Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Therio scs RUSVM > Male canine, puppies, and Cats > Flashcards

Male canine, puppies, and Cats Flashcards

1
Q

Which test is diagnostic for ovarian remnant syndrome?

A

AMH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is puppy vaginitis treated?

A

It’s not

(Scientific neglect)

Estrogen therapy causes bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should you test all puppies with enlarged or asymmetrical testes for?

A

Brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Brucella is attracted to ______ which is found in the ______ and the epididymis.

A

Erythritol

Placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which is more common with brucellosis, epididymitis or orchitis?

A

Epididymitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you diagnose brucellosis?

A

Culture

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of these is a positive RSAT for brucellosis?

A

2 = positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long after infection with brucella can the disease be detected?

A

12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you rule out a false positive after a postive RSAT test (2 ways)?

A

If routine (no CS): AGID

If CS: Blood/discharge culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which virus causes Fading Puppy Syndrome which cayses pain, crying and greenish stool?

A

Canine herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you rule out a false negative brucella test in a dog that is showing signs consistent with brucellosis?

A

Repeat test every month for 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is FALSE pertaining to brucella prevention?

a. Test all new additions six times before intoducing to a population
b. Test all breeding animals once to twice per year
c. Test females prior to breeding
d. AI can decrease male exposure.

A

a. Test all new additions six times before intoducing to a population

3 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A breeding dog has a unilaterally swollen epididymis with the normal testes. The test for brucella was negative. What do you recommend to the owner?

a. Retest in 1 month
b. Dog ok for breeding
c. Castrate immediately
d. Vaccinate dog

A

a. Retest in 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following about mycoplasma in dogs is FALSE?

a. It can be treated with doxycycline
b. It may be found as a normal inhabitant in the female reproductive tract
c. When cutluring for myocplasma, it is advised to also culture for Ureaplasma
d. Both mycoplasma and ureaplasma require a short course of high dose antibiotics to treat.

A

d. Both mycoplasma and ureaplasma require a short course of high dose antibiotics to treat.

Take long time to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which 3 locations in the female dog can you swab with a guarded swab to culture myoplsma in a specia growth media?

A

Cranial vagina

Cervix

Uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does canine herpes cause neonatal death?

A

Causes placentitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

At what age is exposure to herpes not considered a problem?

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

By which age should the testes be descended? After what age are the dogs considered cryptorchid?

A

16 weeks

6 months When inguinal canal closes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What blood tests can be used to diagnose cryptorchidism?

A

AMH If bilateral

Baseline testosterone 4 and 8 hrs post hCG Level should double if testes are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment of choice for testicular torsion?

A

Bilateral orchidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which tumor results in bitches attracting males as though they were in estrus?

A

TVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In a testicular torsion, how soon do autoantibodies against testicular tissue begin to form?

A

4 hours after onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the most common testicular tumor in dogs?

A

Sertoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A male dog presents with comodones, hyperpigmentation, a pendulous prepuce, testicular atrophy and alopecia. The owner also complains that other male dogs in the neighborhood keep mounting his dog. What condition do you suspect?

A

Hyperestrogenism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F: TVT can cause azoospermia in dogs.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is TVT usually treated?

A

Chemo (Vincristine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which testicular tumor causes atrophy of the opposite testis?

A

Sertoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following statements about TVT is TRUE?

a. The treatment of choice is radical excision.
b. Metastasis to the lungs is common.
c. TVT tissue has 59+/-5 chromosomes, which is less than the normal 78 chromosomes of a dog.
d. TVT is an epithelial cell tumor.

A

c. TVT tissue has 59+/-5 chromosomes, which is less than the normal 78 chromosomes of a dog.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What condition is present here?

A

Persistent frenulum

Normally regresses at puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F: A male pseudo-hermaphrodite has partially functional testicles or testicle.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is urethral prolapse treated?

A

Urethropexy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is usually the cause of priapism?

A

Neurological problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What condition results in the production of characteristic ribbon-like flat feces?

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following statements about benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is FALSE?

a. Nearly 100% of intact stud dogs over 10-12 years of age have BPH.
d. The condition can be assessed via digital rectal palpation.
c. The normal position of the prostate changes as the dog ages and the gland decreases in size.
d. A normal prostate is smooth, bilobed, symmetrical, and non-painful on palpation.

A

c. The normal position of the prostate changes as the dog ages and the gland decreases in size.

Increases in size

35
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial prostatitis?

36
Q

Which drug blocks the action of testosterone and/or dihydrotestosterone and can be used to treat BPH? What other drug has been used to treat prostatic hypertrophy?

A

5a-Reductase Inhibitor: Finasteride (Proscar(R))

DES (Diethylstilbestrol)

37
Q

A 9 year old dog is straining, and produces ribbon-like feces. The findings of 2 diagnostic procedures performed are shown in the picture. What is your diagnosis?

a. Cystitis
b. BPH
c. Bulbourethritis
d. Prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

b. BPH

Uniform cells and no inflammatory cells

38
Q

Which of the following regarding sexual behavior post-castration is FALSE?

a. Some dogs can still mount and tie-up more than 8 months after castration.
b. Some cats can not only mount but penetrate a female up to 5 years after castration.
c. Castration is the only way to modify sexual behavior.
d. Castrated dogs often display homosexual behaviors.

A

d. Castrated dogs often display homosexual behaviors.

39
Q

Which of the following describes the feline reprodutive cycle?

