MCQ Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves Flashcards
Connective tissue wrapping around fascicles in a nerve.
Dermatome
Quadriplegia
Meningitis
Perineurium
Perineurium
An abnormal sensation such as burning, pricking, tickling, or tingling resulting from a disorder of a sensory nerve.
Anterior root
Brachial plexus
Muscle tone
Paresthesia
Paresthesia
Inflammation and pain along the sciatic nerve; felt along the posterior aspect of the thigh extending down the inside of the leg.
Sciatica
Paresthesia
Epineurium
Reflex
Sciatica
Fast response to a change (stimulus) in the internal or external environment that attempts to restore homeostasis.
Nerve block
Reflex
Central canal
Pia mater
Reflex
A network formed by the anterior rami branches of spinal nerves L4 through S3.
Sacral plexus
Lumbar plexus
Spinal shock
Myelitis
Sacral plexus
A network formed by nerve axons from the anterior rami of the first four cervical nerves and receiving gray communicating rami from the superior cervical ganglion.
Dura mater
Hemiplegia
Nerve block
Cervical plexus
Cervical plexus
Paralysis of four limbs: two upper and two lower.
Quadriplegia
Sacral plexus
Neuritis
Tendon reflex
Quadriplegia
A polysynaptic, ipsilateral reflex that protects tendons and their associated muscles from damage that might be brought about by excessive tension. The receptors involved are called tendon organs.
Reflex arc
Cervical plexus
Central canal
Tendon reflex
Tendon reflex
A network of nerves, veins, or lymphatic vessels.
Muscle tone
Paresthesia
Plexus
Reflex
Plexus
Loss of sensation in a region due to injection of a local anesthetic; an example is local dental anesthesia.
Sciatica
Nerve block
Pia mater
Meninges
Nerve block
The innermost of the three meninges (coverings) of the brain and spinal cord.
Reflex
Sciatica
Tendon reflex
Pia mater
Pia mater
The cutaneous area developed from one embryonic spinal cord segment and receiving most of its sensory innervation from one spinal nerve. An instrument for incising the skin or cutting thin transplants of skin.
Anterior root
Hemiplegia
Dermatome
Neuralgia
Dermatome
Inflammation of one or several nerves that may result from irritation to the nerve produced by direct blows, bone fractures, contusions, or penetrating injuries. Additional causes include infections, vitamin deficiency (usually thiamine), and poisons such as carbon monoxide, carbon tetrachloride, heavy metals, and some drugs.
Neuritis
Epineurium
Reflex
Sciatica
Neuritis
The most basic conduction pathway through the nervous system, connecting a receptor and an effector and consisting of a receptor, a sensory neuron, an integrating center in the central nervous system, a motor neuron, and an effector.
Sacral plexus
Brachial plexus
Perineurium
Reflex arc
Reflex arc
The structure composed of axons of motor (efferent) neurons that emerges from the anterior aspect of the spinal cord and extends laterally to join a posterior root, forming a spinal nerve.
Lumbar plexus
Meninges
Cervical plexus
Anterior root
Anterior root
A tail-like array of roots of spinal nerves at the inferior end of the spinal cord.
Sacral plexus
Perineurium
Cauda equina
Sciatica
Cauda equina
Paralysis of the upper limb, trunk, and lower limb on one side of the body.
Reflex arc
Hemiplegia
Nerve block
Epidural block
Hemiplegia
The tapered portion of the spinal cord inferior to the lumbar enlargement.
Conus medullaris
Nerve
Dermatome
Lumbar plexus
Conus medullaris
The outermost of the three meninges (coverings) of the brain and spinal cord.
Myelitis
Dura mater
Sacral plexus
Nerve block
Dura mater
The superficial connective tissue covering around an entire nerve.
Perineurium
Sacral plexus
Cervical plexus
Epineurium
Epineurium
Inflammation of the spinal cord.
Myelitis
Muscle tone
Plexus
Stimulus
Myelitis
Non-nervous fibrous tissue of the spinal cord that extends inferiorly from the conus medullaris to the coccyx.
Stimulus
Dermatome
Filum terminale
Myelitis
Filum terminale
A period from several days to several weeks following transection of the spinal cord that is characterized by the abolition of all reflex activity.
Sacral plexus
Spinal shock
Quadriplegia
Epineurium
Spinal shock
A network of nerve axons of the anterior rami of spinal nerves C5, C6, C7, C8, and T1. The nerves that emerge from the brachial plexus supply the upper limb.
Anterior root
Quadriplegia
Cauda equina
Brachial plexus
Brachial plexus
Paralysis of both lower limbs.
Reflex
Cauda equina
Dermatome
Paraplegia
Paraplegia
Attacks of pain along the entire course or a branch of a sensory nerve.
Muscle tone
Lumbar plexus
Neuritis
Neuralgia
Neuralgia
Inflammation of the meninges due to an infection, usually caused by a bacterium or virus. Symptoms include fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting, confusion, lethargy, and drowsiness.
Cauda equina
Reflex
Meningitis
Dura mater
Meningitis
Injection of an anesthetic drug into the epidural space, the space between the dura mater and the vertebral column, in order to cause a temporary loss of sensation. Such injections in the lower lumbar region are used to control pain during childbirth.
Neuralgia
Meninges
Epidural block
Cervical plexus
Epidural block
A network formed by the anterior branches of spinal nerves L1 through L4.
Perineurium
Sciatica
Lumbar plexus
Nerve block
Lumbar plexus
A circular channel running longitudinally in the center of an osteon (haversian system) of mature compact bone, containing blood and lymphatic vessels and nerves.
Plexus
Hemiplegia
Central canal
Epineurium
Central canal
Connective tissue wrapping around individual nerve cell axons.
Endoneurium
Perineurium
Paresthesia
Quadriplegia
Endoneurium
1) Which spinal meninges is composed of collagen fibres arranged in an irregular pattern that is very strong?
a) Arachnoid mater
b) Dura mater
c) Epineurium
d) Pia mater
B
2) Which structure listed contains cerebrospinal fluid?
a) epidural space
b) subarachnoid space
c) subdural space
d) foramen magnum
e) posterior median sulcus
B
4) The nerves that supply the thigh and calf of the leg emerge from the
a) lumbar enlargement
b) filum terminale
c) cauda equina
d) conus medullaris
e) cervical enlargement
A
5) If these structures were severed, the nerve impulses from pain and stretch receptors would not reach the CNS.
a) white columns
b) gray horns
c) anterior root of spinal nerves
d) posterior root of spinal nerves
e) rami communicantes
D
6) Which layer of protective connective tissue covers a nerve and fuses with the outer menix
layer?
a) dura mater
b) pia mater
c) endoneurium
d) perineurium
e) epineurium
E
7) What parts of a neuron within a nerve is/are wrapped in a protective endoneurium?
1. Myelinated axon
2. Unmyelinated axon
3. Dendrites
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 and 2
e) 1, 2 and 3
D
8) Spinal nerves
1. Are part of the PNS.
2. connect the CNS to sensory receptors and effectors in all parts of the body.
3. are named according to the region of the vertebral column from which they emerge.
4. are mixed nerves.
5. only transmit sensory information.
6. only transmit motor information.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 6
d) 1 and 3
e) 1, 2, 3, 4
B
9) Intercostal nerves can be described by what statements below? Select all that apply
a) are also known as thoracic nerves
b) do not enter into a plexus
c) extend through the sacrum
d) are formed from the posterior rami
e) directly connect to the structures they supply
f) are important in controlling the diaphragm
A
B
E
10) In the 400 meter relay, runners handoff the baton to the person in front of them. The second
runner in the relay team had to be replaced . They were unable to pronate their forearm to reach
behind for the baton because of injury to their brachial plexus. What is the most likely site of
their injury?
a) Dorsal scapular nerve
b) Intercostal nerve
c) Phrenic nerve
d) Median nerve
e) Radial nerve
D
11) Which region of the spinal cord allows a dancer to be aware of their movements and body
position?
a) Posterior white column
b) Anterior gray horn
c) Anterior white column
d) Lateral white column
e) Gray commissure
A
12) Sensory information travels to the brain via
a) Ascending tracts
b) Descending tracts
c) Integration tracts
d) Anterior roots
e) Direct motor pathways
A
13) Which type of descending motor pathway conveys nerve impulses that originate in the
cerebral cortex and allows you to use your fingers for sewing and sign language?
a) vestibulospinal tract
b) corticospinal tract
c) reticulospinal tract
d) spinothalamic tract
e) gracile fasciculus
B
14) Which type of descending motor pathway excites antigravity muscles in order to exert
control over postural changes necessary to compensate for tilts and movements of the body.?
a) vestibulospinal tract
b) corticospinal tract
c) corticobulbar tract
d) spinothalamic tract
e) gracile fasciculus
A
15) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors the rectus femoris muscle stretching?
a) Sensory receptor
b) Integrating center
c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Interneuron
A
16) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc can be monosynaptic or polysynaptic?
a) Sensory receptor
b) Sensory neuron
c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Integrating center
E
17) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would be represented by the contraction of the
gastrocnemius muscle or the radial iris muscles?
a) Sensory receptor
b) Sensory neuron
c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Integrating center
D
18) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would involve the posterior root ganglion?
a) Integrating center
b) Sensory neuron
c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Interneuron
B
19) A nerve impulse initiated at a muscle spindle has to travel through which of the following
structures to enter the integrating center?
a) Anterior root of spinal nerve
b) Posterior root of spinal nerve
c) Tectospinal tract
d) Gray commissure
e) Lateral reticulospinal tract
B
20) In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that
causes
1. contraction of the effector’s muscle.
2. relaxation of the antagonist’s muscle.
3. contraction of the antagonist’s muscle.
4. relaxation of the effector’s muscle.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 4 only
e) 1 and 2
f) 1 and 3
g) 2 and 4
E
21) In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal
reflex that causes
1. contraction of the effector muscle.
2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle.
3. contraction of the antagonist muscle.
4. relaxation of the effector muscle.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 4 only
e) 3 and 4
f) 1 and 2
E
22) Excitation of the quadriceps femoris group and inhibition of the hamstring group is termed
_______ innervation.
a) antagonist-effector
b) ipsilateral
c) crossed-extensor
d) reciprocal
e) Intersegmental
D
23) Which are functions of the spinal reflexes that use muscle spindles and tendon organs as
sensors? Select all that apply.
a) Awareness of muscle tension in body
b) Prevention of damage to muscles
c) Awareness of muscle length
d) Prevention of damage to tendons
e) Maintenance of muscle tone
f) Maintenance of balance
g) Avoidance of moving away from a painful stimulus
A,B,C,D,E
24) A typical spinal nerve has how many connections to the spinal cord?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
B
25) Which branch of a spinal nerve serves the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of
the trunk?
a) Meningeal branch
b) Rami communicantes
c) Intercostal nerve
d) Posterior ramus
e) Anterior ramus
D
26) A child was in a diving accident. When brought into the emergency room, the doctor used
sharp and blunt objects to determine if there was any sensation on the bottom of the foot and the
lateral aspect of their palm. The child stated they could not feel the stimulus in either area. What
nerves were most likely damaged?
a) L3 and C8.
b) L5 and C6
c) S2 and T1
d) C7 and L4
e) S1 and C6
E
27) In this diagram, where is the space that contains a buoyant liquid to form a hydraulic cushion that absorbs shock?
a) E
b) F
c) G
d) H
e) I
A
28) In this diagram, where is the space that contains interstitial fluid?
a) E
b) F
c) G
d) H
e) I
B
29) In this diagram, where is the avascular structure located between the subdural and subarachnoid space?
a) E
b) F
c) G
d) H
e) I
D
30) In this diagram, where is the structure that adheres to the spinal cord and brain?
a) E
b) F
c) G
d) H
e) I
C
31) In this diagram, which layer is the thickest protective covering?
a) E
b) F
c) G
d) H
e) I
E
32) Which of the labelled structures contains both sensory and motor axons? Select all that apply.
a) D
b) B
c) C
d) G
e) H
D & E
33) Which of the labelled structures allows doctors to safely introduce antibiotics or anesthetics and measure CSF pressure?
a)A
b) E
c) D
d)A
e) H
A
34) Which of the labeled structures would receive injections to cause loss of sensation to control pain in childbirth?
a) B
b) C
c) F
d) G
e) H
C
35) Which of the labelled structures is composed of squamous to cuboidal cells and is very vascular?
a) D
b) E
c) F
d) G
e) H
B
36) If you had a rash on the anterior surface of your trunk, what labelled structure would serve the muscles and skin of that area?
a) B
b) C
c) G
d) H
e) F
D
37) On what labelled structure would a ganglion be found?
a) B
b) C
c) E
d) F
e) G
B
38) In this diagram, where would the axons of unipolar neurons be located?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
B
39) In this diagram, where are tracts located? Select all that apply.
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
f) H
g) I
A & C & G
40) In this diagram which area is continuous with the 4th ventricle of the brain?
a)A
b) B
c) G
d) J
e) I
C
41) In this diagram, where would somatic motor nuclei be located?
a) B
b) C
c) E
d) F
e) H
E
42) In this diagram, where would the medial reticulospinal tract be located?
a) B
b) C
c) H
d) I
e) F
D
43) In this diagram which portion of the spinal cord contains cell bodies and axons of interneurons as well as incoming axons of sensory neurons?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) H
e) I
B
44) In this diagram which portion of the spinal cord contains cell bodies that regulate cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) F
e) H
D
49) Which plexus arises from the structure labelled B in the diagram?
a) cervical plexus
b) brachial plexus
c) thoracic nerves
d) lumbar plexus
e) sacral plexus
B
50) Which of the following structures travels from the area labelled D in the diagram?
a) obturator nerve
b) phrenic nerve
c) long thoracic nerve
d) thoracodorsal nerve
e) lesser occipital nerve
A
51) In the diagram, which structure contains nerve roots that arise from the lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal regions of the spinal cord?
a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
e) G
E
52) In this diagram, respiratory distress can occur if damage occurs to which group of spinal nerves?
a)A
b) C
c) E
d) F
e) H
A
53) A gymnast has damaged their hip flexor muscles. The nerve that innervates these muscles arise from which group of spinal nerves in this diagram?
a) A
b) C
c) F
d) H
e) I
C
54) In this diagram which structure is the conus medullaris?
a) E
b) F
c) G
d) H
e) I
A
55) Christopher Reeve, a famous actor and competitive equestrian, suffered fractures to the top two vertebrae and could not breathe without the help of a respirator. Which of the nerves in this diagram were likely damaged?
a)A
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) G
A
56) Which of the nerves in this diagram would be involved with ‘flexing’ the chest wall to bring the ribs together?
a)A
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) G
C
57) Which of the nerves in this diagram innervates muscles that extend the toes and, if damaged, results in foot drop (plantar flexion)?
a)A
b) C
c) F
d) E
e) G
C
58) Which nerve innervates the muscle that abducts the arm at the shoulder and the skin overlying the deltoid?
a) phrenic nerve
b) axillary nerve
c) intercostal nerve
d) ulnar nerve
e) common fibular nerve
B
59) Inability to abduct or adduct fingers or loss of sensation in the pinky finger would occur from damage to the [___].
brachial plexus
cervical plexus
coccygeal plexus
lumbar plexus
sacral plexus
brachial plexus
60) The ___nerve would be involved with a dancer performing pointe (standing on their toes).
Select all that apply
a) femoral nerve
b) obturator nerve
c) tibial nerve
d) common fibular nerve
e) intercostal nerve
B
C
61) Which of the nerves in this diagram only have anterior and posterior rami branches and do not form plexuses?
a)A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) G
C
62) The largest nerve in the lumbar plexus is the [___].
common fibular
femoral nerve
obturator nerve
sciatic nerve
tibial nerve
femoral nerve
63) An individual with shingles presents with pain and lesions in the mouth, ears, and pharynx. Which dermatomal region would be sending the afferent signals?
a) C2
b) C3
c) C1
d) trigeminal
e) facial
D
64) An individual suffers a stroke and looses control over their left arm. The individual is affected with__________paralysis.
a) diplegia
b) monoplegia
c) paraplegia
d) hemiplegia
e) quadriplegia
B
66) The spinal cord ends
a) between L1 and L2
b) at T12
c) at S5
d) at L5
e) between T9 and T10
A
67) The area of the skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via one pair of spinal nerves is called
a) a dermatome.
b) a microtome.
c) perineurium.
d) a fascicle.
e) an epitome.
A
69) A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Thigh
e) Arms
D
70) Why is a spinal tap performed below L2 of the spinal cord?
a) The spinal cord is present ensuring there will be a subarachnoid space present.
b) The spinal meninges and spinal cord are not present, ensuring no damage to the nervous system.
c) The spinal meninges and spaces extend passed the proper spinal cord, allowing fluid to be withdrawn with a minimal risk of damage to the spinal cord.
d) There is more space between the vertebrae in a flexed position below L2.
e) The supracristal line is the only way to determine placement of the needle in spinal taps.
C
71) Which of the following spinal nerves does not travel through an intervertebral foramen to reach its destination?
a) cervical spinal nerve 1
b) thoracic spinal nerve 12
c) lumbar spinal nerve 2
d) sacral spinal nerve 1
e) cervical spinal nerve 7
A
73) Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons, fascicles, and entire nerve in the correct order?
a) endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium
b) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium
c) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium
d) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium
A
74) Which statements describe dermatomes? Select all that apply.
a) Can be used clinically to determine area of spinal cord damage
b) Complete anesthesia of a single dermatome often requires blocking three adjacent spinal nerves
c) Indicate which muscles are innervated by each spinal
d) The dermatome serving the face is supplied by the trigeminal cranial nerve
e) Are used to check for motor function
f) nerve Dermatomes are designated based on the cranial or spinal nerve that serves that area of the skin
Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: d Answer 4: f
75) Which statements describe the spinothalamic tract? Select all that apply
a) Begins in the spinal cord
b) Terminates in the thalamus
c) Found in the gray matter of the spinal cord
d) Carries motor information down the cord
e) Carries information for pain, temperature and tickle
Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: e
76) Place the reflex arc components in order from detecting a stimulus to response.
1. motor neuron
2. effector
3. sensory neuron
4. integration center
5. sensory receptor
a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
c) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
d) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
e) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
D
77) In reciprocal innervation of the tendon reflex, stimulation of afferent fibres causes
a) inhibition of the effector’s muscles
b) inhibition of antagonist’s muscles
c) excitation of the effector’s muscles
d) excitation of antagonist’s muscles
e) excitation of muscles on the contralateral side
D
78) When an individual sits for a period of time, their leg may ‘fall asleep’. This sensation is usually a result of [___] nerve compression.
Dropdown choices:
ilioinguinal
femoral
medial
obturator
sciatic
sciatic
79) In an episiotomy, a surgical cut at the opening of the vagina, during childbirth, anesthetization to the [___] nerve may occur.
Answer options
femoral
obturator
perforating cutaneous
pudendal
sciatic
pudendal
82) A pupillary reflex is integrated in the brain stem so it is classified as a ________reflex. The smooth muscle of the iris is the effector, so this is classified as a(n) ___________.
a) Spinal; somatic
b) Spinal; autonomic
c) Cranial; somatic
d) Cranial; autonomic
e) Spinal; visceral
D
83) A patient is being examined for muscle weakness. To assess their condition, the doctor tests their knee-jerk reflex by tapping the patella tendon with a reflex hammer and tapping his lower jaw with your finger. Both pathways are considered monosynaptic. What do they have in common?
a) They are both autonomic, cranial reflexes
b) They both a two neuron pathway, sensory to motor
c) They are both somatic, autonomic reflexes
d) The sensory neurons exit the same segment of the spinal cord.
B
84) When the quadriceps muscle extends the lower leg in the patella reflex, what is occurring in the motor neuron to produce an action potential?
a) Influx of sodium and efflux of potassium
b) Influx of sodium and efflux of calcium
c) Influx of potassium and efflux of sodium
d) Influx of both sodium and potassium
e) Efflux of both sodium and potassium
A
85) A patient who has loss of pin prick sensation starting at the level of the nipple and downward on the right side would have a lesion in the spinal cord at which level?
a) C7-C8
b) T4-T5
c) T6-T7
d) T10-T12
e) S1-S2
C
