aspirational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Stating misleading or false information is a violation of which standard?

A

Mandatory Standard for Honesty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is providing accurate information in a timely manner something that is mandatory or something that we should aspire to do?

A

We should aspire to provide accurate information in a timely manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Whom does the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct apply to?

A

PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct applies to: - All PMI members - PMI credential holders - PMI credential applicants - PMI volunteers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Paying fee to government officials in a foreign country is a common practice to get permits to do business in that country. Should you pay such fees?

A

No. Usually such fees to government officials are considered bribe and are against the law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The belief in inherent superiority of one’s own culture or group reflects?

A

Ethnocentrism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the best time to assign a Project Manager to a Project?

A

As early in the project as possible, preferably while the project charter is being developed and always prior to the start of planning. In other words, during project initiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If the product scope is achieved, is the project complete?

A

No. The project is only complete after formal closure activities are complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why is it important to involve team members in defining activity lists?

A

It can lead to better and more accurate decomposition of work packages into activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the benefits of continuous improvement?

A

Continuous improvement reduces waste, eliminates non value-adding activities and hence increases profitability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why is it important to involve team members early in the project?

A

It adds their expertise during the planning process and strengthens their commitment to the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is important in order to make rewards effective?

A

Rewards will be effective only if they satisfy a need that is valued by that individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the best time for project managers to do team recognition?

A

Team recognition should be done throughout the life cycle of the project rather than waiting until the project is completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When should stakeholders be identified in the project?

A

Stakeholder identification and engagement should commence as soon as possible after the project charter has been approved, the project manager has been assigned, and the team begins to form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the benefits of maintaining an Issue Log on a project?

A

It helps in timely resolution of issues, and avoiding conflicts and project delays that can result from unresolved issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should Plan Risk Management process begin on a project?

A

As soon as the project is conceived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which item should always be on the agenda at project status meetings?

A

Risk management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When is stakeholder identification performed on the project?

A

Stakeholder identification is a continuous process throughout the entire project life cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the main benefit of actively engaging stakeholders?

A

It reduces the risk of project failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Should each project management process be applied on every project?

A

Not necessarily. The appropriate project management processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases should be selected to manage a project. This selection activity is known as tailoring project management to the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Give 5 examples of Enterprise Environmental Factors.

A
  • Organizational culture - Industry standards - Existing infrastructure - Existing human resources - Marketplace conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Is organizational structure of the performing organization considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Is resource availability considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Are project management plan templates considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?

A

Organizational Process Asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Give three examples of tangible elements of business value for business driven organizations.

A
  • Monetary assets - Fixtures - Stockholder equity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Give three examples of intangible elements of business value for business driven organizations.

A
  • Goodwill - Brand recognition - Trademarks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the various types of PMO structures within organizations?

A
  • Supportive - Controlling - Directive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

_________________ aligns projects, programs, or operations to the organizational strategy.

A

<u>Portfolio Management</u> aligns projects, programs, or operations to the organizational strategy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Are project closure requirements considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?

A

Organizational Process Asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the two types of Enterprise Environmental Factors?

A

External and Internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the two categories of Organizational Process Assets?

A
  • Processes, Policies, and Procedures - Corporate Knowledge Base
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the three organizational system factors that can influence projects?

A
  • Management elements - Governance frameworks - Organizational structure types
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the primary function of a PMO?

A

To support project managers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Give some examples of project stakeholders.

A
  • Customers - End users - Sponsor - Project Management Office (PMO) - Project Managers - Project team - Functional managers - Vendors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Whom does the project manager usually report to in a Balanced Matrix organization?

A

Functional Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the two categories of Organizational Process Assets?

A
  1. Processes, policies, and procedures 2. Organizational knowledge bases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the 3 primary forms of organizational structures?

A
  • Functional - Matrix - Projectized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the 3 types of Matrix organizations?

A
  • Weak Matrix - Balanced Matrix - Strong Matrix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How much authority do project managers have in a Balanced Matrix organization?

A

Low to moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Who controls the project budget in a Balanced Matrix organization?

A

It’s a mixed responsibility between the Functional Manager and the Project Manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Whom does the project staff report to in a Strong Matrix organization?

A

Both - the Functional Manager and the Project Manager - but the Project Manager has more authority on the resources than the Functional Manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In which organizational structure(s), the project has full-time administrative staff?

A
  • Project-oriented - Strong Matrix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When can Organizational Process Assets be added or updated?

A

Organizational Process Assets can be added or updated throughout the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Are Project Management Information Systems (PMIS) classified as Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Is organizational infrastructure considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Are employee performance reviews and training records part of Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Are change control procedures part of Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?

A

Organizational Process Assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Is Project Plan template an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?

A

Organizational Process Asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Is organizational culture an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Is lessons learned knowledge base an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?

A

Organizational Process Asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are Predictive life cycles also known as?

A

Waterfall life cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

A project scheduling software, such as MS Project, is an Organizational Process Asset for the project. True or False?

A

False. Company systems and software applications are considered part of the Project Management Information System (PMIS), which is an Enterprise Environmental Factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Controlling PMOs maintain the highest degree of control on projects. True or False?

A

False. Directive PMOs exert the highest degree of control by directly maintaining the projects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Name the two Initiating processes.

A
  • Develop Project Charter - Identify Stakeholders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Name the only Closing group processes.

A

Close Project or Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the total number of project management processes defined in the PMBOK® Guide, 6th Edition?

A

49 processes, across 5 Process Groups and 10 Knowledge Areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Initiating Process Group.

A

Develop Project Charter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.

A

Develop Project Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.

A
  • Direct and Manage Project Work - Manage Project Knowledge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A
  • Monitor and Control Project Work - Perform Integrated Change Control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Closing Process Group.

A

Close Project or Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Name the Project Scope Management processes under the Planning Process Group.

A
  • Plan Scope Management - Collect Requirements - Define Scope - Create WBS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Name the Project Scope Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A
  • Validate Scope - Control Scope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Name the Project Schedule Management processes under the Planning Process Group.

A
  • Plan Schedule Management - Define Activities - Sequence Activities - Estimate Activity Durations - Develop Schedule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Name the Project Schedule Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A

Control Schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Name the Project Cost Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.

A
  • Plan Cost Management - Estimate Costs - Determine Budget
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Name the Project Cost Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A

Control Costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?

A

Plan Quality Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?

A

Manage Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.

A
  • Plan Resource Management - Estimate Activity Resources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is/are the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?

A
  • Acquire Resources - Develop Team - Manage Team
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Initiating Process Group?

A

Identify Stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is/are the Project Communications Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?

A

Plan Communications Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is/are the Project Communications Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?

A

Manage Communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Name the Project Communications Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A

Monitor Communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.

A
  • Plan Risk Management - Identify Risks - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis - Plan Risk Responses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A

Monitor Risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?

A

Plan Procurement Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?

A

Conduct Procurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control Procurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Closing Process Group?

A

There is no Project Procurement Management process under the Closing Process Group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the primary source of information for how the project will be planned, executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A

The Project Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Which is the process that usually follows the Collect Requirements process?

A

Define Scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Which Project Schedule Management processes usually precede the Develop Schedule process in the Planning Process Group?

A
  • Plan Schedule Management - Define Activities - Sequence Activities - Estimate Activity Durations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Name all the Project Quality Management processes.

A
  • Plan Quality Management - Manage Quality - Control Quality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Identify Stakeholders process belong to?

A

Initiating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Team process belong to?

A

Executing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process belong to?

A

Executing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Communications process belong to?

A

Executing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Which risk management process usually follows the Identify Risks process?

A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Which risk management process usually follows the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A

Plan Risk Responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Which process formalizes the acceptance of completed project deliverables?

A

Validate Scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Acquire Resources process belong to?

A

Executing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Validate Scope process belong to?

A

Monitoring and Controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?

A

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?

A

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the key benefit of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A

It allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders, and significantly increase the chances of project success.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Name all the Project Scope Management processes.

A
  • Plan Scope Management - Collect Requirements - Define Scope - Create WBS - Validate Scope - Control Scope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Name all the Project Schedule Management processes.

A
  • Plan Schedule Management - Define Activities - Sequence Activities - Estimate Activity Durations - Develop Schedule - Control Schedule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Name all the Project Cost Management processes.

A
  • Plan Cost Management - Estimate Costs - Determine Budget - Control Costs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Name all the Project Resource Management processes.

A
  • Plan Resource Management - Estimate Activity Resources - Acquire Resources - Develop Team - Manage Team - Control Resources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Name all the Project Communications Management processes.

A
  • Plan Communications Management - Manage Communications - Monitor Communications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Name all the Project Risk Management processes.

A
  • Plan Risk Management - Identify Risks - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis - Plan Risk Responses - Implement Risk Responses - Monitor Risks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Name all the Project Procurement Management processes.

A
  • Plan Procurement Management - Conduct Procurements - Control Procurements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Name all the Project Stakeholder Management processes.

A
  • Identify Stakeholders - Plan Stakeholder Engagement - Manage Stakeholder Engagement - Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.

A

Implement Risk Responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Which planning process precedes the Estimate Activity Resources process?

A

Plan Resource Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.

A
  • Acquire Resources - Develop Team - Manage Team
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Which project management process develops ad hoc reports, project presentations, blogs, and other types of communication about the project?

A

Manage Communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

In which process is a risk owner assigned to each risk?

A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Name all the Project Integration Management processes.

A
  • Develop Project Charter - Develop Project Management Plan - Direct and Manage Project Work - Manage Project Knowledge - Monitor and Control Project Work - Perform Integrated Change Control - Close Project or Phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Which Project Management Knowledge Area spans across all Project Management Process Groups (Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing)?

A

Project Integration Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

In which process are approved change requests implemented?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

If you are checking whether quality standards are being followed, which process are you in?

A

Manage Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

If you are checking whether quality standards are being met, which process are you in?

A

Control Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

If the project team is performing peer reviews of project deliverables, which process are they in?

A

Control Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Which process is used to ensure a timely implementation of approved change requests?

A

Control Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

In which process are inspections performed on items changed or repaired as a result of approved change requests?

A

Control Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

In which process is the effectiveness of a project team assessed?

A

Develop Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

In which process are the Performance appraisals of project team members conducted?

A

Manage Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A

Control Resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Which Process Group does the Identify Stakeholders process belong to?

A

Initiating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.

A

Implement Risk Responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Which process is a rapid and cost-effective way of prioritizing project risks?

A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

In which process would you create a risk Probability and Impact Matrix?

A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is the key benefit of the Identify Stakeholders process?

A

It allows the project team to identify the appropriate focus for each stakeholder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Which process(es) provide(s) the necessary inputs for the Create WBS process?

A
  • Plan Scope Management - Collect Requirements - Define Scope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Which process(es) provide(s) the necessary inputs for the Sequence Activities process?

A
  • Develop Project Charter - Create WBS - Plan Schedule Management - Define Activities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are the benefits of involving the customers and other stakeholders during project initiation?

A

It increases: - Shared understanding of success criteria - Probability of deliverable acceptance - Customer satisfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

A project phase is also known as a Project Management Process Group. True or False?

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What should be done to a project if its NPV is less than zero?

A

Reject the project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What should be done to a project if its NPV is equal to or more than zero?

A

Accept the project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Among three projects with low, medium and high opportunity costs, which project is most attractive?

A

Project with the lowest opportunity cost is the most attractive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What are the various Benefit Measurement methods of project selection?

A
  • Murder Board - Peer Review - Scoring Models - Economic Models
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What are the various Constrained Optimization methods of project selection?

A
  • Linear programming - Nonlinear programming - Dynamic programming - Integer programming - Multi-objective programming
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Which type of project selection method is Murder Board?

A

Benefit Measurement method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Which type of project selection method is Dynamic Programming?

A

Constrained Optimization method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Which type of project selection method uses ROI?

A

Benefit Measurement method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What are the various economic models of project selection?

A
  • Present Value (PV) - Net Present Value (NPV) - Internal Rate of Return (IRR) - Return on Investment (ROI) - Payback Period - Benefit-cost Ratio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which is better - a project with higher NPV or a project with lower NPV?

A

The higher the NPV, the better.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What is the term for the planned work contained at the lowest level of the WBS?

A

Work Package

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Which requirement gathering technique enhances Brainstorming with a voting process to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming?

A

Nominal Group Technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is the project planning term for grouping of subtasks or activities across multiple interdependent work packages, between milestones or a given time period?

A

Summary Activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is a schedule network diagram without a time-scale, commonly referred to as?

A

Pure Logic Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is the term to describe the tendency where people start to apply themselves only at the last possible moment before the deadline?

A

Student Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is the project management term for the supporting documentation that provides a clear and complete understanding of how the cost estimate was derived?