Seasonal long day breeder

Seaonal short day breeder

Induced ovulator

Spontaneous ovulator

Seasonally polyestrus

Annual monoestrus

A

Seasonal long day breeder

Induced ovulator

Seasonally polyestrus

40
Q

Which of these ranges describes the feline proestrus/estrus period?

a. 8-10 days
b. 40-45 days
c. 2-21 days
d. 60-72 days

A

c. 2-21 days

41
Q

Which of these ranges describes the feline anestrus period?

a. 30-90 days
b. 40-45 days
c. 2-21 days
d. 8-10 daysdays

A

a.30-90 days

42
Q

T/F: Performing a cytology can induce estrus in the cat.

43
Q

If a queen experiencing a false pregancy, how long is this diestrus period? How long is it if she is pregnant?

A

Not pregnant: 40-45 days

Pregnant: 60-72 days

44
Q

T/F: Queens and bitches have an ovarian bursa.

A

False, bitch has one but queen does not

45
Q

What 3 factors influence when a cat will go into puberty?

A

Age 4-12 months

Season

Body weight 2.3-2.5kg queen, 3.5kg tom

46
Q

If your goal as a breeder to maximize the number of a litters a queen has per year, when in the season should she be bred?

A

Late (October)

47
Q

When does post-estrus occur in a queen?

A

When no ovulation has occurred (queen not mated)

48
Q

Which hormone is the main hormone to measure for indicating where in the cycle the queen is?

49
Q

At which phase of the cycle will a queen show incresed activity, vocalization, and affection towards people but will not assume the breeding position? What hormone causes this behavior?

A

Proestrus

Estrogen

50
Q

How long is estrus in a queen?

51
Q

Which hormone is released from where when breeding of a queen takes place?

A

LH

Pituitary gland

52
Q

T/F: Queens only ovulate in response to a stimulus.

A

False, sponaneous ovulation can occur

53
Q

How long after mating does the queen ovulate?

54
Q

How long is pregnancy in cats?

55
Q

Which 3 diseases must be tested during the pre-breeding exam in cats?

A

FeLV

FIV

FIP

56
Q

Which test (not for a disease) is essential in queens but not bitches?

A

Blood typing

57
Q

Which of the following hormones can be measured at day 25 to diagnose pregnancy in a queen?

a. Relaxin
b. Progestone
c. Oxytocin
d. Prostaglandin

A

a. Relaxin

58
Q

At which day of prenancy can radiographs be used to detect pregnancy in a cat?

59
Q

When can US be used to diagnose pregancy in cats? When can the fetal heartbeat be detected?

A

14-15

20-25

60
Q

When should a queens ration be increased by 50% during pregnancy?

61
Q

Name 3 things that cause teratogenic effects in kittens?

A

Glucocorticoids

Griseofulvin

FPV

62
Q

Which virus causes abortion due to placental necrosis in cats?

63
Q

If a queen is infected with FIV prior to conception ___ kittens will be born with the virus.

a. 50%
b. 10%
c. 70%
d. 100%

64
Q

Which virus caues fetal or neonatal death in 80% of kittens with 20% of kittens carrying the infection into later life?

65
Q

Which virus is involved in the Kitten Mortality Complex?

66
Q

Which virus causes cerebellar hypoplasia in kitten who contracted the virus in utero?

A

FPV (panleuk)

67
Q

T/F: Queens and bitches have a measurable drop in rectal temperatue pre-partum.

A

False, bitches but not queens

68
Q

Which placental layer covers the fetus?

69
Q

What is the most common cause of dystocia in queens? How is it treated?

A

Primary uterine inertia

Oxytocin or c-section

70
Q

What common condition can a disinterest in kittens indicate?

71
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about mammary hypertrophy in queens?

a. Usually occurs in young queens
b. Occurs in pregnant and non-pregnant cats.
c. Can affect single or multiple glands
d. Occurs under the influence of placental P4.
e. Can become neoplastic.

A

d. Occurs under the influence of placental P4.

Luteal P4

72
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about mammary neoplasia in queens.

a. Early neutering eliminates the risk of tumor formation.
b. Most commonly malignant carcinomas, primarily adenocarcinomas
c. Metastasis is rare.
d. It is the most common tumor of the female cat.

A

b. Most commonly malignant carcinomas, primarily adenocarcinomas

Early neutering doesnt eliminate risk, metastasis common (LNs), 3rd most common tumor

73
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor for mammary neoplasia in cats?

A

Size

Best survivial if <2cm

74
Q

Which of the following IS NOT a cause of infertility in the queen?

a. Mammary hypertrophy
b. CEH/PYO complex
c. Ovarian cysts
d. FeLV

75
Q

What causes ovarian cysts?

A

High estrogen levels

76
Q

What will an AMH test result be in a cat with ovarian remnant syndrome?

77
Q

What is the most common cause of CEH/PYO in cats?

A
  • E.coli*
  • Ascending infection*
78
Q

What hormone causes the formation of spines on a tom’s penis?

A

Testosterone

79
Q

What are some causes of a lack of penile spines?

A

Early castration

Prepubertal

Intersex

Estrgen injected or producing tumor

Cryptorchid

80
Q

Counting the total number of cells in the bladder post-coitus and multiplying by 5 can be used to give an estimate of what?

A

Total number of cells in the ejaculate

Assumes at least 20% retroejaculation

81
Q

Which of these is the correct range for sperm motility in cats?

a. 50-70%
b. 40-80%
c. 30%
d. 20-40%

82
Q

Which of these is the correct range for morphologically normal spermatozoa in cats?

a. 50-70%
b. 40-80%
c. 30%
d. 20-40%

83
Q

What drug can be used for urethral semen collection in toms?

A

Medetomidine

Therio scs RUSVM (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions