MCQ CHAPTER 19 The Cardiovascular System: The Blood

Question 1

1) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the blood?
a) Transportation of nutrients
b) Regulation of blood pH
c) Protection against infectious disease
d) Transportation of heat
e) Production of oxygen

Answer 1

D

Question 2

2) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding blood?
a) The normal average temperature of blood is around 100.4o F.
b) The normal pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45.
c) Hemocytoblasts are a common component of circulating blood.
d) The primary circulating blood cell is the RBC.
e) Blood is a liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and a liquid extracellular matrix.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

3) The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by
a) WBCs.
b) platelets.
c) RBCs.
d) plasma.
e) plasma proteins.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

4) What percentage of blood plasma is water?
a) 95.1%
b) 91.5%
c) 88.5%
d) 4.9%
e) 8.5%

Answer 4

B

Question 5

5) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?
a) Albumin
b) Globulins
c) Fibrinogen
d) Myoglobin
e) Hemoglobin

Answer 5

B

Question 6

6) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?
a) Albumin
b) Globulins
c) Fibrinogen
d) Prostaglandins
e) None of these choices

Answer 6

C

Question 7

7) The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called
a) hematospermia.
b) hemopoiesis.
c) thrombocytosis.
d) hemostasis.
e) polycythemia.

Answer 7

B

Question 8

8) A megakaryoblast will develop into
a) a red blood cell.
b) a white blood cell.
c) a platelet.
d) either a white blood cell or a platelet.
e) none of these choices.

Answer 8

C

Question 9

9) During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into
a) proerythroblasts.
b) T lymphoblasts.
c) B lymphoblasts.
d) NK lymphoblasts.
e) all of these choices.

Answer 9

A

Question 10

10) Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow?
a) erythropoietin (EPO)
b) thrombopoietin (TPO)
c) human growth hormone (hGH)
d) calcitonin (CT)
e) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Answer 10

A

Question 11

11) Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC?
a) 50 million
b) 100 million
c) 280 million
d) 320 million
e) 430 million

Answer 11

C

Question 12

12) Ferritin is a protein used to
a) transport iron in the blood.
b) store iron in the liver.
c) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes.
d) synthesize iron.
e) absorb iron across intestinal cells.

Answer 12

B

Question 13

13) The major function of red blood cells is
a) nutrient transport.
b) cytokine stimulation.
c) blood cell proliferation.
d) gas transport.
e) disease resistance.

Answer 13

D

Question 14

14) Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a
a) proerythroblast.
b) megakaryocyte.
c) progenitor cell.
d) mature erythrocyte.
e) reticulocyte.

Answer 14

E

Question 15

15) Which of the following blood cells is a phagocyte?
a) Neutrophil
b) Platelet
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Erythrocyte

Answer 15

A

Question 16

16) Which of the following blood cells is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel?
a) Erythrocyte
b) Platelet
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophil

Answer 16

B

Question 17

17) Which of the following blood cells release granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions?
a) Eosinophil
b) Monocyte
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophil

Answer 17

D

Question 18

18) Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and are effective against parasitic worms?
a) Eosinophil
b) Monocyte
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophil

Answer 18

A

Question 19

19) Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders?
a) Eosinophil
b) Macrophage
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) Platelet

Answer 19

C

Question 20

20) Which of the following cells is NOT an agranular leukocyte?
a) Monocytes
b) Macrophage
c) Lymphocyte
d) Basophil
e) All of these choices

Answer 20

D

Question 21

21) The process of a white blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called
a) emigration.
b) diaphysis.
c) adhesion.
d) opsonization.
e) phagocytosis.

Answer 21

A

Question 22

22) Which of the following chemical substances are NOT commonly released by mast cells?
a) Heparin
b) Histamine
c) Nitric oxide
d) Proteases
e) All of these choices

Answer 22

C

Question 23

23) Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of megakaryoblasts?
a) Erythropoietin
b) Thrombopoietin
c) Nitric oxide
d) Human growth hormone
e) Heparin

Answer 23

B

Question 24

24) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?
a) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia
b) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
c) emigration, clotting, hemolysis
d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting
e) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation

Answer 24

D

Question 25

25) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of a) thromboplastin. b) prothrombinase. c) clotting factor XII. d) fibrin. e) tissue factor.

Answer 25

B

Question 26

26) Which of the following clotting factors is involved in strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot? a) Factor V b) Factor VII c) Factor XI d) Factor XIII e) Factor XIV

Answer 26

D

Question 27

27) Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy? a) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative b) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive c) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative d) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive.

Answer 27

B

Question 28

28) Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release? a) Heparin b) Fibrinogen c) Plasmin d) Antithrombin e) Prostacyclin

Answer 28

E

Question 29

29) Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils? a) Heparin b) Fibrinogen c) Thromboxane A2 d) Prostacyclin e) Plasmin

Answer 29

A

Question 30

30) Which of the cells in the diagram will eventually develop into macrophages? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer 30

E

Question 31

31) Which of the cells in the diagram will increase the number of nuclear lobes as they age? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer 31

A

Question 32

32) Which of the cells in the diagram can be subdivided into categories of small and large versions of this cell type? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer 32

D

Question 33

33) Which labeled cell in the diagram is a WBC? a) A b) B c) C d) Both B and C e) All of these choices

Answer 33

C

Question 34

34) Which labelled cell in the diagram is a pluripotent stem cell? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G

Answer 34

A

Question 35

35) Which letter in the diagram indicates the correct position of a myeloid stem cell? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G

Answer 35

B

Question 36

36) Which labeled cell in the diagram will develop into thrombocytes? a) G b) J c) K d) L e) E

Answer 36

A

Question 37

37) What is this figure demonstrating? a) Erythropoiesis b) RBC differentiation c) Emigration d) Clot formation e) Clot retraction

Answer 37

C

Question 38

38) What does this figure represent? a) Erythropoiesis b) RBC differentiation c) Emigration d) Clot formation e) Clot retraction

Answer 38

D

Question 39

39) Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood? a) anti-A b) anti-B c) anti-A and anti-B d) No antibodies to ABO blood group antigens e) Not enough information to answer

Answer 39

C

Question 40

40) What blood type is a person if their plasma contains only anti-A agglutinin? a) A b) B c) O d) AB e) Not enough information is provided to answer question.

Answer 40

B

Question 41

45) When blood from a normal adult is centrifuged, as shown in the figure, which of the following components occupies the greatest volume? a) plasma b) red blood cells c) platelets d) buffy coat e) white blood cells

Answer 41

A

Question 42

46) What is the normal concentration range of the formed element that comprises the blood component labeled III in the figure? a) 400,000–1 million cells/μL b) 150–200 cells/μL c) 4.8–5.4 million cells/μL d) 150,000–400,000 cells/μL e) 5,000–10,000 cells/μL

Answer 42

C

Question 43

47) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the highest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure? a) eosinophils b) monocytes c) lymphocytes d) neutrophils e) basophils

Answer 43

D

Question 44

48) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the smallest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure? a) eosinophils b) monocytes c) lymphocytes d) neutrophils e) basophils

Answer 44

E

Question 45

49) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the highest percentage in the blood component labeled I in the figure? a) globulin b) albumin c) fibrinogen d) thrombin e) keratin

Answer 45

B

Question 46

50) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the lowest percentage of the blood component labeled I in the figure? a) globulin b) albumin c) fibrinogen d) all of the protein listed are found in equal percentages e) none of proteins listed are found in component I

Answer 46

C

Question 47

51) Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to neutrophils? a) Megakaryoblast b) Proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) Monoblast e) Myeloblast

Answer 47

E

Question 48

52) Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to the platelets? a) Megakaryoblast b) Proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) Monoblast e) Myeloblast

Answer 48

A

Question 49

53) Which of the following formed elements found in the blood are derived from reticulocytes? a) Platelets b) Erythrocytes c) T lymphocytes d) Monocytes e) Basophils

Answer 49

B

Question 50

54) Which of the following precursor cells give rise to agranular leukocytes? a) Proerythroblast b) Megakaryoblast c) Lymphoblast d) Myeloblast e) None of the selections are correct.

Answer 50

C

Question 51

55) Which of the following precursor cells give rise to granular leukocytes? a) Proerythroblast b) Megakaryoblast c) Lymphoblast d) Myeloblast e) None of the selections are correct.

Answer 51

D

Question 52

56) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate bacterial infection, stress, or inflammation? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Question 53

57) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate viral infections? a) A & B b) B & C c) C & D d) D & E e) E & C

Answer 53

D

Question 54

58) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate parasitic infection or autoimmune disease? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer 54

B

Question 55

59) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate cancer or hypothyroidism? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer 55

C

Question 56

60) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate fungal infection? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer 56

E

Question 57

61) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate pregnancy, ovulation, or hyperthyroidism? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer 57

C

Question 58

62) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate radiation exposure, or systemic lupus erythromatosus? a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Answer 58

A

Question 59

63) Low counts of which two cell types shown in the figure may result from treatment with cortisol? a) A & B b) B & C c) C & D d) D & E e) E & C

Answer 59

D

Question 60

64) Serum is a) the same as plasma. b) plasma without the clotting factors. c) the same as lymph. d) formed during the first step in blood clotting. e) pulmonary interstitial fluid.

Answer 60

B

Question 61

65) Reduced vitamin B12 absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called a) hemorrhagic anemia. b) aplastic anemia. c) megaloblastic anemia. d) pernicious anemia. e) iron deficiency anemia.

Answer 61

D

Question 62

66) Destruction of red bone marrow due to radiation results in a) hemorrhagic anemia. b) aplastic anemia. c) megaloblastic anemia. d) pernicious anemia. e) iron deficiency anemia.

Answer 62

B

Question 63

67) A condition in which inadequate intake of vitamin B12 or folic acid causes production of large abnormal red blood cells is called a) hemorrhagic anemia. b) aplastic anemia. c) megaloblastic anemia. d) pernicious anemia. e) iron deficiency anemia.

Answer 63

C

Question 64

68) Anemia is defined as a) a condition where blood does not clot properly. b) a condition where blood cells are lysed by the immune response. c) a condition where there is excessive bleeding. d) a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced. e) none of these choices.

Answer 64

D

Question 65

70) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is a) 4 to 5 years. b) 4 to 5 hours. c) 5 to 9 days. d) 120 days. e) 120 weeks.

Answer 65

D

Question 66

71) Which of the following are characteristics of BOTH erythrocytes and thromobocytes? a) no nucleus b) large segmented nucleus c) cytoplasmic granules d) lifespan of 5 to 9 days e) develop from myeloblasts f) more than one answer selection is correct

Answer 66

A

Question 67

72) Which of the following formed elements in blood are removed by fixed macrophages in the spleen and liver after only 5 to 9 days in the circulation? a) erythrocytes b) thrombocytes c) monocytes d) basophils e) eosinophils

Answer 67

B

Question 68

73) A cord-blood transplant involves obtaining the stem cells to transplant into the diseased patient from a) the spermatic cord of a donor’s testes. b) the spinal cord of the patient. c) the umbilical cord of a donor shortly after birth. d) the irradiated bone marrow of the patient. e) the spinal cord of an aborted fetus.

Answer 68

C

Question 69

74) If type A blood is infused into a patient with type O blood, which of the following adverse reactions would you expect to observe in the patient? a) Agglutination (clumping) of the transfused blood cells. b) Complement-induced hemolysis of the transfused blood cells. c) Released hemoglobin clogging the filtration membrane of the kidneys. d) More than one of the answer selection is correct. e) No adverse reactions would occur.

Answer 69

D

Question 70

75) Which of the following blood types is a person whose blood cells were agglutinated by both anti-A serum and anti-B serum, but not by anti-Rh serum? a) AB negative b) AB positive c) O negative d) O positive e) None of the selections are correct

Answer 70

A

Question 71

1. Which of the following is/are involved in determining a person’s total blood volume? a. Age b. Body type c. Sex d. All of the above.

Answer 71

D

Question 72

2. Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: a. skeletal volume. b. body fat. c. water weight. d. height.

Answer 72

B

Question 73

3. A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: a. leukocytosis. b. anemia. c. leukemia. d. polycythemia.

Answer 73

D

Question 74

4. Which mature cell has no nucleus, mitochondria, or ribosomes? a. Erythrocyte b. Leukocyte c. Platelet d. Neutrophil

Answer 74

A

Question 75

5. A normal adult red blood cell count ranges from: a. 4.8 to 5.5 million/cubic mm. b. 5.5 to 6.5 million/cubic mm. c. 6.5 to 7.5 million/cubic mm. d. 7.5 to 8.5 million/cubic mm.

Answer 75

A

Question 76

6. Which of the following cell types has the main function of carrying oxygen? a. Leukocyte b. Thrombocyte c. Platelet d. Erythrocyte

Answer 76

D

Question 77

7. Leukocytes and platelets make up about this percent of the blood volume. a. 10% b. 4% c. 1%. d. 15%

Answer 77

C

Question 78

8. Under the microscope, erythrocytes appear as: a. biconcave disks without nuclei. b. circular disks with centrally located nuclei. c. circular disks with several nuclei. d. Oval disks with multilobed nuclei.

Answer 78

A

Question 79

9. Erythropoiesis is the formation of: a. platelets. b. red blood cells. c. white blood cells. d. all of the above.

Answer 79

B

Question 80

10. Many types of blood cells are produced in the: a. liver. b. Red bone marrow. c. spleen. d. pancreas.

Answer 80

B

Question 81

11. In the formation of blood cells, the megakaryocyte ultimately forms: a. lymphocytes. b. platelets. c. monocytes. d. both A and B.

Answer 81

B

Question 82

12. In each red blood cell, there are about this many molecules of hemoglobin. a. 200 to 300 b. 2000 to 3000 c. 200,000 to 300,000 d. 2,000,000 to 3,000,000

Answer 82

D

Question 83

13. Which of the following is not a leukocyte? a. Basophil b. Reticulocyte c. Neutrophil d. Monocyte

Answer 83

B

Question 84

14. Red blood cells carry: a. oxygen. b. carbon dioxide. c. electrolytes. d. both A and B.

Answer 84

D

Question 85

15. The blood cell with the shortest life span is the: a. red blood cell. b. eosinophil. c. neutrophil. d. T lymphocyte.

Answer 85

C

Question 86

16. Heme is broken down into this substance, which is excreted in bile. a. Amino acids b. Iron c. Bilirubin d. Hematocrit

Answer 86

C

Question 87

17. Which of the following cell types are classified as agranulocytes? a. Neutrophils and monocytes b. Basophils and lymphocytes c. Neutrophils and basophils d. Lymphocytes and monocytes

Answer 87

D

Question 88

18. Which of the following types of white blood cells is thought to play a role in the prevention of clotting? a. Eosinophils b. Monocytes c. Basophils d. Neutrophils

Answer 88

C

Question 89

19. Which blood cell has the longest life span? a. Neutrophils b. Thrombocytes c. Eosinophils d. Erythrocyte

Answer 89

A

Question 90

20. Which type of white blood cell plays a major role in immunity? a. Monocytes b. Eosinophils c. Lymphocytes d. Basophils

Answer 90

C

Question 91

21. This is considered an anticoagulant. a. Pletal b. Ticlid c. Coumadin d. Both A and B.

Answer 91

C

Question 92

22. Thrombocytes are used for: a. blood clotting. b. body defense. c. transport of glucose. d. transport of oxygen.

Answer 92

A

Question 93

23. Which of the following Rh-factor combinations could cause agglutination of an infant’s red blood cells? a. Mother–, father+, infant+ b. Mother–, father+, infant– c. Mother+, father–, infant+ d. Mother+, father+, infant–

Answer 93

A

Question 94

24. People with type AB blood are considered universal recipients because their blood: a. does not contain the Rh antigen. b. does not contain either anti-A or anti-B antibodies. c. is absent of both antigen A and antigen B in the red blood cells. d. is both B and C.

Answer 94

B

Question 95

25. The type of plasma protein that constitutes more than half of the total amount is: a. globulin. b. fibrinogen. c. albumin.

Answer 95

C

Question 96

26. Calcium is used in the clotting process during: a. the formation of thrombin. b. the formation of prothrombin. c. the formation of plasminogen. d. the formation of fibrinogen.

Answer 96

C

Question 97

27. In clot formation, prothrombin is converted to: a. fibrin. b. fibrinogen. c. thrombin. d. thromboplastin.

Answer 97

C

Question 98

28. In the formation of a clot, the insoluble network of fine threads in which the cellular elements of blood are trapped is called: a. fibrinogen. b. fibrin. c. thrombin. d. thromboplastin.

Answer 98

B

Question 99

29. Which of the following is an anticoagulant? a. Calcium ions b. Vitamin K c. Thromboplastin d. Heparin

Answer 99

D

Question 100

30. An example of an antiplatelet drug would be: a. pletal. b. tidlid. c. coumadin. d. both A and B.

Answer 100

D

Question 101

31. This substance dissolves blood clots. a. Streptokinase b. Phosphodiesterase c. Plasmin d. Vitamin K

Answer 101

C

Question 102

32. The element in hemoglobin that allows oxygen to be transported is: a. sodium. b. zinc. c. iron. d. copper.

Answer 102

C

Question 103

33. A decrease in red blood cell numbers can result in: a. polycythemia. b. anemia. c. toxemia. d. leukemia.

Answer 103

B

Question 104

34. In a tube of centrifuged blood, the order of substances from top to bottom would be: a. plasma, red blood cells, buffy coat. b. buffy coat, red blood cells, plasma. c. plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells. d. red blood cells, buffy coat, plasma.

Answer 104

C

Question 105

35. Which of the following is not true of hemoglobin? a. It carries oxygen in the blood. b. It carries carbon dioxide in the blood. c. It is composed of four heme molecules joined to one globin molecule. d. All of the above are true of hemoglobin.

Answer 105

C

Question 106

36. A person with only antibody B in his or her plasma would have which blood type? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type AB d. Type O

Answer 106

A

Question 107

37. Which of the following does not hasten clotting? a. Rough spot in the endothelium b. Abnormally slow blood flow c. Heparin

Answer 107

C

Question 108

38. The function of blood is to: a. carry food to the cells. b. remove waste from the cells. c. assist the body in temperature regulation. d. All of the above.

Answer 108

D

Question 109

39. A hematocrit value of 42% would be: a. the average for a man. b. the average for a woman. c. below average for a man. d. below average for a woman.

Answer 109

B

Question 110

40. What part of the hemoglobin molecule combines with carbon dioxide? a. Globin b. Heme c. Iron atoms d. Hemoglobin does not combine with carbon dioxide.

Answer 110

A

Question 111

41. Which is not an end product of the breakdown of hemoglobin? a. Amino acids b. Bilirubin c. Free oxygen d. Iron

Answer 111

C

Question 112

42. Which of the following substances is not secreted by platelets? a. ADP b. Thromboxanes c. Arachidonic acid d. All of the above are secreted by platelets.

Answer 112

A

Question 113

43. Which characteristic of blood makes it especially effective in temperature regulation? a. Low specific heat capacity b. High specific heat capacity c. High evaporative potential d. Both A and C.

Answer 113

B

Question 114

44. If you give a “unit” of blood in a blood drive and you are an average-sized adult, you have given about what percent of your blood? a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 15%

Answer 114

C

Question 115

45. Which is not a formed element of the blood? a. Albumin b. Platelets c. Erythrocytes d. Neither A nor B are formed elements of the blood.

Answer 115

A

Question 116

46. Which of the following is not true of white blood cells? a. More brightly colored than red blood cells b. Larger than red blood cells c. Contain a nucleus d. All of the above are true of white blood cells.

Answer 116

A

Question 117

47. Some white blood cells are capable of diapedesis; this means they can: a. “eat” bacteria or damaged cells. b. migrate out of blood vessels into tissue spaces. c. engage in protein synthesis because they have a nucleus. d. change from one type of white blood cell to another.

Answer 117

B

Question 118

48. Which white blood cell helps protect against parasitic worms? a. Eosinophil b. Neutrophil c. Basophil d. Monocyte

Answer 118

A

Question 119

49. Which white blood cell contains granules filled with histamine? a. Eosinophil b. Neutrophil c. Basophil d. Monocyte

Answer 119

C

Question 120

50. A person with no antibodies in the blood plasma would have which blood type? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type AB d. Type O

Answer 120

C

Question 121

51. A person with no antigens on the red blood cell would have which blood type? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type AB d. Type O

Answer 121

D

Question 122

52. A person with an antigen on the red blood cell and a different antibody in the plasma would have which blood type? a. Type A b. Type AB c. Type O d. Both A and B.

Answer 122

A

Question 123

53. What substance involved in the process of blood clot formation is not made by the liver? a. Fibrinogen b. Prothrombin c. Vitamin K d. All of the above are made by the liver.

Answer 123

C

Question 124

54. What substance does not assist in the formation of a blood clot? a. Fibrinogen b. Plasmin c. Vitamin K d. All of the above assist in the formation of a clot.

Answer 124

B

Question 125

55. After Martha’s baby was born, why did the physician apply a gauze dressing for a short time on the umbilical cord and give the baby a dose of vitamin K? a. Newborn infants do not have any platelets for the first 3 months and will bleed freely unless actions are taken to prevent bleeding. b. Newborn infants often show elevated platelet counts at birth, and both of the actions taken by the physician will help the umbilical cord stop bleeding. c. The physician knew that the baby would need vitamin K to replace the red blood cells lost during delivery. d. Newborn infants often have a reduced number of platelets, which are needed to clot blood, and both of the actions taken by the physician would help the umbilical cord stop bleeding.

Answer 125

D

Question 126

6. ___ General name for leukocytes containing large cytoplasmic granules that stain

Answer 126

Granulocytes

Question 127

7. ___ Granulocytes that phagocytize microorganisms for cellular defense; most numerous leukocyte

Answer 127

Neutrophils

Question 128

8. ___ Granulocytes that release heparin (to prevent clotting) and histamine (important in inflammatory response)

Answer 128

Basophils

Question 129

9. ___ Granulocytes that protect against infections caused by parasitic worms

Answer 129

Eosinophils

Question 130

10. ___ Agranulocytes involved in immunity; produce antibodies

Answer 130

f. Lymphocytes

Question 131

11. ___ Largest of the leukocytes, with a kidney bean–shaped nucleus and are highly phagocytic

Answer 131

h. Monocytes

Question 132

12. ___ Small, colorless bodies that function in blood clotting and hemostasis

Answer 132

j. Platelets

Question 133

13. ___ Cells from which platelets are produced

Answer 133

g. Megakaryocytes

Question 134

14. ___ General term for leukocytes without cytoplasmic granules

Answer 134

a. Agranulocytes

Question 135

15. ___ General term for the group of nucleated cells that lack hemoglobin; also called white blood cells.

Answer 135

e. Leukocytes

Question 136

16. ___ Called the universal donor; has no antigens on the red blood cell

Answer 136

Type O

Question 137

17. ___ Has the A antigen and the Rh antigen and the B antibody

Answer 137

Type A+

Question 138

18. ___ Called the universal recipient; has both A and B antigens and no antibodies

Answer 138

Type AB

Question 139

19. ___ Has the B antigens and A antibodies

Answer 139

Type B

Question 140

20. ___ Has the A antigen only and has the B antibody

Answer 140

Type A–

Question 141

___ The soluble protein that is acted on to form the insoluble protein that actually forms the clot

Answer 141

Fibrinogen

Question 142

___ Substance that combines with calcium to convert fibrinogen to fibrin

Answer 142

Thrombin

Question 143

23. ___ Element that is necessary in two steps of the clotting process

Answer 143

Calcium

Question 144

24. ___ Begins the extrinsic pathway to blood clot formation

Answer 144

Tissue factor

Question 145

25. ___ Substance needed by the liver to make prothrombin

Answer 145

Vitamin K

Question 146

26. ___ Substance that hydrolyzes fibrin strands and dissolves blood clots

Answer 146

Plasminogen

Question 147

27. ___ Substance that converts prothrombin to thrombin

Answer 147

Prothrombin activator

Question 148

28. ___ Insoluble protein that forms fine threads in the blood needed to make a clot

Answer 148

Fibrin

Question 149

29. ___ Protein that is made by the liver and acted on to become thrombin

Answer 149

Prothrombin

Question 150

30. ___ The process of red blood cell formation

Question 151

31. ___ A serious hemolytic condition caused by Rh incompatibility between mother and offspring

Answer 151

Erythroblastosis fetalis

Question 152

32. ___ The migration of white blood cells out of the blood vessels and into the tissue spaces

Answer 152

Diapedesis

Question 153

33. ___ The glycoprotein hormone that stimulates the formation of red blood cells

Answer 153

Erythropoietin

Question 154

34. ___ Immature red blood cells that are released into circulating blood

Answer 154

Reticulocytes

Question 155

35. ___ Platelets develop from these large cells

Answer 155

Megakaryocytes

Question 156

36. ___ Another name for red bone marrow

Answer 156

Myeloid tissue

Question 157

37. ___ Term that refers to the stoppage of blood flow from an injured vessel

Answer 157

Hemostasis

Question 158

38. ___ The nucleated stem cell from which red blood cells develop

Answer 158

Hematocytoblast

Question 159

Blood plasma and interstitial fluid are both components of the extracellular fluid. a.) True b.) False

Answer 159

true

Question 160

Which of the following is not true of blood in its transporting role? a.) carries nutrients to cells from the gastrointestinal tract b.) carries oxygen from the cells to the lungs c.) transports hormones from glands to other parts of the body d.) carries waste products for elimination e.) all of these choices are true

Answer 160

b

Question 161

Which statement about blood is not true? a.) blood plasma is an extracellular matrix b.) about 10% of the formed elements are red blood cells c.) blood plasma is over 90% water d.) most of the proteins found in blood are made in the liver e.) 55% of the blood is made up of blood plasma

Answer 161

B

Question 162

A hemopoietic growth factor: a.) is a hormone that regulates bone growth b.) stimulates absorption of nutrients in the small intestine c.) is a hormone that aids in proliferation of progenitor cells d.) are lymphoid cells used in the immune system's defense mode e.) are precursor cells

Answer 162

C

Question 163

The substance that stimulates formation of platelets is: a.) thrombopoietin b.) immunoglobulins c.) antibodies d.) erythropoietin e.) cytoskines

Answer 163

A

Question 164

Which statement does not describe a component of the RBC life cycle? a.) ruptured RBCs are removed by macrophages in the spleen and liver b.) heme is ultimately converted to bilirubin which ends up in the liver c.) the transporter of iron in the blood is transferrin d.) urobilinogen is eliminated in the feces in the form of stercobilin e.) biliverdin is the protein that stores iron

Answer 164

E

Question 165

Which of the following statements is true? a.) a reticulocyte has a multilobed nucleus b.) erythropoiesis is the production of white blood cells c.) hypoxia increases the secretion of erythropoietin by the kidneys d.) normally, erythropoiesis outpaces the production of red blood cell destruction e.) loss of the nucleus causes swelling of an erythrocyte

Answer 165

C

Question 166

Which of the following is not a factor in destroying attacking pathogens? a.) chemotaxis b.) the release of lysozymes c.) erythropoiesis d.) emigration e.) phagocytosis

Answer 166

C

Question 167

A differential white blood cell count would not be appropriate to: a.) determine the effects of chemotherapy b.) aid in diagnosing a parasitic infection c.) differentiating high-density lipoprotein (HDL) from low-density lipoprotein (LDL) d.) check for poisoning by drugs e.) determine changes during the therapy of leukemia

Answer 167

C

Question 168

Which are the most numerous white blood cells? a.) lymphocytes b.) neutrophils c.) monocytes d.) eosinophils e.) basophils

Answer 168

B

Question 169

Which of the following is not an example of hemostasis? a.) platelet plug formation b.) maintenance of the normal body temperature c.) applying a tourniquet d.) vascular spasm e.) blood clotting

Answer 169

B

Question 170

Which of the following is not involved in platelet plug formation? a.) platelets sticking to the walls of an injured vessel b.) vasoconstriction due to serotonin release c.) release of platelet-derived-growth-factor ((PDGF) d.) the release of ADH to make the platelets bind to each other e.) all the above occur in platelet plug formation

Answer 170

D

Question 171

The extrinsic pathway of blood clotting occurs much quicker than the intrinsic pathway. a.) True b.) False

Answer 171

A

Question 172

Which of the following is true in reference to a blood transfusion? 1. is the transfer of whole blood only 2. often used to treat anemia 3. agglutination is not a problem with mismatching blood types 4. transfusions directly into the red bone marrow a.) 1 only b.) 2 only c.) 3 only d.) 4 only e.) 2 and 4

Answer 172

E

Question 173

Which statement is false? a.) type AB persons are called universal donors b.) type B persons are compatible with blood types B and O c.) type O person can only receive type O blood d.) type AB persons can receive blood types A, B, AB, and O e.) all of these choices are true

Answer 173

A

Question 174

Hemolytic disease of the newborn usually does not affect the first-born child because the Rh- mother has not had a chance to build up anti-Rh antibodies to the newborn's Rh+ blood. a.) True b.) False

Answer 174

TRUE

Question 175

Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood? a.) transportation of gases, nutrients, and wastes b.) regulation of body pH c.) secretion of acids d.) protection against disease e.) aid in maintaining fluid homeostasis in cells

Answer 175

C

Question 176

Most of the plasma proteins are synthesized in the a.) liver. b.) spleen. c.) bone marrow d.) kidneys. e.) white blood cells

Answer 176

A

Question 177

The myeloid stem cell gives rise to a.) monocytes and macrophages. b.) megakaryocytes and platelets. c.) red blood cells. d.) granulocytes. e.) All of these choices

Answer 177

E

Question 178

Increased numbers of _________ may occur in allergic reactions, parasitic infections, and some autoimmune diseases. a.) neutrophils b.) eosinophils c.) basophils d.) monocytes e.) lymphocytes

Answer 178

B

Question 179

Which of the following does NOT contain a nucleus while in the peripheral blood? 1. erythrocytes 2. thrombocytes 3. megakaryocytes a.) 1 only b.) 2 only c.) 3 only d.) 1 and 2 are correct e.) 1, 2, and 3 are correct

Answer 179

D

Question 180

Vascular spasm, the first mechanism activated to decrease blood loss, is caused by 1. damage to smooth muscle. 2. substances released by activated platelets. 3. reflexes initiated by pain receptors. a.) 1 only b.) 2 only c.) 3 only d.) 1 and 2 are correct e.) 1, 2, and 3 are correct

Answer 180

E

Question 181

Which correctly lists the sequence of events in blood clot formation? a.) formation of prothrombinase; activation of Factor X; formation of thrombin; formation of fibrin; clot retraction b.) activation of Factor X; formation of prothrombinase; formation of thrombin; formation of fibrin; clot retraction c.) activation of Factor X; formation of thrombin; formation of prothrombinase; formation of fibrin; clot retraction d.) activation of Factor X; formation of fibrin; formation of thrombin; formation of prothrombinase; clot retraction e.) formation of prothrombinase; formation of thrombin; formation of fibrin; activation of Factor X; clot retraction

Answer 181

B

Question 182

Which does NOT help to control hemostasis? a.) absorption of thrombin by fibrin in the clot. b.) dispersal of clotting factors by blood flow. c.) inhibition of platelet adhesion and release by prostacyclin. d.) production of prothrombinase by both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways e.) availability of antithrombin and activated protein C.

Answer 182

D

Question 183

After testing your blood in the lab, you found that your red cells agglutinated with both anti-A and anti-B antisera. This means that you a.) have A and B antigens on your RBC. b.) have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in your plasma. c.) are AB positive. d.) have A and B antigens on your RBC and have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in your plasma are both correct. e.) have A and B antigens on your RBC, have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in your plasma, and are AB positive are all correct.

Answer 183

A

Question 184

An ABO mismatched blood transfusion can cause acute renal failure because the a.) antibodies in the transfusion damage the cells in the kidney. b.) antigens in the transfusion damage the cells in the kidney. c.) agglutinated red cells get stuck in the capillaries of the kidneys. d.) hemoglobin released from lysed RBC clogs the filtration membrane of the kidneys. e.) None of these choices are correct.

Answer 184

D

Question 185

If your blood type is O negative and you have never been exposed to Rh-positive blood, you will have in your plasma antibodies to A, B, and Rh antigens. a.) True b.) False

Answer 185

FALSE

Question 186

A woman who is Rh negative and a man who is Rh positive had a child who was Rh negative. This means that the next child born to this couple will be at a high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the newborn. a.) True b.) False

Answer 186

FALSE

Question 187

Which is NOT a function of plasma proteins? a.) they play an essential role in blood clotting b.) they help the immune system attack viruses and bacteria c.) they transport iron, lipids and fat soluble vitamins d.) they maintain water balance between the blood and tissues e.) All of these choices are functions of plasma proteins

Answer 187

W

Question 188

Blood plasma and interstitial fluid are both components of the extracellular fluid. True or false?

Answer 188

TRUE

Question 189

One of the following is not a formed element found in blood. A) lymphocyte B) red blood cell C) platelet D) white blood cell E) all the above are formed elements

Answer 189

E

Question 190

Which of the following statements is false? A)hematocrit is the ratio of red blood cells found in the blood B polycythemia is indicated if the hematocrit is exceptionally high C) RBCs, WBCs, and platelets are whole cells found in blood D) a monocyte is a type of white blood cell E) anemia may be present if there is an abnormally low number of RBCs

Answer 190

C

Question 191

A hemopoietic growth factor: A) is a hormone that regulates bone growth B) stimulates the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine C) is a hormone that aids in the proliferation of progenitor cells D) are lymphoid cells used in the immune system's defence mode E) are precursor cells

Answer 191

C

Question 192

The substance that stimulates formation of platelets is: A) thrombopoietin B) immunoglobulins C) antibodies D) erythropoietin E) cytokines

Answer 192

A

Question 193

Which of the following statements is true? A) a reticulocyte has a multilobed nucleus B) erythropoiesis is the production of white blood cells C) hypoxia increases the secretion of erythropoietin by the kidneys D) normally, erythropoiesis outpaces the production of red blood cell destruction E) loss of the nucleus causes swelling of an erythrocyte

Answer 193

C

Question 194

Name the first substance that is incorporated into the new clot. A) plasmin B) plasminogen C) fibrinolysin D) heparin E) prostacyclin

Answer 194

B

Question 195

A thrombus is: A) a narrowing of the lumen of a vessel B) an air bubble traveling in the bloodstream C) a substance that dissolves blood clots D) a collection of platelets and other cells on the endothelial surface E) a medicine used to treat heart attacks

Answer 195

D

Question 196

Inappropriate use of erythropoietin by athletes may cause cardiac and vascular abnormalities as a result of increased blood viscosity. A) True B) False

Answer 196

TRUE

Question 197

A thrombus is: A) a narrowing of the lumen of a vessel B) an air bubble travelling in the bloodstream C) a substance that dissolves blood clots D) a collection of platelets and other cells on the endothelial surface E) a medicine used to treat heart attacks

Answer 197

D

Question 198

Thrombosis refers to clotting in a blood vessel that has not been broken. A) True B)False

Answer 198

TRUE

Question 199

Blood is classified as a liquid A) epithelial tissue B) endothelium C) connective tissue D) epithelial tissue and endothelium are both correct E) endothelium and connective tissue are correct

Answer 199

C