A

Basis of Estimates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Which graphical analysis technique examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A

Trend Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is Pareto’s Law popularly known as?

A

80/20 principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What is the name of the technique used during the Plan Quality Management process to statistically determine the variables which will improve quality?

A

Design of Experiments (DOE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Which tool is used to determine correlation between two variables?

A

Scatter Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What is the term to describe documented results of quality control activities in the format specified during quality planning?

A

Quality Control Measurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is the term for the sum total of money spent during the project to avoid failures, and during and after the project because of failures?

A

Cost of Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Which tool illustrates the number of hours a person, a department, or an entire project team is needed each week (or month) over the course of the project?

A

Resource Histogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Which model classifies project stakeholders by their power, urgency and legitimacy?

A

Salience Model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is a common way of representing the gap between the current and desired engagement levels of stakeholders?

A

Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Which technique helps to determine the risks which have the most potential impact on the project?

A

Sensitivity Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Which tool would you use to graphically represent the results of Sensitivity Analysis?

A

Tornado Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Which process verifies the acceptance of all the work and deliverables of the contract?

A

Control Procurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What is the term to describe an ordered list of all the work, presented in story form?

A

Backlog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What is a commonly used measure for estimating user stories?

A

Story points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What is the term to describe a graphical representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox?

A

Burndown Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is the term to describe a graphical representation of the work completed toward the release of a product?

A

Burnup Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What are schedule activities on the critical path called?

A

Critical Path Activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What is the term to describe a network path with low amount of float?

A

Near-Critical Path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is total Planned Value (PV) of a project also known as?

A

Budget At Completion (BAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is the ratio of Work Remaining to Funds Remaining known as?

A

To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities is termed as?

A

Business Case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

In this leadership style, the project manager tells the team members what, when, where, and how to do things. Which leadership style is this?

A

Directing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

In this leadership style, the project manager encourages the team members to actively participate in the decision-making process. A lot of authority is delegated to the team members and they play an active role in managing the project. Which leadership style is this?

A

Democratic or Participative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

A person’s legal or moral responsibility to promote the best interest of an organization or party he/she is affiliated with, is known as?

A

Duty of Loyalty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Judging others’ cultures or norms from the perspective of one’s own culture or norms is called?

A

Ethnocentrism

202
Q

What are Functional Managers also referred to as?

A

Line Managers

203
Q

The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan, and communicating the decisions, is known as?

A

Perform Integrated Change Control

204
Q

Name the process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project’s objectives and contribute to organizational learning.

A

Manage Project Knowledge

205
Q

What is the term for the period of time required to recover the investment made in a project?

A

Payback Period

206
Q

The sum that has already been spent on a project and cannot be recovered is known as?

A

Sunk Cost

207
Q

Legitimate Power of a Project Manager is also known as?

A

Formal Power

208
Q

Penalty Power of a Project Manager is also known as?

A

Punitive or Coercive Power

209
Q

Referent Power of a Project Manager is also known as?

A

Charisma Power

210
Q

This technique, also known as “job shadowing”, provides a direct way of viewing individuals in their environment and how they perform their jobs and carry out processes. It is particularly helpful for detailed processes when users or customers have difficulty or are reluctant to articulate their requirements. What is this technique called?

A

Observation/Conversation

211
Q

What is a time-scaled schedule network diagram format also referred to as?

A

Logic Bar Chart

212
Q

What are prevention and appraisal costs collectively known as?

A

Cost of Conformance

213
Q

What are failure costs also known as?

A

Cost of Non-Conformance

214
Q

What is the term to describe a risk symptom or warning sign?

A

Risk Trigger or Trigger Condition

215
Q

What are the various positional powers of a Project Manager?

A
  • Legitimate (or Formal) - Reward - Punitive (or Coercive)
216
Q

What are the various personal powers of a Project Manager?

A
  • Expert - Referent
217
Q

Reputation of a project manager is an example of which form of power?

A

Expert Power

218
Q

Which form of power of a Project Manager is unlikely to buy commitment from team members?

A

Punitive (or Coercive) Power

219
Q

Which forms of power of a Project Manager are most effective in getting commitment from team members?

A

Expert Power and Referent Power

220
Q

Which forms of power of a Project Manager are most effective in getting compliance from team members?

A

Legitimate Power and Reward Power

221
Q

Who holds more power in a matrix organization - Functional Managers or Project Managers?

A

Functional managers, because they control human resources directly and provide a permanent “home base” for project personnel to return to, after completion of the project.

222
Q

Which form of power of a Project Manager is the worst choice in most situations?

A

Punitive (or Coercive) Power

223
Q

Which form of power is derived from the experience of a Project Manager?

A

Expert Power

224
Q

A Project Manager is able to get work done from a team member ahead of schedule because they are Tennis buddies. This is an example of which form of power of the project manager?

A

Referent Power

225
Q

Which project document grants formal powers to a Project Manager?

A

The Project Charter

226
Q

What form of power is gained through flattery or other common ground?

A

Ingratiating

227
Q

What is the commonality between leadership and management?

A

Both are about being able to get things done.

228
Q

Which power is associated with Management?

A

Positional Power

229
Q

Which power is associated with Leadership?

A

Relational Power

230
Q

Managers ____________ status quo, whereas leaders ____________ status quo.

A

Managers <u>accept</u> status quo, whereas leaders <u>challenge</u> status quo.

231
Q

Who are the change agents in an organization?

A

The Project Managers are the change agents in an organization.

232
Q

What are the three legs of the PMI Talent Triangle?

A
  • Technical project management - Leadership - Strategic and business management
233
Q

Name any three leadership skills that a project manager should possess?

A
  • Negotiation - Resilience - Communication - Problem solving - Critical thinking - Interpersonal skills
234
Q

Who provides direction and vision of success for the project?

A

The Project Manager

235
Q

Top project managers spend about 90% of their time on a project in _____________.

A

Top project managers spend about 90% of their time on a project in <u>communicating</u>.

236
Q

A project manager may be involved in benefits realization activities even after the project is complete. True or False?

A

True. A project manager may be involved in follow-on activities related to realizing business benefits from the project.

237
Q

What are the traits of top 2% project managers?

A

Superior relationship and communication skills while displaying a positive attitude.

238
Q

In order to be the most effective, project managers need to have a balance of which three skill sets?

A
  • Technical project management - Leadership - Business Intelligence (strategic and business management)
239
Q

What is Situational power?

A

The power gained due to unique situation such as a specific crisis.

240
Q

What is Relational power?

A

The power gained through networking, connections, and alliances.

241
Q

Project managers need to employ both __________ and management in order to be successful.

A

Project managers need to employ both <u>leadership</u> and management in order to be successful.

242
Q

What style of leadership is associated with Agile projects?

A

Servant leader

243
Q

What are the traits of a transactional leader?

A

A transactional leader focuses on goals, feedback, and accomplishment to determine rewards.

244
Q

What are the traits of a servant leader?

A

A servant leader demonstrates commitment to serve and put other people first.

245
Q

What is the term to describe leaders who empower followers through idealized attributes and behaviors?

A

Transformational

246
Q

What is Interactional leadership?

A

It is a combination of transactional, transformational, and charismatic leadership styles.

247
Q

What are the three dimensions of complexity in projects?

A
  • System behavior - Human behavior - Ambiguity
248
Q

What are Kill Points also referred to as?

A
  • Stage Gates - Phase Gates - Phase Exits - Decision Gates
249
Q

What are other common names for Value Analysis?

A

Value Engineering or Value Management

250
Q

What are Inspections also known as?

A
  • Reviews - Product reviews - Walkthroughs
251
Q

What is another name for Summary Activity?

A

Hammock Activity

252
Q

What is a common name for Contingency Reserve?

A

Schedule Reserve

253
Q

What is another name for float?

A

Slack

254
Q

What is Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) also known as?

A

Activity-On-Node (AON) method

255
Q

What are Mandatory Dependencies also known as?

A

Hard Logic or Hard Dependencies

256
Q

What are Discretionary dependencies also referred to as?

A

Preferred Logic, Preferential Logic, or Soft Logic

257
Q

What are Cause and Effect Diagrams commonly known as?

A

Fishbone Diagrams, Why-Why Diagrams or Ishikawa Diagrams

258
Q

What are the common names used for Inspection activities?

A
  • Reviews - Peer Reviews - Audits - Walkthroughs
259
Q

What is another name for Negative Risk?

A

Threat

260
Q

What is another name for Positive Risk?

A

Opportunity

261
Q

What are Agreements also referred to as?

A
  • Contracts - Purchase orders - Memoranda of Agreements (MOAs) - Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
262
Q

What is another name for a Fixed Price contract?

A

Lump Sum

263
Q

______________ is a statistical method that determines the extent to which a relationship exists between two variables.

A

<u>Regression Analysis</u> is a statistical method that determines the extent to which a relationship exists between two variables.

264
Q

Name any 3 interpersonal and team skills used for helping teams and individuals accomplish project activities?

A
  • Active Listening - Conflict management - Emotional Intelligence - Facilitation - Leadership - Meeting management
265
Q

What tool can be used to develop a scope model?

A

Context Diagrams

266
Q

Which technique generates the project schedule model?

A

Schedule Network Analysis

267
Q

What are the two commonly used modeling techniques in schedule management?

A
  • What-If Scenario Analysis - Simulation (using Monte Carlo analysis)
268
Q

What is the 80/20 principle?

A

80% of the problems are due to 20% of the causes.

269
Q

Which technique is used to confirm the implementation of Approved Change Requests?

A

Quality Audits

270
Q

What is the X in DfX?

A

The X in DfX can be different aspects of product development, such as reliability, deployment, assembly, manufacturing, cost, service, usability, safety, and quality.

271
Q

What are the various criteria used for team member selection?

A
  • Availability - Cost - Experience - Ability - Knowledge - Skills - Attitude - International Factors
272
Q

If you are using selection criteria to rate or score potential team members, which technique are you using?

A

Multicriteria Decision Analysis

273
Q

Give some examples of Personnel Assessment Tools that a project manager or project team can use.

A
  • Attitudinal surveys - Specific assessments - Structured interviews - Ability tests - Focus groups
274
Q

Where might you use Bubble Charts on a project?

A

Bubble charts may be used for plotting three-dimensional data such as plotting risk categorization data on a chart.

275
Q

When using bubble charts for representing risk categorization data, what does the size of the bubble represent?

A

Bubble size is the Impact Value of the risk.

276
Q

What are usually the three dimensions of risk represented on a bubble chart?

A
  • Detectability - Proximity - Impact Value
277
Q

What is a Prompt List?

A

A predetermined list of risk categories that might give rise to individual project risks and that could also act as sources of overall project risk.

278
Q

What are Prompt Lists used for?

A

Risk identification

279
Q

Name three common strategic frameworks suitable for identifying sources of overall project risk.

A
  • PESTLE (political, economic, social, technological, legal, environmental) - TECOP (technical, environmental, commercial, operational, political) - VUCA (volatility, uncertainty, complexity, ambiguity)
280
Q

What is the main purpose of conducting Procurement Audits?

A

Procurement Audits are conducted to capture “lessons learned” for the entire procurement.

281
Q

What is the purpose of procurement negotiations at the time of conducting procurements?

A

To clarify the structure, requirements, and other terms of the purchases so that mutual agreement can be reached prior to signing the contract.

282
Q

What is the purpose of Bidder Conferences?

A

They are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement (both technical and contractual requirements), and that no bidders receive preferential treatment.

283
Q

Which technique identifies the interests, expectations, and influence of the stakeholders and relates them to the purpose of the project?

A

Stakeholder Analysis

284
Q

What are the three key elements of a user story?

A
  • The stakeholder who benefits from the feature (role) - What the stakeholder needs to accomplish (goal) - The benefit to the stakeholder (motivation)
285
Q

What tool is widely used with agile methods to collect user requirements?

A

User stories

286
Q

In Fist to Five method, what does a closed fist indicate?

A

Closed fist indicates no support for the proposed decision.

287
Q

An agile release consists of multiple __________________.

A

An agile release consists of multiple <u>iterations or Sprints</u>.

288
Q

What is a common voting method used on agile-based projects?

A

Fist of Five

289
Q

What are Bidder conferences also known as?

A
  • Contractor conferences - Vendor conferences - Pre-bid conferences
290
Q

All the stakeholders are identified during project initiation. True or False?

A

False. While it’s important to identify the stakeholders at the beginning of the project, stakeholder identification is a continuous process and new stakeholders may be identified anytime during the life of the project.

291
Q

Configuration Management System is a subset of Change Management System. True or False?

A

False. Change Management System is a subset of Configuration Management System.

292
Q

Configuration Management System is a part of the Project Management System. True or False?

A

True.

293
Q

Configuration Management Plan is a subsidiary of the Project Management Plan. True or False?

A

True.

294
Q

A project charter is considered to be a contract. True or False.

A

False, because there is no consideration or money promised or exchanged in its creation.

295
Q

Change control process is mandatory for every project. True or False.

A

True. Change is inevitable; therefore, some type of change control process is mandatory for every project.

296
Q

The Critical Path can have a negative float. True or False?

A

True. The Critical Path can have a positive, zero or negative float.

297
Q

Activity duration estimates include the activity lag as well. True or False?

A

False. Lags are not included in duration estimates.

298
Q

A project schedule network diagram is always drawn from left to right. True or False?

A

True.

299
Q

Float can be used for resource smoothing. True or False?

A

False. Float is used for leveling resources.

300
Q

Management Reserves are NOT part of the Project Cost Baseline. True or False?

A

True. Project Cost Baseline includes Project Cost Estimates and Contingency Reserves. Project Cost Budget is determined by adding Management Reserves to Project Cost Baseline.

301
Q

Management Reserves are included as a part of the earned value measurement calculations. True or False?

A

False.

302
Q

Management Reserves are not included in the Cost Baseline. True or False?

A

True. Cost Baseline includes Contingency Reserves, but excludes Management Reserves.

303
Q

Contingency Reserves are not included in the Cost Baseline. True or False?

A

False. Cost Baseline includes Contingency Reserves, but excludes Management Reserves.

304
Q

Net Present Value calculations may be included in the Benefits Management Plan. True or False?

A

True.

305
Q

Project Quality Management is concerned with project quality and not product quality. True or False?

A

False. Project Quality Management is concerned with both project quality and product quality.

306
Q

Control Charts are used to track repetitive activities like manufacturing lots. They can also be used to track the project management processes. True or False?

A

True. Control Charts can be used to determine whether project management processes, such as cost and schedule variances, volume, and frequency of scope changes, are in control.

307
Q

Low quality usually means low grade. True or False?

A

False.

308
Q

Low grade usually means low quality. True or False?

A

False.

309
Q

Trade-off between Grade and Quality is usually made in favor of Quality. True or False?

A

False. The project management team manages the trade-off between Grade and Quality based on project requirements.

310
Q

Quality Metrics are included in the Quality Management Plan. True or False?

A

False. Quality Metrics are categorized as Project Documents.

311
Q

Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is used for categorizing human resources only. True or False?

A

False. RBS can contain resource categories other than human resources.

312
Q

Diversity is an asset for organizations. True or False?

A

True.

313
Q

Older workers usually are resistant to change. True or False?

A

False. This is a common myth about older workers.

314
Q

Diversity in a project environment should be avoided. True or False?

A

False. Diversity is an asset and should be embraced.

315
Q

Communication preferences may vary with age of the person. True or False?

A

True.

316
Q

As part of the communications process, the receiver is responsible for confirming that the information is properly understood. True or False?

A

False. It is sender’s responsibility to confirm that the information is properly understood.

317
Q

Risks always have a negative impact on the project. True or False?

A

False. Risks may positively or negatively impact projects.

318
Q

Contracts are risk mitigation tools. True or False?

A

True. Contracts or agreements may be used to transfer liability for specified risks to another party.

319
Q

Project teams should identify and manage both event-based risks and non-event risks. True or False.

A

True.

320
Q

The project manager should maintain high level of engagement with key stakeholders throughout the project. True or False?

A

False. The level of engagement varies depending upon the stage that the project is in. For example, senior stakeholders may be highly engaged at the beginning of the project, to remove obstacles.

321
Q

Agreements are an output of the Develop Project Charter process. True or False?

A

False. They are an input.

322
Q

Project Charter is an input to Develop Project Management Plan. True or False?

A

True.

323
Q

Work Performance Data is an input to Direct and Manage Project Work. True or False?

A

False. It’s an output.

324
Q

Work Performance Reports are an input to Monitor and Control Project Work. True or False?

A

False. They are an output.

325
Q

Change Requests are an output of Perform Integrated Change Control. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

326
Q

Accepted Deliverables are an output of Close Project or Phase. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

327
Q

Requirements Management Plan is an input to Collect Requirements. True or False?

A

True.

328
Q

Project Charter is an input to Define Scope. True or False?

A

True.

329
Q

Scope Baseline is an input to Create WBS. True or False?

A

False. It’s an output.

330
Q

Verified Deliverables are an input to Validate Scope. True or False?

A

True.

331
Q

Work Performance Information is an output of Control Scope. True or False?

A

True.

332
Q

Scope Baseline is an input to Define Activities. True or False?

A

True.

333
Q

Project Schedule Network Diagrams are an input to Sequence Activities. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

334
Q

Resource Breakdown Structure is an output of Estimate Activity Resources. True or False?

A

True.

335
Q

Resource Calendars are an output of Estimate Activity Durations. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

336
Q

Schedule Baseline is an output of Develop Schedule. True or False?

A

True.

337
Q

Change requests are an input to Control Schedule. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

338
Q

Resource Requirements are an input to Estimate Costs. True or False?

A

True.

339
Q

Activity Cost Estimates are an output of Determine Budget. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

340
Q

Cost Forecasts are an output of Control Costs. True or False?

A

True.

341
Q

Risk Register is an input to Plan Quality Management. True or False?

A

True.

342
Q

Quality Metrics are an output of Manage Quality. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

343
Q

Work Performance Data are an input to Control Quality. True or False?

A

True.

344
Q

Resource Requirements are an output of Estimate Activity Durations. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output of Estimate Activity Resources.

345
Q

Project Team Assignments are an output of Acquire Resources. True or False?

A

True.

346
Q

Team Performance Assessments are an input to Develop Team. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

347
Q

Work Performance Reports are an input to Manage Team. True or False?

A

True.

348
Q

Agreements are an input to Identify Stakeholders. True or False?

A

True.

349
Q

Stakeholder Register is an output of Plan Stakeholder Engagement. True or False?

A

False. It’s an input.

350
Q

Work Performance Reports are an output of Manage Communications. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

351
Q

Change Log is an input to Manage Stakeholder Engagement. True or False?

A

True.

352
Q

Schedule Forecasts and Cost Forecasts are an output of Monitor and Control Project Work. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

353
Q

Project Charter is an input to Plan Risk Management. True or False?

A

True.

354
Q

Risk Management Plan is an output of Identify Risks. True or False?

A

False. It’s an input.

355
Q

Stakeholder Register is an input to Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. True or False?

A

True.

356
Q

Cost Baseline is an input to Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. True or False?

A

True.

357
Q

Risk Register is an output of Plan Risk Responses. True or False?

A

False. It’s an input. Risk Register updates (as part of Project Document updates) are an output of Plan Risk Responses.

358
Q

Work Performance Reports are an input to Monitor Risks. True or False?

A

True.

359
Q

Make-or-Buy Decisions are an input to Plan Procurement Management. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

360
Q

Selected Sellers are an input to Conduct Procurements. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

361
Q

Procurement Documentation are an input to Control Procurements. True or False?

A

True.

362
Q

Procurement Documentation is an input to Conduct Procurements. True or False?

A

True.

363
Q

Project Scope Statement is the main input to Define Scope. True or False?

A

False. It’s the main output of Define Scope.

364
Q

Schedule Forecasts are an input to Control Schedule. True or False?

A

False. They are an output.

365
Q

Project Communications are an input to Manage Communications. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

366
Q

Project Communications are an input to Monitor Communications. True or False?

A

True.

367
Q

Issue Log can be updated in the Monitor Communications process. True or False?

A

True.

368
Q

All the lessons learned on the project are documented at the end of the project (or phase), in the Close Project or Phase process. True or False?

A

False. Lessons learned are documented throughout the project. However, the final lessons learned or any other lessons learned, which had not been documented earlier, are documented in the Close Project or Phase process.

369
Q

Stakeholder satisfaction is one of the key project objectives. True or False?

A

True.

370
Q

What is the event that officially authorizes a project?

A

The approval of the Project Charter.

371
Q

Who usually authorizes a project?

A

Someone external to the project such as a sponsor, a PMO representative, or a portfolio governing body representative.

372
Q

Who can approve changes to the Project Charter?

A

The Sponsor

373
Q

Who provides funding to the project?

A

Project Initiator or Sponsor

374
Q

Which Project Management Knowledge Area involves managing the interdependencies among all the Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A

Project Integration Management

375
Q

Who usually authors the Project Charter?

A

The sponsor. The project manager may participate in the development of the project charter.

376
Q

Who can provide expert judgment on projects?

A
  • Consultants - Customers, sponsors and other stakeholders - Professional and technical associations - Industry groups - SMEs - PMO - Other departments in the organization
377
Q

If you want to know the project purpose, which document would you refer to?

A

The Project Charter

378
Q

Which process integrates the baselines and subsidiary management plans from various planning processes?

A

Develop Project Management Plan

379
Q

What information is usually included in the performance reports?

A
  • Current status - Major accomplishments, current engagements and planned work - Forecasts - Quality reports - Issues - Risks - Contract performance information
380
Q

Where is the status of change requests documented?

A

In the Change Log.

381
Q

Is the Close Project or Phase process needed if the project is terminated before completion?

A

Yes, it is used to investigate and document the reason for project termination.

382
Q

Which is usually closed first - project or contract(s)?

A

Contract(s)

383
Q

In which process do you confirm that all the requirements of the project (or phase) have been met?

A

Close Project or Phase

384
Q

What is the purpose of knowledge management?

A

Reusing existing knowledge and creating new knowledge.

385
Q

Knowledge management is primarily concerned with documenting knowledge, so it can be shared. True or False?

A

False, because only explicit knowledge can be documented. Tacit knowledge cannot be documented and is shared through conversations and interactions.

386
Q

What are the challenges in using codified knowledge?

A

It lacks context, and isn’t easy to understand and apply.

387
Q

What is the advantage of Tacit Knowledge over Explicit Knowledge?

A

Tacit Knowledge has context built in, and is easier to understand and apply compared to Explicit Knowledge.

388
Q

What is the most important part of knowledge management?

A

Creating an atmosphere of trust so that people are motivated to share their knowledge.

389
Q

Which type of communication (Formal or Informal) is more effective in creating new knowledge?

A

Informal communication is more effective for creating new knowledge. Formal, rigid communication requirements are good for sharing information.

390
Q

Which component of the project management plan describes how the information about the items of the project (and which items) will be recorded and updated so that the product, service, or result of the project remains consistent and/or operative?

A

Configuration Management Plan

391
Q

What does the project scope baseline consist of?

A

Approved versions of: - Project Scope Statement - WBS - WBS Dictionary

392
Q

The requirement to make an earthquake-proof structure in a construction project is a __________ (Project or Product) requirement.

A

The requirement to make an earthquake-proof structure in a construction project is a <u>Product</u> requirement.

393
Q

The requirement to deliver the project within $500,000 is a __________ (Project or Product) requirement.

A

The requirement to deliver the project within $500,000 is a <u>Project</u> requirement.

394
Q

Which requirement gathering technique is most effective in quickly defining cross-functional requirements and reconciling stakeholder differences?

A

Facilitation

395
Q

List any 3 data gathering techniques that can be used to identify project and product requirements.

A
  • Brainstorming - Interviews - Focus Groups - Questionnaires and Surveys - Benchmarking
396
Q

List the various methods of reaching a group decision.

A
  • Voting - Autocratic Decision Making - Multicriteria Decision Analysis
397
Q

List a few advantages of using Prototypes for requirement gathering.

A
  • Provides a “proof of concept” to attract funding - Gives visibility of the final product to the customers - Encourages active participation from the users - Cost effective (reduces development cost) - Reduces risk associated with the project
398
Q

What are the characteristics of good requirements?

A
  • Unambiguous (measurable and testable) - Traceable - Complete - Consistent - Acceptable to key stakeholders
399
Q

What are the typical attributes in the requirements traceability matrix?

A

A unique identifier, a textual description of the requirement, the rationale for inclusion, owner, source, priority, version, current status (such as active, cancelled, deferred, added, approved) and date completed.

400
Q

Name the 2 data representation techniques that can be used to collect requirements.

A
  • Affinity Diagrams - Mind Mapping
401
Q

What does a Requirements Management Plan describe?

A
  • How requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported - Configuration management activities - Requirements prioritization process - Product metrics - Requirements traceability structure
402
Q

List at least 4 Product Analysis techniques.

A
  • Product breakdown - Systems analysis - Requirements analysis - Systems engineering - Value engineering - Value analysis
403
Q

In the context of a WBS, what is the relationship between a control account and a work package?

A

Each control account may include two or more work packages, but each of the work packages must be associated with only one control account.

404
Q

Which subsidiaries of the Project Management Plan are created in the Plan Scope Management process?

A
  • Scope Management Plan - Requirements Management Plan
405
Q

WBS is a _____________-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the statement of work of the project.

A

WBS is a <u>deliverable</u>-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the statement of work of the project.

406
Q

What are the 2 categories of product requirements?

A
  • Functional requirements (features and functions) - Non-functional requirements (performance, security, reliability, etc.)
407
Q

Give at least 3 categories of requirements.

A
  • Business requirements - Stakeholder requirements - Solution (or product) requirements - Transition requirements - Project requirements - Quality requirements
408
Q

Who defines the product scope?

A

The customer

409
Q

Is Scope Baseline considered a component of the Project Management Plan, or a project document?

A

Scope Baseline is a component of the Project Management Plan.

410
Q

If you want to know a project’s acceptance criteria, which document would you refer to?

A

Project Scope Statement

411
Q

If you want to get a list of project’s deliverables, which document would you refer to?

A

Project Scope Statement

412
Q

If you want to get a list of items explicitly excluded from the project, which document would you refer to?

A

Project Scope Statement

413
Q

Completion of the project scope is measured against the ______________________.

A

Completion of the project scope is measured against the <u>Project Management Plan</u>.

414
Q

Completion of the product scope is measured against the ______________________.

A

Completion of the product scope is measured against the <u>product requirements</u>.

415
Q

Resource leveling is performed ___________ (before or after) analyzing the schedule with CPM.

A

Resource leveling is performed <u>after</u> analyzing the schedule with CPM.

416
Q

What are the various reasons for performing Resource Leveling?

A

Resources are limited, over-allocated, or only available during certain times.

417
Q

What is Schedule Data comprised of?

A
  • Schedule milestones - Schedule activities - Activity attributes - Assumptions and constraints
418
Q

What are the various graphical formats that can be used to present project schedule?

A
  • Bar Charts - Milestone Charts - Project Schedule Network Diagrams
419
Q

Which format is usually used to communicate project schedule progress to management?

A

Bar Chart

420
Q

What are the drawbacks of Fast Tracking a project schedule?

A
  • Increased Risks - Rework
421
Q

What are the drawbacks of Crashing a project schedule?

A
  • Increased Risks - Increased Costs - May not always result in schedule compression
422
Q

What are the two common schedule compression techniques?

A
  • Crashing - Fast Tracking
423
Q

Which technique can be used to simulate various outcomes of What-If Scenario Analysis?

A

Monte Carlo technique

424
Q

Free Float of an activity is determined _______ (before or after) determining the total float of the activity in CPM?

A

Free Float of an activity is determined <u>after</u> determining the total float of the activity in CPM?

425
Q

What are the supporting details that can be included with the schedule data?

A
  • Resource histograms
  • Alternative schedules
  • Scheduling of contingency reserves
  • Cash-flow projections
  • Order and delivery schedules
426
Q

What are the various activity attributes which can be used to describe an activity?

A

Activity ID, WBS ID, activity name, codes, description, predecessor and successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, assumptions and constraints, person assigned, place where the work has to be performed, level of effort (LOE), discrete effort, and apportioned effort (AE).

427
Q

What are the two common types of milestones?

A
  • Mandatory, such as those required by contract - Optional, such as those based on experience or historical information
428
Q

In Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) method, what do boxes and arrows represent?

A

Boxes (also known as nodes) represent Activities, and Arrows represent the Logical Relationships between activities.

429
Q

What are the four types of logical relationships in a schedule network?

A
  • Finish-to-start (FS) - Finish-to-finish (FF) - Start-to-start (SS) - Start-to-finish (SF)
430
Q

Give an example of Finish-to-start (FS) dependency.

A

Oven must be heated (predecessor) before cake can be baked in it (successor).

431
Q

Give an example of Finish-to-finish (FF) dependency.

A

Electrical (predecessor) and painting (successor) work of a building can proceed in parallel, but electrical work must finish before the final coat of paint can be applied.

432
Q

Give an example of Start-to-start (SS) dependency.

A

The vote counting (successor) in the polls can begin as soon as the polling begins (predecessor).

433
Q

What are the four types of dependencies that are used to define the sequence among activities in a schedule network?

A
  • Mandatory dependencies - Discretionary dependencies - External dependencies - Internal dependencies
434
Q

What are the benefits of using a Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)?

A

The RBS is used for planning, managing and controlling project work.

435
Q

Give an example of Analogous estimating.

A

A similar, but less complex application took 8 man months for development. The new application development should take about 10 man months.

436
Q

Give an example of Parametric estimating.

A

It takes 8 hours to carpet a 1,000 sq. ft. apartment. Therefore it should take about 80 hours to carpet a 10,000 sq. ft. office space.

437
Q

When is Analogous estimating used?

A

When there is limited amount of detailed information on the project.

438
Q

Which estimation technique is relatively fast and less costly, though less accurate?

A

Analogous Estimating

439
Q

What does schedule related Work Performance Data include?

A

Actual start and finish dates of schedule activities, actual duration, list of activities that have started, their progress, and list of the activities that have finished.

440
Q

What is the schedule related Work Performance Information?

A

Earned value measurements such as SV, SPI, EAC, ETC, etc.

441
Q

What does Schedule Performance Index (SPI) indicate?

A

Schedule efficiency of the project

442
Q

What are the commonly used resource categories?

A

Labor, material, equipment, and supplies.

443
Q

What are the commonly used resource types?

A

Skill Level, Grade Level, and Required Certifications

444
Q

What do zero duration events on the schedule network represent?

A

Milestones

445
Q

What are the units of measure for cost estimates?

A

Cost estimates are usually expressed in currency units, but other units such as staff hours or staff days can also be used.

446
Q

What is the range for Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimates?

A

-25% to +75%

447
Q

What do basis of estimates typically include? (4)

A

1) How the estimate was developed
2) Assumptions and constraints
3) Range of estimates (e.g. $10,000 ± 10%)
4) Confidence level of the estimate

448
Q

What information does a Cost Management Plan include?

A
  • Level of precision and accuracy of cost estimates - Unit of measure for costs - Cost accounting procedures - Control thresholds - Rules of performance measurement - Reporting format
449
Q

Why is Life Cycle Costing important in Project Cost Management?

A

Project Cost Management should look at the cost throughout the entire life of the product, service or result, and not just the project cost. For example, reducing the number of design reviews can reduce the project cost at the expense of increasing the customer’s operating costs.

450
Q

Which project document would tell you whether indirect costs are included or excluded from the project cost estimates?

A

Basis of Estimates

451
Q

Why is the Cost Baseline an S-shaped curve (S-curve)?

A

Project spending is less at the beginning of the project as the work is ramping up, grows steadily in the middle as the work is executed and then slows down again at the end as the work is completed.

452
Q

What is the key to effective cost control?

A

Effective cost control is about managing the Cost Baseline and the changes to that baseline.

453
Q

Summarize Cost Control in one sentence.

A

Cost control involves analyzing the relationship between consumption of project funds and the value of the work accomplished.

454
Q

What is a Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimate used for?

A

It is used for financial planning during project initiation.

455
Q

Give 3 examples of Direct Costs?

A
  • Labor costs - Materials costs - Equipment rental costs
456
Q

Give 4 examples of Indirect Costs?

A
  • Management costs - General administration costs - Building rental - Utility costs
457
Q

Quality Assurance is ______________ (proactive or reactive), whereas Quality Control is ______________ (proactive or reactive).

A

Quality Assurance is <u>proactive</u>, whereas Quality Control is <u>reactive</u>.

458
Q

Which quality expert developed the 14 steps to Total Quality Management?

A

W. Edwards Deming

459
Q

What are the quality principles advocated by Phillip Crosby?

A
  • Conformance to requirements - Prevention over inspection - Zero Defects - Cost of Poor Quality
460
Q

Give examples of Internal Failure Costs.

A

Rework and Scrap

461
Q

Give examples of External Failure Costs.

A
  • Liabilities - Warranty work - Lost business
462
Q

What are the components of Cost of Quality (COQ)?

A

COQ = Prevention Costs + Appraisal Costs + Failure Costs

463
Q

Give examples of Appraisal Costs.

A

Costs of testing, destructive testing and inspections are Appraisal Costs.

464
Q

Give examples of Prevention Costs.

A

Costs of training, documenting processes, and equipment are Prevention Costs.

465
Q

Why is Cost-Benefit Analysis done in quality planning?

A

To compare the cost of quality activities with the expected benefit. For example, if a quality improvement activity costs $10,000 and results in only a marginal increase in quality, then it’s probably not worth doing.

466
Q

What is the range of Control Limits for repetitive processes?

A

Mean ± 3 sigma

467
Q

What is the range of Specification Limits for repetitive processes?

A

Specification Limits are not calculated based on the control charts, but are set by the customers.

468
Q

When is a process considered to be “out of control”?

A

When a data point falls outside the control limits or when seven consecutive data points fall on the same side of the mean (either above or below the mean) on a control chart.

469
Q

Which tool is used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A

Control Charts

470
Q

When is Statistical Sampling used?

A

Statistical Sampling is used when: - Not many defects are expected - Testing entire population would take too long - Testing is destructive - Testing is costly

471
Q

Give at least 3 examples of Quality Metrics.

A
  • On-time performance - Number of production issues per month - Defects per 1,000 lines of code - System Availability - Rework Index
472
Q

What are Fishbone Diagrams used for?

A

Identifying root causes of problems or risks

473
Q

What is the purpose of a Histogram?

A

It illustrates the most common cause of problems in a process by the number and relative heights of the bars.

474
Q

In which process are defect repairs validated?

A

Control Quality

475
Q

Which technique is used to validate defect repairs?

A

Inspection

476
Q

What is needed for JIT manufacturing to be successful?

A

Strict adherence of quality standards by the suppliers.

477
Q

Who has the ultimate responsibility for quality on a project?

A

The Project Manager

478
Q

Who is responsible for quality in the organization as a whole?

A

The senior management of the organization

479
Q

What is the potential impact of poor quality on the project?

A
  • Higher costs - Schedule delays - Higher risk - Lower customer satisfaction - Lower team morale
480
Q

According to which quality expert, quality is free, and the only associated costs of quality should be those of nonconformance?

A

Crosby

481
Q

The definition of quality as defined by Dr. Joseph M. Juran is?

A

Fitness for use

482
Q

Give 3 examples of Cost of Conformance.

A
  • Quality training
  • Quality planning
  • Quality systems
483
Q

Give 3 examples of Cost of Non-Conformance.

A
  • Rework - Scrap - Warranty costs
484
Q

If you are creating a Responsibility Assignment Matrix, which process are you in?

A

Plan Resource Management

485
Q

Which plan describes when and how project human resource requirements will be met?

A

Team Management Plan

486
Q

What are the common ways to arrange an Organizational Breakdown Structure?

A

By departments, units, or teams with the project activities or work packages listed under each department

487
Q

What is the benefit of using a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?

A

It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task, and thus avoids confusion.

488
Q

When is it particularly important to use a RACI matrix?

A

When the team consists of internal and external resources (to ensure clear divisions of roles and expectations).

489
Q

What specific information needs to be identified when defining Roles and Responsibilities on a project?

A
  • Role - Authority - Responsibility - Competency
490
Q

What is usually included in the Resource Management Plan?

A
  • Identification of resources - Resource acquisition guidance - Roles and responsibilities - Project Organization Charts - Guidance for Project team resource management - Training needs - Recognition and rewards - Methods for resource control.
491
Q

What are the two common resource leveling strategies?

A
  • Add more resources - Modify the project schedule
492
Q

What do you do when resources are loaded beyond the maximum number of hours available?

A

Resource Leveling

493
Q

What assumes increased importance in a Virtual Team model?

A

Communication planning

494
Q

What needs to be done to make Virtual Teams effective?

A
  • Set clear expectations - Facilitate communications - Develop protocols for resolving conflict - Include people in decision-making - Improve cultural awareness - Share credit in successes
495
Q

How are project team assignments documented?

A

By updating the team directory, project organization chart, and project schedule.

496
Q

Whom do project managers have to negotiate with to get competent staff for the project?

A

1) Functional managers
2) Other project management teams in the organization
3) External organizations, vendors, contractors, etc.

497
Q

What are Tuckman’s five stages of team development?

A

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning

498
Q

At what stage of the team development do team members begin to work together and trust each other?

A

Norming

499
Q

Which stage of team development has the most potential for conflict, but is also necessary for the growth of the team?

A

Storming

500
Q

Who has the responsibility to provide adequate resources for the project?

A

Functional Managers

PMP - BrainBOK (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions