MCQ CHAPTER 19 The Cardiovascular System: The Blood Flashcards

1
Q

1) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the blood?
a) Transportation of nutrients
b) Regulation of blood pH
c) Protection against infectious disease
d) Transportation of heat
e) Production of oxygen

A

D

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2
Q

2) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding blood?
a) The normal average temperature of blood is around 100.4o F.
b) The normal pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45.
c) Hemocytoblasts are a common component of circulating blood.
d) The primary circulating blood cell is the RBC.
e) Blood is a liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and a liquid extracellular matrix.

A

C

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3
Q

3) The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by
a) WBCs.
b) platelets.
c) RBCs.
d) plasma.
e) plasma proteins.

A

C

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4
Q

4) What percentage of blood plasma is water?
a) 95.1%
b) 91.5%
c) 88.5%
d) 4.9%
e) 8.5%

A

B

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5
Q

5) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?
a) Albumin
b) Globulins
c) Fibrinogen
d) Myoglobin
e) Hemoglobin

A

B

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6
Q

6) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?
a) Albumin
b) Globulins
c) Fibrinogen
d) Prostaglandins
e) None of these choices

A

C

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7
Q

7) The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called
a) hematospermia.
b) hemopoiesis.
c) thrombocytosis.
d) hemostasis.
e) polycythemia.

A

B

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8
Q

8) A megakaryoblast will develop into
a) a red blood cell.
b) a white blood cell.
c) a platelet.
d) either a white blood cell or a platelet.
e) none of these choices.

A

C

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9
Q

9) During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into
a) proerythroblasts.
b) T lymphoblasts.
c) B lymphoblasts.
d) NK lymphoblasts.
e) all of these choices.

A

A

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10
Q

10) Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow?
a) erythropoietin (EPO)
b) thrombopoietin (TPO)
c) human growth hormone (hGH)
d) calcitonin (CT)
e) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

A

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11
Q

11) Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC?
a) 50 million
b) 100 million
c) 280 million
d) 320 million
e) 430 million

A

C

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12
Q

12) Ferritin is a protein used to
a) transport iron in the blood.
b) store iron in the liver.
c) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes.
d) synthesize iron.
e) absorb iron across intestinal cells.

A

B

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13
Q

13) The major function of red blood cells is
a) nutrient transport.
b) cytokine stimulation.
c) blood cell proliferation.
d) gas transport.
e) disease resistance.

A

D

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14
Q

14) Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a
a) proerythroblast.
b) megakaryocyte.
c) progenitor cell.
d) mature erythrocyte.
e) reticulocyte.

A

E

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15
Q

15) Which of the following blood cells is a phagocyte?
a) Neutrophil
b) Platelet
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Erythrocyte

A

A

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16
Q

16) Which of the following blood cells is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel?
a) Erythrocyte
b) Platelet
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophil

A

B

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17
Q

17) Which of the following blood cells release granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions?
a) Eosinophil
b) Monocyte
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophil

A

D

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18
Q

18) Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and are effective against parasitic worms?
a) Eosinophil
b) Monocyte
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophil

A

A

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19
Q

19) Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders?
a) Eosinophil
b) Macrophage
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Platelet

A

C

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20
Q

20) Which of the following cells is NOT an agranular leukocyte?
a) Monocytes
b) Macrophage
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) All of these choices

A

D

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21
Q

21) The process of a white blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called
a) emigration.
b) diaphysis.
c) adhesion.
d) opsonization.
e) phagocytosis.

A

A

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22
Q

22) Which of the following chemical substances are NOT commonly released by mast cells?
a) Heparin
b) Histamine
c) Nitric oxide
d) Proteases
e) All of these choices

A

C

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23
Q

23) Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of megakaryoblasts?
a) Erythropoietin
b) Thrombopoietin
c) Nitric oxide
d) Human growth hormone
e) Heparin

A

B

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24
Q

24) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?
a) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia
b) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
c) emigration, clotting, hemolysis
d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting
e) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation

A

D

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25
Q

25) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of
a) thromboplastin.
b) prothrombinase.
c) clotting factor XII.
d) fibrin.
e) tissue factor.

A

B

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26
Q

26) Which of the following clotting factors is involved in strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot?
a) Factor V
b) Factor VII
c) Factor XI
d) Factor XIII
e) Factor XIV

A

D

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27
Q

27) Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy?
a) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative
b) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive
c) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative
d) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive.

A

B

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28
Q

28) Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release?
a) Heparin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Plasmin
d) Antithrombin
e) Prostacyclin

A

E

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29
Q

29) Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils?
a) Heparin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Thromboxane A2
d) Prostacyclin
e) Plasmin

A

A

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30
Q

30) Which of the cells in the diagram will eventually develop into macrophages?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

E

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31
Q

31) Which of the cells in the diagram will increase the number of nuclear lobes as they age?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

A

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32
Q

32) Which of the cells in the diagram can be subdivided into categories of small and large versions of this cell type?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

D

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33
Q

33) Which labeled cell in the diagram is a WBC?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) Both B and C
e) All of these choices

A

C

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34
Q

34) Which labelled cell in the diagram is a pluripotent stem cell?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) G

A

A

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35
Q

35) Which letter in the diagram indicates the correct position of a myeloid stem cell?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) G

A

B

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36
Q

36) Which labeled cell in the diagram will develop into thrombocytes?
a) G
b) J
c) K
d) L
e) E

A

A

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37
Q

37) What is this figure demonstrating?
a) Erythropoiesis
b) RBC differentiation
c) Emigration
d) Clot formation
e) Clot retraction

A

C

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38
Q

38) What does this figure represent?
a) Erythropoiesis
b) RBC differentiation
c) Emigration
d) Clot formation
e) Clot retraction

A

D

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39
Q

39) Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood?
a) anti-A
b) anti-B
c) anti-A and anti-B
d) No antibodies to ABO blood group antigens
e) Not enough information to answer

A

C

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40
Q

40) What blood type is a person if their plasma contains only anti-A agglutinin?
a) A
b) B
c) O
d) AB
e) Not enough information is provided to answer question.

A

B

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41
Q

45) When blood from a normal adult is centrifuged, as shown in the figure, which of the following components occupies the greatest volume?
a) plasma
b) red blood cells
c) platelets
d) buffy coat
e) white blood cells

A

A

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42
Q

46) What is the normal concentration range of the formed element that comprises the blood component labeled III in the figure?
a) 400,000–1 million cells/μL
b) 150–200 cells/μL
c) 4.8–5.4 million cells/μL
d) 150,000–400,000 cells/μL
e) 5,000–10,000 cells/μL

A

C

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43
Q

47) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the highest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?
a) eosinophils
b) monocytes
c) lymphocytes
d) neutrophils
e) basophils

A

D

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44
Q

48) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the smallest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?
a) eosinophils
b) monocytes
c) lymphocytes
d) neutrophils
e) basophils

A

E

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45
Q

49) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the highest percentage in the blood component labeled I in the figure?
a) globulin
b) albumin
c) fibrinogen
d) thrombin
e) keratin

A

B

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46
Q

50) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the lowest percentage of the blood component labeled I in the figure?
a) globulin
b) albumin
c) fibrinogen
d) all of the protein listed are found in equal percentages e) none of proteins listed are found in component I

A

C

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47
Q

51) Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to neutrophils?
a) Megakaryoblast
b) Proerythroblast
c) T lymphoblast
d) Monoblast
e) Myeloblast

A

E

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48
Q

52) Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to the platelets?
a) Megakaryoblast
b) Proerythroblast
c) T lymphoblast
d) Monoblast
e) Myeloblast

A

A

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49
Q

53) Which of the following formed elements found in the blood are derived from reticulocytes?
a) Platelets
b) Erythrocytes
c) T lymphocytes
d) Monocytes
e) Basophils

A

B

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50
Q

54) Which of the following precursor cells give rise to agranular leukocytes?
a) Proerythroblast
b) Megakaryoblast
c) Lymphoblast
d) Myeloblast
e) None of the selections are correct.

A

C

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51
Q

55) Which of the following precursor cells give rise to granular leukocytes?
a) Proerythroblast
b) Megakaryoblast
c) Lymphoblast
d) Myeloblast
e) None of the selections are correct.

A

D

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52
Q

56) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate bacterial infection, stress, or inflammation?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A
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53
Q

57) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate viral infections?
a) A & B
b) B & C
c) C & D
d) D & E
e) E & C

A

D

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54
Q

58) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate parasitic infection or autoimmune disease?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

B

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55
Q

59) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate cancer or hypothyroidism?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

C

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56
Q

60) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate fungal infection?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

E

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57
Q

61) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate pregnancy, ovulation, or hyperthyroidism?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

A

C

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58
Q

62) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate radiation exposure, or systemic lupus erythromatosus?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

A

A

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59
Q

63) Low counts of which two cell types shown in the figure may result from treatment with cortisol?
a) A & B
b) B & C
c) C & D
d) D & E
e) E & C

A

D

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60
Q

64) Serum is
a) the same as plasma.
b) plasma without the clotting factors.
c) the same as lymph.
d) formed during the first step in blood clotting.
e) pulmonary interstitial fluid.

A

B

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61
Q

65) Reduced vitamin B12 absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called
a) hemorrhagic anemia.
b) aplastic anemia.
c) megaloblastic anemia.
d) pernicious anemia.
e) iron deficiency anemia.

A

D

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62
Q

66) Destruction of red bone marrow due to radiation results in
a) hemorrhagic anemia.
b) aplastic anemia.
c) megaloblastic anemia.
d) pernicious anemia.
e) iron deficiency anemia.

A

B

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63
Q

67) A condition in which inadequate intake of vitamin B12 or folic acid causes production of large abnormal red blood cells is called
a) hemorrhagic anemia.
b) aplastic anemia.
c) megaloblastic anemia.
d) pernicious anemia.
e) iron deficiency anemia.

A

C

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64
Q

68) Anemia is defined as
a) a condition where blood does not clot properly.
b) a condition where blood cells are lysed by the immune response.
c) a condition where there is excessive bleeding.
d) a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced.
e) none of these choices.

A

D

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65
Q

70) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is
a) 4 to 5 years.
b) 4 to 5 hours.
c) 5 to 9 days.
d) 120 days.
e) 120 weeks.

A

D

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66
Q

71) Which of the following are characteristics of BOTH erythrocytes and thromobocytes?
a) no nucleus
b) large segmented nucleus
c) cytoplasmic granules
d) lifespan of 5 to 9 days
e) develop from myeloblasts
f) more than one answer selection is correct

A

A

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67
Q

72) Which of the following formed elements in blood are removed by fixed macrophages in the spleen and liver after only 5 to 9 days in the circulation?
a) erythrocytes
b) thrombocytes
c) monocytes
d) basophils
e) eosinophils

A

B

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68
Q

73) A cord-blood transplant involves obtaining the stem cells to transplant into the diseased patient from
a) the spermatic cord of a donor’s testes.
b) the spinal cord of the patient.
c) the umbilical cord of a donor shortly after birth.
d) the irradiated bone marrow of the patient.
e) the spinal cord of an aborted fetus.

A

C

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69
Q

74) If type A blood is infused into a patient with type O blood, which of the following adverse reactions would you expect to observe in the patient?
a) Agglutination (clumping) of the transfused blood cells.
b) Complement-induced hemolysis of the transfused blood cells.
c) Released hemoglobin clogging the filtration membrane of the kidneys.
d) More than one of the answer selection is correct.
e) No adverse reactions would occur.

A

D

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70
Q

75) Which of the following blood types is a person whose blood cells were agglutinated by both anti-A serum and anti-B serum, but not by anti-Rh serum?
a) AB negative
b) AB positive
c) O negative
d) O positive
e) None of the selections are correct

A

A

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71
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are involved in determining a person’s total blood volume?
    a. Age
    b. Body type
    c. Sex
    d. All of the above.
A

D

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72
Q
  1. Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with:
    a. skeletal volume.
    b. body fat.
    c. water weight.
    d. height.
A

B

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73
Q
  1. A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of:
    a. leukocytosis.
    b. anemia.
    c. leukemia.
    d. polycythemia.
A

D

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74
Q
  1. Which mature cell has no nucleus, mitochondria, or ribosomes?
    a. Erythrocyte
    b. Leukocyte
    c. Platelet
    d. Neutrophil
A

A

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75
Q
  1. A normal adult red blood cell count ranges from:
    a. 4.8 to 5.5 million/cubic mm.
    b. 5.5 to 6.5 million/cubic mm.
    c. 6.5 to 7.5 million/cubic mm.
    d. 7.5 to 8.5 million/cubic mm.
A

A

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76
Q
  1. Which of the following cell types has the main function of carrying oxygen?
    a. Leukocyte
    b. Thrombocyte
    c. Platelet
    d. Erythrocyte
A

D

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77
Q
  1. Leukocytes and platelets make up about this percent of the blood volume.
    a. 10%
    b. 4%
    c. 1%.
    d. 15%
A

C

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78
Q
  1. Under the microscope, erythrocytes appear as:
    a. biconcave disks without nuclei.
    b. circular disks with centrally located nuclei.
    c. circular disks with several nuclei.
    d. Oval disks with multilobed nuclei.
A

A

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79
Q
  1. Erythropoiesis is the formation of:
    a. platelets.
    b. red blood cells.
    c. white blood cells.
    d. all of the above.
A

B

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80
Q
  1. Many types of blood cells are produced in the:
    a. liver.
    b. Red bone marrow.
    c. spleen.
    d. pancreas.
A

B

81
Q
  1. In the formation of blood cells, the megakaryocyte ultimately forms:
    a. lymphocytes.
    b. platelets.
    c. monocytes.
    d. both A and B.
A

B

82
Q
  1. In each red blood cell, there are about this many molecules of hemoglobin.
    a. 200 to 300
    b. 2000 to 3000
    c. 200,000 to 300,000
    d. 2,000,000 to 3,000,000
A

D

83
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a leukocyte?
    a. Basophil
    b. Reticulocyte
    c. Neutrophil
    d. Monocyte
A

B

84
Q
  1. Red blood cells carry:
    a. oxygen.
    b. carbon dioxide.
    c. electrolytes.
    d. both A and B.
A

D

85
Q
  1. The blood cell with the shortest life span is the:
    a. red blood cell.
    b. eosinophil.
    c. neutrophil.
    d. T lymphocyte.
A

C

86
Q
  1. Heme is broken down into this substance, which is excreted in bile.
    a. Amino acids
    b. Iron
    c. Bilirubin
    d. Hematocrit
A

C

87
Q
  1. Which of the following cell types are classified as agranulocytes?
    a. Neutrophils and monocytes
    b. Basophils and lymphocytes
    c. Neutrophils and basophils
    d. Lymphocytes and monocytes
A

D

88
Q
  1. Which of the following types of white blood cells is thought to play a role in the prevention of
    clotting?
    a. Eosinophils
    b. Monocytes
    c. Basophils
    d. Neutrophils
A

C

89
Q
  1. Which blood cell has the longest life span?
    a. Neutrophils
    b. Thrombocytes
    c. Eosinophils
    d. Erythrocyte
A

A

90
Q
  1. Which type of white blood cell plays a major role in immunity?
    a. Monocytes
    b. Eosinophils
    c. Lymphocytes
    d. Basophils
A

C

91
Q
  1. This is considered an anticoagulant.
    a. Pletal
    b. Ticlid
    c. Coumadin
    d. Both A and B.
A

C

92
Q
  1. Thrombocytes are used for:
    a. blood clotting.
    b. body defense.
    c. transport of glucose.
    d. transport of oxygen.
A

A

93
Q
  1. Which of the following Rh-factor combinations could cause agglutination of an infant’s red
    blood cells?
    a. Mother–, father+, infant+
    b. Mother–, father+, infant–
    c. Mother+, father–, infant+
    d. Mother+, father+, infant–
A

A

94
Q
  1. People with type AB blood are considered universal recipients because their blood:
    a. does not contain the Rh antigen.
    b. does not contain either anti-A or anti-B antibodies.
    c. is absent of both antigen A and antigen B in the red blood cells.
    d. is both B and C.
A

B

95
Q
  1. The type of plasma protein that constitutes more than half of the total amount is:
    a. globulin.
    b. fibrinogen.
    c. albumin.
A

C

96
Q
  1. Calcium is used in the clotting process during:
    a. the formation of thrombin.
    b. the formation of prothrombin.
    c. the formation of plasminogen.
    d. the formation of fibrinogen.
A

C

97
Q
  1. In clot formation, prothrombin is converted to:
    a. fibrin.
    b. fibrinogen.
    c. thrombin.
    d. thromboplastin.
A

C

98
Q
  1. In the formation of a clot, the insoluble network of fine threads in which the cellular elements
    of blood are trapped is called:
    a. fibrinogen.
    b. fibrin.
    c. thrombin.
    d. thromboplastin.
A

B

99
Q
  1. Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
    a. Calcium ions
    b. Vitamin K
    c. Thromboplastin
    d. Heparin
A

D

100
Q
  1. An example of an antiplatelet drug would be:
    a. pletal.
    b. tidlid.
    c. coumadin.
    d. both A and B.
A

D

101
Q
  1. This substance dissolves blood clots.
    a. Streptokinase
    b. Phosphodiesterase
    c. Plasmin
    d. Vitamin K
A

C

102
Q
  1. The element in hemoglobin that allows oxygen to be transported is:
    a. sodium.
    b. zinc.
    c. iron.
    d. copper.
A

C

103
Q
  1. A decrease in red blood cell numbers can result in:
    a. polycythemia.
    b. anemia.
    c. toxemia.
    d. leukemia.
A

B

104
Q
  1. In a tube of centrifuged blood, the order of substances from top to bottom would be:
    a. plasma, red blood cells, buffy coat.
    b. buffy coat, red blood cells, plasma.
    c. plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells.
    d. red blood cells, buffy coat, plasma.
A

C

105
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true of hemoglobin?
    a. It carries oxygen in the blood.
    b. It carries carbon dioxide in the blood.
    c. It is composed of four heme molecules joined to one globin molecule.
    d. All of the above are true of hemoglobin.
A

C

106
Q
  1. A person with only antibody B in his or her plasma would have which blood type?
    a. Type A
    b. Type B
    c. Type AB
    d. Type O
A

A

107
Q
  1. Which of the following does not hasten clotting?
    a. Rough spot in the endothelium
    b. Abnormally slow blood flow
    c. Heparin
A

C

108
Q
  1. The function of blood is to:
    a. carry food to the cells.
    b. remove waste from the cells.
    c. assist the body in temperature regulation.
    d. All of the above.
A

D

109
Q
  1. A hematocrit value of 42% would be:
    a. the average for a man.
    b. the average for a woman.
    c. below average for a man.
    d. below average for a woman.
A

B

110
Q
  1. What part of the hemoglobin molecule combines with carbon dioxide?
    a. Globin
    b. Heme
    c. Iron atoms
    d. Hemoglobin does not combine with carbon dioxide.
A

A

111
Q
  1. Which is not an end product of the breakdown of hemoglobin?
    a. Amino acids
    b. Bilirubin
    c. Free oxygen
    d. Iron
A

C

112
Q
  1. Which of the following substances is not secreted by platelets?
    a. ADP
    b. Thromboxanes
    c. Arachidonic acid
    d. All of the above are secreted by platelets.
A

A

113
Q
  1. Which characteristic of blood makes it especially effective in temperature regulation?
    a. Low specific heat capacity
    b. High specific heat capacity
    c. High evaporative potential
    d. Both A and C.
A

B

114
Q
  1. If you give a “unit” of blood in a blood drive and you are an average-sized adult, you have
    given about what percent of your blood?
    a. 1%
    b. 5%
    c. 10%
    d. 15%
A

C

115
Q
  1. Which is not a formed element of the blood?
    a. Albumin
    b. Platelets
    c. Erythrocytes
    d. Neither A nor B are formed elements of the blood.
A

A

116
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true of white blood cells?
    a. More brightly colored than red blood cells
    b. Larger than red blood cells
    c. Contain a nucleus
    d. All of the above are true of white blood cells.
A

A

117
Q
  1. Some white blood cells are capable of diapedesis; this means they can:
    a. “eat” bacteria or damaged cells.
    b. migrate out of blood vessels into tissue spaces.
    c. engage in protein synthesis because they have a nucleus.
    d. change from one type of white blood cell to another.
A

B

118
Q
  1. Which white blood cell helps protect against parasitic worms?
    a. Eosinophil
    b. Neutrophil
    c. Basophil
    d. Monocyte
A

A

119
Q
  1. Which white blood cell contains granules filled with histamine?
    a. Eosinophil
    b. Neutrophil
    c. Basophil
    d. Monocyte
A

C

120
Q
  1. A person with no antibodies in the blood plasma would have which blood type?
    a. Type A
    b. Type B
    c. Type AB
    d. Type O
A

C

121
Q
  1. A person with no antigens on the red blood cell would have which blood type?
    a. Type A
    b. Type B
    c. Type AB
    d. Type O
A

D

122
Q
  1. A person with an antigen on the red blood cell and a different antibody in the plasma would
    have which blood type?
    a. Type A
    b. Type AB
    c. Type O
    d. Both A and B.
A

A

123
Q
  1. What substance involved in the process of blood clot formation is not made by the liver?
    a. Fibrinogen
    b. Prothrombin
    c. Vitamin K
    d. All of the above are made by the liver.
A

C

124
Q
  1. What substance does not assist in the formation of a blood clot?
    a. Fibrinogen
    b. Plasmin
    c. Vitamin K
    d. All of the above assist in the formation of a clot.
A

B

125
Q
  1. After Martha’s baby was born, why did the physician apply a gauze dressing for a short time
    on the umbilical cord and give the baby a dose of vitamin K?
    a. Newborn infants do not have any platelets for the first 3 months and will bleed
    freely unless actions are taken to prevent bleeding.
    b. Newborn infants often show elevated platelet counts at birth, and both of the
    actions taken by the physician will help the umbilical cord stop bleeding.
    c. The physician knew that the baby would need vitamin K to replace the red blood
    cells lost during delivery.
    d. Newborn infants often have a reduced number of platelets, which are needed to
    clot blood, and both of the actions taken by the physician would help the umbilical
    cord stop bleeding.
A

D

126
Q
  1. ___ General name for leukocytes containing large cytoplasmic granules that stain
A

Granulocytes

127
Q
  1. ___ Granulocytes that phagocytize microorganisms for cellular defense; most numerous leukocyte
A

Neutrophils

128
Q
  1. ___ Granulocytes that release heparin (to prevent clotting) and histamine (important in
    inflammatory response)
A

Basophils

129
Q
  1. ___ Granulocytes that protect against infections caused by parasitic worms
A

Eosinophils

130
Q
  1. ___ Agranulocytes involved in immunity; produce antibodies
A

f. Lymphocytes

131
Q
  1. ___ Largest of the leukocytes, with a kidney bean–shaped nucleus and are highly phagocytic
A

h. Monocytes

132
Q
  1. ___ Small, colorless bodies that function in blood clotting and hemostasis
A

j. Platelets

133
Q
  1. ___ Cells from which platelets are produced
A

g. Megakaryocytes

134
Q
  1. ___ General term for leukocytes without cytoplasmic granules
A

a. Agranulocytes

135
Q
  1. ___ General term for the group of nucleated cells that lack hemoglobin; also called white
    blood cells.
A

e. Leukocytes

136
Q
  1. ___ Called the universal donor; has no antigens on the red blood cell
A

Type O

137
Q
  1. ___ Has the A antigen and the Rh antigen and the B antibody
A

Type A+

138
Q
  1. ___ Called the universal recipient; has both A and B antigens and no antibodies
A

Type AB

139
Q
  1. ___ Has the B antigens and A antibodies
A

Type B

140
Q
  1. ___ Has the A antigen only and has the B antibody
A

Type A–

141
Q

___ The soluble protein that is acted on to form the insoluble protein that actually forms the
clot

A

Fibrinogen

142
Q

___ Substance that combines with calcium to convert fibrinogen to fibrin

A

Thrombin

143
Q
  1. ___ Element that is necessary in two steps of the clotting process
A

Calcium

144
Q
  1. ___ Begins the extrinsic pathway to blood clot formation
A

Tissue factor

145
Q
  1. ___ Substance needed by the liver to make prothrombin
A

Vitamin K

146
Q
  1. ___ Substance that hydrolyzes fibrin strands and dissolves blood clots
A

Plasminogen

147
Q
  1. ___ Substance that converts prothrombin to thrombin
A

Prothrombin activator

148
Q
  1. ___ Insoluble protein that forms fine threads in the blood needed to make a clot
A

Fibrin

149
Q
  1. ___ Protein that is made by the liver and acted on to become thrombin
A

Prothrombin

150
Q
  1. ___ The process of red blood cell formation
A
151
Q
  1. ___ A serious hemolytic condition caused by Rh incompatibility between mother and
    offspring
A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

152
Q
  1. ___ The migration of white blood cells out of the blood vessels and into the tissue spaces
A

Diapedesis

153
Q
  1. ___ The glycoprotein hormone that stimulates the formation of red blood cells
A

Erythropoietin

154
Q
  1. ___ Immature red blood cells that are released into circulating blood
A

Reticulocytes

155
Q
  1. ___ Platelets develop from these large cells
A

Megakaryocytes

156
Q
  1. ___ Another name for red bone marrow
A

Myeloid tissue

157
Q
  1. ___ Term that refers to the stoppage of blood flow from an injured vessel
A

Hemostasis

158
Q
  1. ___ The nucleated stem cell from which red blood cells develop
A

Hematocytoblast

159
Q

Blood plasma and interstitial fluid are both components of the extracellular fluid.

a.) True
b.) False

A

true

160
Q

Which of the following is not true of blood in its transporting role?

a.) carries nutrients to cells from the gastrointestinal tract
b.) carries oxygen from the cells to the lungs
c.) transports hormones from glands to other parts of the body
d.) carries waste products for elimination
e.) all of these choices are true

A

b

161
Q

Which statement about blood is not true?

a.) blood plasma is an extracellular matrix
b.) about 10% of the formed elements are red blood cells
c.) blood plasma is over 90% water
d.) most of the proteins found in blood are made in the liver
e.) 55% of the blood is made up of blood plasma

A

B

162
Q

A hemopoietic growth factor:

a.) is a hormone that regulates bone growth
b.) stimulates absorption of nutrients in the small intestine
c.) is a hormone that aids in proliferation of progenitor cells
d.) are lymphoid cells used in the immune system’s defense mode
e.) are precursor cells

A

C

163
Q

The substance that stimulates formation of platelets is:

a.) thrombopoietin
b.) immunoglobulins
c.) antibodies
d.) erythropoietin
e.) cytoskines

A

A

164
Q

Which statement does not describe a component of the RBC life cycle?

a.) ruptured RBCs are removed by macrophages in the spleen and liver
b.) heme is ultimately converted to bilirubin which ends up in the liver
c.) the transporter of iron in the blood is transferrin
d.) urobilinogen is eliminated in the feces in the form of stercobilin
e.) biliverdin is the protein that stores iron

A

E

165
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a.) a reticulocyte has a multilobed nucleus
b.) erythropoiesis is the production of white blood cells
c.) hypoxia increases the secretion of erythropoietin by the kidneys
d.) normally, erythropoiesis outpaces the production of red blood cell destruction
e.) loss of the nucleus causes swelling of an erythrocyte

A

C

166
Q

Which of the following is not a factor in destroying attacking pathogens?

a.) chemotaxis
b.) the release of lysozymes
c.) erythropoiesis
d.) emigration
e.) phagocytosis

A

C

167
Q

A differential white blood cell count would not be appropriate to:

a.) determine the effects of chemotherapy
b.) aid in diagnosing a parasitic infection
c.) differentiating high-density lipoprotein (HDL) from low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
d.) check for poisoning by drugs
e.) determine changes during the therapy of leukemia

A

C

168
Q

Which are the most numerous white blood cells?

a.) lymphocytes
b.) neutrophils
c.) monocytes
d.) eosinophils
e.) basophils

A

B

169
Q

Which of the following is not an example of hemostasis?

a.) platelet plug formation
b.) maintenance of the normal body temperature
c.) applying a tourniquet
d.) vascular spasm
e.) blood clotting

A

B

170
Q

Which of the following is not involved in platelet plug formation?

a.) platelets sticking to the walls of an injured vessel
b.) vasoconstriction due to serotonin release
c.) release of platelet-derived-growth-factor ((PDGF)
d.) the release of ADH to make the platelets bind to each other
e.) all the above occur in platelet plug formation

A

D

171
Q

The extrinsic pathway of blood clotting occurs much quicker than the intrinsic pathway.

a.) True
b.) False

A

A

172
Q

Which of the following is true in reference to a blood transfusion?
1. is the transfer of whole blood only
2. often used to treat anemia
3. agglutination is not a problem with mismatching blood types
4. transfusions directly into the red bone marrow

a.) 1 only
b.) 2 only
c.) 3 only
d.) 4 only
e.) 2 and 4

A

E

173
Q

Which statement is false?

a.) type AB persons are called universal donors
b.) type B persons are compatible with blood types B and O
c.) type O person can only receive type O blood
d.) type AB persons can receive blood types A, B, AB, and O
e.) all of these choices are true

A

A

174
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn usually does not affect the first-born child because the Rh- mother has not had a chance to build up anti-Rh antibodies to the newborn’s Rh+ blood.

a.) True
b.) False

A

TRUE

175
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood?

a.) transportation of gases, nutrients, and wastes
b.) regulation of body pH
c.) secretion of acids
d.) protection against disease
e.) aid in maintaining fluid homeostasis in cells

A

C

176
Q

Most of the plasma proteins are synthesized in the

a.) liver.
b.) spleen.
c.) bone marrow
d.) kidneys.
e.) white blood cells

A

A

177
Q

The myeloid stem cell gives rise to

a.) monocytes and macrophages.
b.) megakaryocytes and platelets.
c.) red blood cells.
d.) granulocytes.
e.) All of these choices

A

E

178
Q

Increased numbers of _________ may occur in allergic reactions, parasitic infections, and some autoimmune diseases.

a.) neutrophils
b.) eosinophils
c.) basophils
d.) monocytes
e.) lymphocytes

A

B

179
Q

Which of the following does NOT contain a nucleus while in the peripheral blood?
1. erythrocytes
2. thrombocytes
3. megakaryocytes

a.) 1 only
b.) 2 only
c.) 3 only
d.) 1 and 2 are correct
e.) 1, 2, and 3 are correct

A

D

180
Q

Vascular spasm, the first mechanism activated to decrease blood loss, is caused by
1. damage to smooth muscle.
2. substances released by activated platelets.
3. reflexes initiated by pain receptors.

a.) 1 only
b.) 2 only
c.) 3 only
d.) 1 and 2 are correct
e.) 1, 2, and 3 are correct

A

E

181
Q

Which correctly lists the sequence of events in blood clot formation?

a.) formation of prothrombinase; activation of Factor X; formation of thrombin; formation of fibrin; clot retraction
b.) activation of Factor X; formation of prothrombinase; formation of thrombin; formation of fibrin; clot retraction
c.) activation of Factor X; formation of thrombin; formation of prothrombinase; formation of fibrin; clot retraction
d.) activation of Factor X; formation of fibrin; formation of thrombin; formation of prothrombinase; clot retraction
e.) formation of prothrombinase; formation of thrombin; formation of fibrin; activation of Factor X; clot retraction

A

B

182
Q

Which does NOT help to control hemostasis?

a.) absorption of thrombin by fibrin in the clot.
b.) dispersal of clotting factors by blood flow.
c.) inhibition of platelet adhesion and release by prostacyclin.
d.) production of prothrombinase by both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
e.) availability of antithrombin and activated protein C.

A

D

183
Q

After testing your blood in the lab, you found that your red cells agglutinated with both anti-A and anti-B antisera. This means that you

a.) have A and B antigens on your RBC.
b.) have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in your plasma.
c.) are AB positive.
d.) have A and B antigens on your RBC and have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in your plasma are both correct.
e.) have A and B antigens on your RBC, have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in your plasma, and are AB positive are all correct.

A

A

184
Q

An ABO mismatched blood transfusion can cause acute renal failure because the

a.) antibodies in the transfusion damage the cells in the kidney.
b.) antigens in the transfusion damage the cells in the kidney.
c.) agglutinated red cells get stuck in the capillaries of the kidneys.
d.) hemoglobin released from lysed RBC clogs the filtration membrane of the kidneys.
e.) None of these choices are correct.

A

D

185
Q

If your blood type is O negative and you have never been exposed to Rh-positive blood, you will have in your plasma antibodies to A, B, and Rh antigens.

a.) True
b.) False

A

FALSE

186
Q

A woman who is Rh negative and a man who is Rh positive had a child who was Rh negative. This means that the next child born to this couple will be at a high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the newborn.

a.) True
b.) False

A

FALSE

187
Q

Which is NOT a function of plasma proteins?

a.) they play an essential role in blood clotting
b.) they help the immune system attack viruses and bacteria
c.) they transport iron, lipids and fat soluble vitamins
d.) they maintain water balance between the blood and tissues
e.) All of these choices are functions of plasma proteins

A

W

188
Q

Blood plasma and interstitial fluid are both components of the extracellular fluid. True or false?

A

TRUE

189
Q

One of the following is not a formed element found in blood.
A) lymphocyte
B) red blood cell
C) platelet
D) white blood cell
E) all the above are formed elements

A

E

190
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A)hematocrit is the ratio of red blood cells found in the blood
B polycythemia is indicated if the hematocrit is exceptionally high
C) RBCs, WBCs, and platelets are whole cells found in blood
D) a monocyte is a type of white blood cell
E) anemia may be present if there is an abnormally low number of RBCs

A

C

191
Q

A hemopoietic growth factor:

A) is a hormone that regulates bone growth
B) stimulates the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine
C) is a hormone that aids in the proliferation of progenitor cells
D) are lymphoid cells used in the immune system’s defence mode
E) are precursor cells

A

C

192
Q

The substance that stimulates formation of platelets is:

A) thrombopoietin
B) immunoglobulins
C) antibodies
D) erythropoietin
E) cytokines

A

A

193
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A) a reticulocyte has a multilobed nucleus
B) erythropoiesis is the production of white blood cells
C) hypoxia increases the secretion of erythropoietin by the kidneys
D) normally, erythropoiesis outpaces the production of red blood cell destruction
E) loss of the nucleus causes swelling of an erythrocyte

A

C

194
Q

Name the first substance that is incorporated into the new clot.

A) plasmin
B) plasminogen
C) fibrinolysin
D) heparin
E) prostacyclin

A

B

195
Q

A thrombus is:
A) a narrowing of the lumen of a vessel
B) an air bubble traveling in the bloodstream
C) a substance that dissolves blood clots
D) a collection of platelets and other cells on the endothelial surface
E) a medicine used to treat heart attacks

A

D

196
Q

Inappropriate use of erythropoietin by athletes may cause cardiac and vascular abnormalities as a result of increased blood viscosity.
A) True
B) False

A

TRUE

197
Q

A thrombus is:
A) a narrowing of the lumen of a vessel
B) an air bubble travelling in the bloodstream
C) a substance that dissolves blood clots
D) a collection of platelets and other cells on the endothelial surface
E) a medicine used to treat heart attacks

A

D

198
Q

Thrombosis refers to clotting in a blood vessel that has not been broken.
A) True
B)False

A

TRUE

199
Q

Blood is classified as a liquid
A) epithelial tissue
B) endothelium
C) connective tissue
D) epithelial tissue and endothelium are both correct
E) endothelium and connective tissue are correct

A

C