MCQ Flashcards

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1
Q

A mRNA is sequenced and found to be 1000 bp long excluding the cap and poly(A) tail. It encodes a 300 amino acid protein. Therefore it can be deduced that:
A)The total length of introns in the mRNA is 100 bp.
B)The total length of the introns in the mRNA is 700 bp.
C)The total length of the 5´ and 3´ untranslated regions (UTRs) in the mRNA is 100 bp.
D)The total length of the 5´ and 3´ untranslated regions (UTRs) in the mRNA is 700 bp.

A

C

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2
Q
During transcription the DNA sequence 5′-TTTCACGGTCTA-3′ can act as template for synthesis of which mRNA sequence?
A)5′-AAAGUGCCAGAU-3′
B)5′-AUCUGGCACUUU-3′
C)5′-UUUCACGGUCUA-3′
D)5′-UAGACCGUGAAA-3′
A

D

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3
Q

Within gene sequences, introns can occur in …
A) the 5′ untranslated region (UTR), and the 3′ UTR
B) the 5′ UTR, the coding region, and the 3′ UTR
C) the coding region
D) the promoter, the 5′ UTR, the coding region, and the 3′ UTR

A

B

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4
Q

Which of the following are ribonucleoproteins?

1) nucleosome
2) replisome
3) ribosome
4) spliceosome

Select one:
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1, 2 and 4
A

C

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5
Q

During translation of mRNA…

A) both start and stop codons are translated into amino acids in the final protein
B) neither start nor stop codons are translated into amino acids in the final protein
C) the start codon but not the stop codon is translated into an amino acid in the final protein
D) the stop codon but not the start codon is translated into an amino acid in the final protein

A

C

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6
Q
If AUG = Met = start codon
UUG = Leu
AAC = Asn
AGC = Ser
GAG = Glu
UAA = Stop
CCC = Pro
Then a mRNA sequence:
[5´cap]-CCC UUG AUG GAG AGC CCC UAA UUG AAC-[poly(A)-tail]- 3´
...in most eukaryotes will code for peptide(s)
Select one:
A) Met-Glu-Ser-Pro
B) Pro-Leu-Leu-Asn
C) Pro-Leu-Met-Glu-Ser-Pro
D) Pro-Leu-Met-Glu-Ser-Pro-Leu-Asn
A

A

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7
Q

In 1958 Meselson and Stahl showed that …

Select one:
A) DNA has a double helix structure.
B) DNA is the genetic material.
C) DNA replication is semi-conservative.
D) Three bases code for one amino acid.
A

C

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8
Q

On Venus life has an RNA genetic material with six possible bases. Venusian RNA codes for proteins which contain 25 types of amino acid. What is the minimum number of bases in a codon?

Select one:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A

B

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9
Q

Scientists use the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to …

Select one:
A) amplify DNA in vitro
B) transcribe DNA in vivo
C) transcribe DNA in vitro
D) translate RNA in vivo
A

A

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10
Q

During gel electrophoresis DNA molecules migrate to the other end of the gel because

Select one:
A) DNA diffuses at a rate dependent on its size and conformation
B) DNA is attracted to UV light
C) DNA is double stranded
D) DNA is negatively charged
A

D

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11
Q

A gene is cut at one end by a restriction enzyme which leaves a 5´GATC- overhang. What should be the complementary overhang for your plasmid?

Select one:
A) 3´CTAG-
B) 5´CTAG-
C) 3´GATC-
D) 5´GATC
A

D

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12
Q
Histones can be modified by:
1 acetylation
2 methylation
3 phosphorylation
4 ubiquitylation
Select one:
A) 1 and 2
B) 1, 3 and 4
C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D) 2 and 3
A

C

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13
Q
RNA:
1 can carry genetic information.
2 can catalyse biochemical reactions.
3 is more stable than DNA.
4 can chemically bond with amino acids.
Select one:
A) 1 and 2
B) 1, 3 and 4
C) 1, 2 and 4
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A

C

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14
Q

What does a pyrimidine deoxyribonucleotide contain?

A
  • Pyrimidine (single-ring) base
  • Deoxyribose sugar (no hydroxyl group on the 2’ carbon atom)
  • Nucleotide (contains phosphate groups)
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15
Q

If a species contains 23 % adenine in its DNA, what is the percentage of guanine it would contain?

Select one:
A) 23 %
B) 27%
C) 46%
D) 54%
A

B (From the base-pairing rules, A = T and C = G. So A + T = 23 x 2 = 46 %. Therefore G + C = 54 % and G = 54/2 = 27 %.)

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16
Q

DNA was first discovered by:

Select one:
A) Friedrich Miescher 
B) Gregor Mendel
C) James Watson and Francis Crick
D) Rosalind Franklin
A

A

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17
Q

A circular bacterial chromosome contains 2 Mb DNA. How long would DNA replication take if replisome speed is 1 kb s-1?

Select one:
A) 500 s
B) 1000 s
C) 2000 s
D) 4000 s
A

B (DNA replication is bidirectional from the origin of replication so the total rate of replication is 2 x 1 kb s^-1. The whole chromosome will therefore be replicated in 2 x 10^6 b / 2 x 10^3 b s-1 = 10^3 s.)

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18
Q

In humans, DNA replication occurs in the

1) mitochondria
2) nucleus
3) ribosomes
4) rough endoplasmic reticulum

Select one:
A) 1 and 2
B) 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 and 4
A

A (DNA is present in both the nucleus and mitochondria of human cells, so these are the sites of DNA replication. In plants, DNA replication would also take place in chloroplasts.)

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19
Q

Consider this double-stranded DNA fragment, which is part of a much larger chromosome:

5′–ATTCGTACGATCGACTGACTGACAGTC–3′
3′–TAAGCATGCTAGCTGACTGACTGTCAG–5′

If this DNA fragment is replicated in a left-to-right direction (i.e. the direction of travel of the replisome is left-to-right), which of the following sequences could be part of an Okazaki fragment?

Select one:
A) 5′-ATTCGTACGATCGACTGACTGACAGTC-3′
B) 5′-TAAGCATGCTAGCTGACTGACTGTCAG-3′
C) 5′-GACTGTCAGTCAGTCGATCGTACGAAT-3′
D) 5′-CTGACAGTCAGTCAGCTAGCATGCTTA-3′
A

C (If DNA replication is left-to-right then the bottom strand will act as a template for 5′-to-3′ left-to-right synthesis (i.e. the leading strand). Okazaki fragments are synthesised on the lagging strand so will be complementary to the top DNA strand. The sequence 5′-GACTGTCAGTCAGTCGATCGTACGAAT-3′ is complementary to the top strand (remember that base paired nucleic acids are antiparallel), so this could be part of an Okazaki fragment.)

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20
Q

The restriction endonuclease SexAI cuts DNA at the sequence ACCWGGT (where W is A or T). If it is used to digest a 5 megabase bacterial genome, approximately how many fragments will be formed?

Select one:
A) 18
B) 600
C) 1800
D) 190000
A

B (The restriction endonuclease SexA1 from the bacterium Streptomyces exfoliatus cuts at the sequence ACCWGGT where W is A or T. Therefore on average it will cut DNA of random base composition once in every 4x4x4x2x4x4x4 bp = once in every 8192 bp. Therefore it will cut a 5 megabase DNA 5,000,000/8192 = 610.35 or approximately 600 times.)

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21
Q

Non-disjunction during meiosis II will result in which of the following gametes?

Select one:
A) all monosomic gametes.
B) all trisomic gametes
two gametes with an extra
C) chromosome copy, and two gametes missing a copy of one of the chromosomes
D) two haploid gametes, one gamete with an extra chromosome copy, and one gamete missing a copy of one of the chromosomes

A

D

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22
Q

In an F2 generation, how many genotypic classes are possible from a dihybrid cross of two heterozygotes in which the genes involved show complete dominance?

Select one:
A) 4
B) 8
C) 9
D) 12
A

C

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23
Q

A student is studying the genetics of flower colour in a large population of outcrossing plants. She finds that there are blue, red and purple flowered plants. She takes plants of each colour into the greenhouse and self-fertilises them. She finds that the blue and red plants produce only blue and red plants respectively, but the purple plants produce red, blue and purple offspring. If she crossed purple plants to red plants, what offspring would you expect her to obtain and in what ratios?

Select one:
A) 1 red : 1 purple
B) 1 red : 2 purple : 1 blue
C) All purple
D) All red
A

A

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24
Q

In tobacco, there are two independent genes governing seedling colour. Only the genotype aabb is white, all others being green. What is the expected ratio of green: white seedlings in a cross between Aabb x AaBb?

Select one:
A) 3:1
B) 7:1
C) 9:1
D) 15:1
A

B

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25
Q

Sickle cell anaemia is a recessive trait in humans. In a cross between a father who has sickle cell anaemia and mother who is heterozygous for the gene, what is the probability that their first three children will be normal?

Select one:
A) zero
B) 1/8
C) 1/4
D) 1/2
A

B

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26
Q

In rats two independently inherited pairs of alleles Aa and Rr interact as follows:
A_R_ grey aaR_ black
A_rr yellow aarr cream

A true breeding grey female is crossed to a cream male. A grey female from the F1 is crossed to a second cream male. What phenotypic ratios are expected from this cross?

Select one:
A) 1:1:1:1 grey:yellow:black:cream
B) 9:3:3:1 grey:yellow:black:cream
C) 100% grey
D) 50% grey and 50% cream
A

A

27
Q

Genes that are linked

Select one:
A) are always on the X chromosome
B) are on nonhomologous chromosomes
C) do not assort independently during meiosis
D) segregate to opposite poles during meiosis

A

B

28
Q

Cinnabar eyes (cn) and reduced bristles (rd) are autosomal recessive characters in Drosophila. When a cn+cn rd+rd individual is mated with a cn cn rd rd individual you find that the phenotypic ratio of the offspring is: wild-type 480; cinnabar eyes 20; reduced bristles 20; cinnabar eyes and reduced bristles 480. Based on these data, what is the distance between the genes?

Select one:
A) 2 map units
B) 4 map units
C) 20 map units
D) 40 map units
A

B

29
Q

A three-point testcross was conducted involving genes F, G, and H. If the most abundant classes in the F2 are fGH and Fgh and the rarest classes are fgh and FGH, which gene is in the middle?

Select one:
A) F
B) G
C) H
H) Only two of the genes are linked.
A

A

30
Q

If parts of two chromosome arms become exchanged, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called

Select one:
A) a deletion
B) a duplication
C) an inversion
D) a translocation
A

D

31
Q

Non-disjunction during meiosis II will result in which of the following gametes?

Select one:
A) all trisomic gametes
B) two diploid gametes and two gametes missing a copy of one of the chromosomes
C) two trisomic gametes and two monosomic gametes
D) two haploid gametes, one gamete with an extra chromosome, and one gamete missing a copy of one of the chromosomes

A

D

32
Q

Haemophilia is an X-linked genetic disease that has plagued the royal houses of Europe since the time of England’s Queen Victoria, who was a carrier. Her granddaughter Alexandra married Nicholas II, the last tsar of Imperial Russia. Alexandra was a carrier of the gene for haemophilia; Nicholas was normal. Their son, Tsarevich Alexis, was afflicted with the disease. Alexis and his four sisters are all thought to have been killed at the outbreak of the Revolution of 1917. It is likely that

Select one:
A) All four sisters were fully normal with regard to haemophilia.
B) Some of the sisters may have been a carrier of haemophilia.
C) All of the sisters were carriers of haemophilia.
D) One or more of the sisters may have had haemophilia

A

B

33
Q

The alleles for eye colour and body colour are on the X chromosome of Drosophila, but not on the Y. Red eye colour (w+) is dominant to white eye colour (w) and tan body colour (y+) is dominant to yellow body colour (y). What offspring would you expect from a true breeding yellow-bodied, red-eyed female and a tan-bodied, white-eyed male?

Select one:
A) The daughters would be tan-bodied, red-eyed; the sons would be yellow-bodied, red-eyed.
B) The daughters would be tan-bodied, red-eyed; the sons would be yellow-bodied, white-eyed.
C) The daughters would be yellow-bodied, red-eyed; the sons would be tan-bodied, red-eyed.
D) The daughters would be yellow-bodied, red-eyed; the sons would be tan-bodied, white-eyed.

A

A

34
Q

Forward genetics seeks to identify

Select one:
A) genes that are responsible for a phenotype of interest
B) genes that complement one another
C) genes that drive the expression of other genes
D) genes that show linkage to other genes

A

A

35
Q

Which of the following is NOT a genetic model organism?

Select one:
A) Danio rerio
B) Drosophila melanogaster
C) Homo sapiens
D) Mus musculus
A

C

36
Q

Lee Hartwell pioneered genetic analysis of the cell cycle. He used the model organism Saccharomyces cerevisiae (budding yeast). To identify cdc (cell division cycle) mutants in this yeast he screened temperature-sensitive mutants for those that exhibited which of the following phenotypes at the non-permissive (restrictive) temperature?

Select one:
A) The cells did not grow and became blocked at a point in the cell cycle.
B) The cells did not grow but continued to divide.
C) The cells grew and continued to divide.
D) The cells grew but became blocked at a point in the cell cycle

A

D

37
Q

Paralogous genes are

Select one:
A) genes of similar function but different sequence
B) genes of similar sequence in archaea, bacteria and eukaryotes
C) genes of similar sequence in different but closely related species
D) genes of similar sequence within a genome

A

D

38
Q

CRISPR/Cas is

Select one:
A) a component of the eukaryotic replisome
B) a histone modifying complex
C) a part of the eukaryotic RNA polymerase II basal transcription complex
D) a system used for targeted gene alteration

A

D

39
Q

Gene expression can be specifically reduced for a single gene in vivo without genomic change by the method of

Select one:
A)CRISPR/Cas
B) GFP tagging
C) High throughput screening using a large pool of barcoded yeast mutants
D) RNAi
A

D

40
Q

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is useful for genetic engineering because

Select one:
A) It produces a range of sequence-specific restriction endonucleases.
B) It can be used to introduce DNA into plants and some fungi.
C) It is a source of the CRISPR/Cas9 endonuclease for gene editing.
D) It is used as a host cell for large-scale production of therapeutic proteins such as insulin.

A

B

41
Q

A single recombination event between a circular DNA and a region of homology in a gene on a eukaryotic chromosome leads to

  1. gene deletion
  2. insertion into the gene
  3. integration of the circular DNA into the chromosome
  4. replacement of part of the chromosome with the circular DNA sequence
Select one:
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1, 3 and 4
A

B

42
Q

Expressivity of a genetic disorder can be described as

Select one:
A) The proportion of individuals carrying a gene that also express that trait.
B) The idea that the severity of a disease may vary between those carrying the disease gene
C) Occurring where the disease may not express itself till much later in life
D) Occurring when an individual has a functioning copy of a gene alongside a disease gene, but it is switched off, or silenced

A

B

43
Q

An example of a genetic disorder that demonstrates expressivity is

Select one:
A) Haemophilia
B) Huntington's disease
C) Achondroplasia
D) Marfan syndrome
A

D

44
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an example of what type of human disorder?

Select one:
A) Autosomal recessive
B) X-linked recessive
C) Autosomal dominant
D) X-linked dominant
A

A

45
Q

Whilst walking on Dartmoor Dr Griffiths discovered a new population of Pikachu Pokemon! Some individuals were yellow, but others were white. He analysed the gene for colour in the laboratory and found the allele for yellow (Y) was dominant to the white (y) allele. On genotyping individuals from this population he counted 50 YY, 100 Yy and 50 yy Pikachu. What is the frequency of the y allele in this population?

Select one:
A. 0.25
B. 0.35
C. 0.5
D. 0.75
A

c

46
Q

Which of these statements about quantitative traits is generally NOT true

Select one:
A. Controlled by lots of genes
B. Unaffected by the environment
C. Tend to demonstrate a bell-curve
D. Height is a good example of a quantitative trait
A

B

47
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types/classes of polygenic trait commonly identified

Select one:
A. Meristic
B. Threshold
C. Ordinal
D. Metric
A

C

48
Q

Within populations the genetic variance (i.e. the proportion of phenotypic variance due to genetic factors) can be partitioned to include VI. What does this notation represent?

Select one:
A. epigenetic interactions
B. dominance interactions
C. additive effects
D. epistatic interactions
A

D

49
Q

Which of the following processes could NOT be described as driving evolution i.e. a change in the frequency of alleles in a population?

Select one:
A. Non-random mating
B. Natural selection
C. Genetic drift
D. Gene-flow
A

A

50
Q

One of the key figures in developing the theory of population genetics and the modern synthesis is

Select one:
A. Theodosius Dobzhansky
B. Bill Hamilton
C. Richard Dawkins
D. Bernard Kettlewell
A

A

51
Q

Which of these is a mechanism for post-zygotic isolation, through which the process of speciation may be reinforced?

Select one:
A. Behavioural choices
B. Hybrid sterility
C. Temporal isolation
D. Mechanical incompatibility
A

B

52
Q

What is the mechanism Jean-Baptiste Lamarck developed to explain the way organisms become adapted to their environment?

Select one:
A. Exaptation
B. Punctuated equilibrium
C. Muller's ratchet
D. Inheritance of acquired characteristics.
A

D

53
Q

Approximately how many millions of years ago was the Cambrian explosion, a period of rapid evolutionary change when many modern animal groups emerged?

Select one:
A. 595
B. 575
C. 545
D. 505
A

C

54
Q

The theory that adaptation could proceed through occasional, major changes in developmental patterns is known as?

Select one:
A. Saltation
B. Gradualism
C. Macroevolution
D. Microevolution
A

A

55
Q

Adaptive radiation can be defined as

Select one:
A. The spread of new species of common ancestry into different niches, involving an excess of cladogenesis over extinction
B. The accumulation of deleterious mutations (which can be removed by sexual reproduction & recombination)
C. The process whereby organisms not closely related, independently evolve similar traits as a result of having to adapt to similar environments or ecological niches
D. The evolution of reciprocal adaptations of two or more species that have prolonged close interactions

A

A

56
Q

Which of the following is a good example convergent evolution?

Select one:
A. The dentition of wolves and African hunting dogs
B. The pouch of Australian kangaroos and koalas
C. The spines on many North American cacti species
D. The sharp ripping and tearing beaks of owls and hawks

A

D

57
Q

Which of these factors would NOT generally be associated with promoting adaptive radiations?

Select one:
A. Key evolutionary innovations
B. Efficient dispersal
C. Occupied niches
D. Ecological release
A

C

58
Q

Who published a famous paper in Nature in 1994 about adaptive radiation of bacteria in a heterogeneous environment?

Select one:
A. Rainey & Travisano
B. Punnett
C. Hardy & Weinberg
D. Kettlewell
A

A

59
Q

Within a population of butterflies, the colour brown (B) is dominant over the colour white (b), and 40 % of all butterflies are white. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, calculate the frequency of the dominant B allele in the population.

Select one:
A. 0.37
B. 0.47
C. 0.57
D. 0.67
A

A

60
Q

Use the information provided in question 15 to calculate the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype i.e. BB, in the same butterfly population.

Select one:
A. 0.04
B. 0.14
C. 0.24
D. 0.34
A

B

61
Q

Exaptation as defined by Gould and Vrba involves

Select one:
A. new uses for existing traits
B. evolution finding optimal solutions to biological problems
C. maladaptive changes
D. stabilising selection
A

A

62
Q

In the Hardy-Weinberg model, the ideal population is

Select one:
A. free of mutations
B. non-migrating
C. very large
D. all of the above
A

D

63
Q

What is the probability that a male will inherit an X-linked recessive allele from his father?

Select one:
A. 0
B. 0.25
C. 0.5
D. 0.75
A

A

64
Q

When graphing a distribution of phenotypes for a continuous trait, a broad curve implies

Select one:
A. a large correlation coefficient
B. a large variation in phenotypes
C. a small variance
D. zero regression line slope
A

B