Line Training Discussions Items

Question 1

When do you need a Take-off Alternate and what are the ‘rule distances’?

Answer 1

8.25.f - When it would not be possible to return to the departure airfield for met or performance reasons. An engine failure must be considered. ETOPS 120mins/800nm USA 60min/400nm.

Question 2

What are the destination alternate requirements in terms of number required and in what circumstances might you dispense with one?

Answer 2

8.25.g - BA policy to generally always have one. Two are required if the destination is below minima. Exceptionally you may dispense with a destination alternate provided the flight-time is less than 6hrs and the forecast weather +/-1HR of ETA is 5km/2000ft (or circling +500ft). If dispensing with a Destination Alternate then 15mins@1500ft fuel must be carried instead.

Question 3

When is a Fuel alternate (rather than commercial) acceptable?

Answer 3

8.25.g - When diversion considered unlikely.

Question 4

What are the planning time windows for weather?

Answer 4

8.2.5.l - ETA+/- 1 hr (except ETOPS en-route alternates the time window for assessing suitability of weather conditions commences at the earliest potential time of landing and ends one hour after the latest nominated time of use of that aerodrome.)

Question 5

How would you consider forecast conditions with respect to Probs and Tempos?

Answer 5

8.2.5.m:
• Prob 30/40 and TEMPO are only taken into account wrt DEST/ALT/ERA for persistent condx e.g. fog/haze/mist.
• Mean wind must be taken into account but gusts may be disregarded.
• ETOPS Alt - Gusts must be considered and any conditions which would be below landing minima.

Question 6

What are the planning minima for Take-off alternates and Destination? What about Destination Alternate/Isolated Destination/ERA?

Answer 6

8.2.5.0/p/q - Normal RVR. Cloud base must be considered if the only available approach would be a NPA. For Destination Alternate/Isolated Destination or ERA ‘one better’ applies e.g. Cat 2/3 > Cat1, CAT1 >NPA, NPA > RVR +1000m/200ft

Question 7

Fuel policy - what is the basic policy and five things you might consider to adjust your fuel load when faced with an unexpected change in fuel requirement?

Answer 7

8. 18.2 - Basic policy to fly max payload at minimum cost. If faced with a requirement for extra fuel consider;
   1) Any drop in ZFW
   2) reduction in contingency fuel (Note: The minimum contingency fuel to be carried must not be below 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft clean at Planned Landing Weight, even for the purpose of an LMC fuel reduction.)
   3) Dispense with/change of Div
   4) reduced taxi
   5) change to CI

Question 8

With respect to contingency fuel what are possible options?

Answer 8

8.18.10 - Choice of greater of;
i) SCF/5% Trip fuel/3% abm ERA/20mins trip fuel
OR
ii) 5 mins @1500ft at planned LWT

Question 9

What is the absolute minimum contingency fuel?

Answer 9

5 mins @ 1500ft at destination (approx 500kg).

Question 10

What is the approximate penalty for the carriage of extra fuel?

Answer 10

8.18.20 - 3% of wt of fuel per flying hour. So to carry an extra 10T for a 6 hour flight would burn 18% of that 10T - 1800KG

Question 11

When can you use contingency fuel?

Answer 11

8.18.10 - After dispatch.

Question 12

You identify a Fuel Shortfall in flight i.e a fuel check shows that the aircraft will arrive at Destination with less than Diversion + Reserve fuel. What might you consider and what are your options?

Answer 12

Action should be taken to reduce fuel consumption for the rest of the flight,

Review FMC levels (Flight below OPT is more efficient than flight above).
Update winds.
Reduce CI to zero (The cost index upon which the trip fuel is calculated is shown on the front page of the OFP. Also shown is the effect of using cost index zero. Or, if a plan has been produced using cost index zero, the increase in Trip Fuel to use normal fleet cost index will be shown.)

Choose a closer Destination Alternate (thereby reducing Diversion fuel).

No EAT/Delay not known:
1) ensure at anytime you can reach at least two aerodromes where a landing is assured with a minimum of Reserves.
OR
2) if within 6hrs of your destination and there are 2 separate runways and forecast for +/- 1hr is 2000ft (circling +500ft) and 5km you may reduce Reserves to 15mins.
OR
3) within 2 hrs of your position there is an aerodrome where 2 runways are available and you can land with Reserves taking into account any likely ATC delay

EAT Known
1) At anytime you may continue to destination regardless of number of runaways providing a landing is assured with at least Reserves taking any plausible failure into account.

Question 13

Approaching your destination you have committed to land there based on the weather and EAT/clearance you have received so no longer have the option to divert. You realise that fuel may be tight. How would you communicate this to ATC?

Answer 13

8.18.24 - Declare “Minimum Fuel”. This is NOT an emergency but indicates that any change to the existing clearance may result in a landing with less than Reserve Fuel. Consider a PAN if EAT deteriorates.

NB - The Commander shall declare a situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL, reporting fuel remaining in minutes when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned final reserve fuel.

Question 14

You realise that it has become impossible to land with Reserves intact at not only the destination but any alternative suitable aerodrome. What should you do?

Answer 14

8.18.24 - MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL. SPEED BIRD XYZ xxxmins remaining.

Question 15

What is the standard Taxi Fuel allowance for 777?

Answer 15

Load and Balance - 800kg

Question 16

What paperwork should you complete if you land with less than Reserves?

Answer 16

AML user guide pg 12 - ASR. Fuel APP will prompt you apparently.

Question 17

Engine Failure in CRZ. Actions?

Answer 17

ANC!!!

FMC > CRZ E/O select > set in MCP > execute and select VNAV if not already engaged > turn at last 45deg offset 5nm.

In OTS other traffic and mid-air collision possibly the highest threat to a/c so complete these actions before actioning any checklists.

Question 18

Your colleague becomes incapacitated for no apparent reason. Actions?

Answer 18

Don O2 mask. ANC/PPP!
Once control of a/c is assured > Alert Call
Then what? Help>heavy>cc>positioning crew>doctor>Medlink
PAN/MAYDAY
NUTA - How will this effect approach,landing,taxi,parking? Should you divert directly or try to land somewhere familiar? Consider options and form a plan before contacting ATC.

Question 19

Rapid Decompression. Immediate Actions?

Answer 19

O2>Crew Comms>Check Cabin rate EICAS pop-up>Controllable? (New guidance in Flt Ops (Oct 2019) Features says NOT to consider manually closing outflow valves as this may lead to the loss of protection of a negative pressure differential is )>Pax O2. Descend 15000ft or MSA whichever higher (or 10000ft if fuel not critical).

Question 20

How would you fly a rapid decompression profile?

Answer 20

Across MCP
ALT>wind down>Hdg turn>FLCH>TL’s>Speedbrake. Pause and check a/c is behaving as you would expect.
Refine with second scan to set correct alt/modify turn and offset/wind speed up?

Question 21

Following a decompression and level off what should you announce on the PA?

Answer 21

Refer to QRH. But either ‘keep masks on or Descent complete’. NB Do not summon SCCM till 15000’ or below!

Question 22

Following a Rapid Decompression what other things might you consider?

Answer 22

1) Escape Route 2) Smoke detectors in toilets may have triggered 3) Land at nearest suitable 4) Cabin crew will remain on O2 above 10000ft OMB 3.7.7 5) crew rest? 777-200 transfer to portable after 22mins. (FAM 11.40)

Question 23

What transponder code would you select following a comms failure?

Answer 23

7600

Question 24

What would you do and where would you find guidance on your actions following a comms failure?

Answer 24

LIDO > CRAR > specific country > two-way communications failure. Further information for the specific aerodrome can be found in AOI.

In UK once 7600 has been set, from that moment maintain speed/level for 7min then follow flight planned route. If following an SID continue to last waypoint then maintain level/MSA for remainder of that 7min then follow flight plan.

Question 25

What would you expect to happen in the event of a dual FMC failure?

Answer 25

EICAS 'FMC'. Line through LNAV/VNAV FMA's. AP should remain engaged but A/T may or may not be available. Select different pitch mode (ALT HOLD) and re-select LNAV.Route in FMC will remain but any new waypoints must be entered lat and long. Only the active waypoint is referenced to magnetic others are true. Nav aids may be tuned through ALT NAV RADIO.

Question 26

At what temp would you expect a FUEL TEMP LOW EICAS? Where does the EICAS get the FFP temp from? How would you consider dealing with it?

Answer 26

Once temp within 3deg of FFP as depicted on Perf Init page (just below Cost Index). Temp will generally only decrease to TAT. Guidance contained in QRH but essentially climb/descend (usually 3000-5000ft below optimum) to warmer air or increase Mach no. It takes approx 15-60mins for temp to stabilise.

Question 27

You receive a CARGO FIRE warning in flight. What triggers the warning? What other means might you consider to verify a fire and what other considerations come to mind?

Answer 27

The cargo fire detection system is based on smoke detection. • You have responded to a Fire Warning as a result of Smoke Detection. There are other means of diagnosis. • Observe the temperatures in the cargo compartments. • Ask the Cabin Crew if there is any signs of fire or smoke? If there are, there is likely to be panic in the cabin – consider isolating the flightdeck i.e. lock the door. • How quickly can you get on the ground; fuel dump or not? • Inform the fire services -­‐ through ATC -­‐ of the fire extinguisher (Halon) and any hazardous cargo (NOTOC). • Start the APU before landing to ensure power to the cargo doors; however do not allow doors to be opened until the passengers are well clear of the aircraft. • Make arrangements for the disembarkation of the pax immediately after ldg; either steps (doors to manual) or slides (doors auto, clear area around aircraft, Cabin Crew and Ground Personnel briefed). • NITS Briefing for Cabin Crew; Passengers briefed, this must involve the Captain; ATC and the emergency services totally in the loop.” Everyone must be singing from the same hymn-­‐sheet”. You’re dealing with a serious problem here. However don’t let it overwhelm you; REMEMBER TO FLY THE AEROPLANE.

Question 28

How many cargo fire bottles are there? How do they sequence when fired?

Answer 28

A total of five bottles. DISCHARGE (AIR) 1. 2 Bottles immediately total discharge 2. After time delay remaining 3 bottles discharge at reduced rate 3. If 1 bottle remains on ldg, is discharged at a reduced rate DISCHARGE (GROUND) 1. 2 Bottles immediate total discharge 2. After time delay, 1 bottle discharge at reduced rate

Question 29

Arming the cargo fire system also sequences other systems. Can you elaborate on 7 items?

Answer 29

Dual Loop system 195min protection. Pressing ARM 1. Arms all 5 fire extinguisher bottles 2. Arms selected compartment valve (FWD/AFT) 3. Packs > Min flow 4. Lower recirc fans OFF 5. Cargo heat off 6. Equipment Cooling Overide (Fwd) 7. The IFE system shuts down!

Question 30

The AT is u/s. What additives would you make to Vref?

Answer 30

• VREF ½ of the ATC headwind component plus the full gust value When making adjustments for winds, the maximum approach speed should not exceed VREF + 15 knots. • The minimum bug setting with autothrottles disengaged is VREF+ 5 kts.

Question 31

What are the holding speeds in ICAO and FAA airspace?

Answer 31

Refer to LIDO>CRAR or OMC>Area Briefing>USA. 0-6000ft @ 200kts 6000-14000ft @ 230kts Above 14000ft @ 265kts

Question 32

Descent below MSA night/day/IMC - elaborate.

Answer 32

Night - line of flight line of site TOWARD A LIT AREA GENERALLY THE RWY ITSELF AND CHECK OF DISTANCE. Day - clear of all obstacles. IMC -Avoid reliance on single Navaid if not under radar control. Cross-check ht vs distance.

Question 33

What are the stable approach criteria?

Answer 33

CPS. C- correct config (ie landing gear down landing flap set) P - correct profile (i.e. glideslope or NPA profile) S - correct speed. (i.e. ref plus additive). Exceptionally in turbulence, fluctuating wind conditions or if requested by ATC a 'Speed' call may be made at 1000ft but a/c MUST be stable at 500ft and a call of 'Stable' made.

Question 34

What might a sensible gates be at say 20nm and 10nm? Other gates?

Answer 34

20nm - 6000ft min clean 10nm - 3000ft 180kts/F5 Other gates might be gear shortly after Rad Alt (Position Check) and select land flap no later than 1700RA. Consider that when/if asked to maintain 180kts to 5 miles (flap 25 limit speed on a -200 is 185kts) and active use of speed brake will be required to slow aircraft and achieve landing flap to be stable at 1000ft. Even so a call of “speed” may be required.

Question 35

With respect to a Localiser back course what modes are available? How would you program it in the FMC?

Answer 35

DO NOT USE LOC! Use LNAV (if approach in FMC) or otherwise Hdg/Trk select. Insert the ILS freq and FRONT course into the NavRad.

Question 36

When must the AP be disconnected on an approach?

Answer 36

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below 200 feet AGL.

Question 37

What do you need to fly a non-ils database approach?

Answer 37

Essentially the approach must be in the FMC and the charts available (it must also be an approved approach i.e. not SAAAR/AR). SPD LNAV VNAV And the MDA set on MCP

Question 38

What are SAAAR/AR approaches? Can we fly them?

Answer 38

8.22.5.d Special Aircraft and Aircrew Authorisation. AR/SAAAR ILS are authorised EXCEPT Cat 1 ILS notated SAAAR/AR in the USA. SAAAR/AR RNAV ARE NOT AUTHORISED!!!

Question 39

Is there a minimum temperature with respect to a non-ILS database approach?

Answer 39

The lower the temp the more shallow will the gradient be. Generally the minimum temp will be published on the respective chart. 8.13.4.b If there is no published min temp use ISA -25 (so at sea level -10deg would be too low!). This does not mean the procedure cannot be used. LNAV is still perfectly acceptable and the FAF and MDA can be corrected using cold temp App but at present NOT IN FMC although the the FCTM suggests you can! The corrected vertical path must be flown in VS/FPA with the usual cross checks and ATC informed of any amended altitudes.

Question 40

If using the Cold Wx App to adjust IAP heights, can you enter these adjusted heights in the FMC? What heights would you adjust?

Answer 40

8.13.4.a At present it is forbidden to change constraints in the FMC. If the temp is below the charted minimum temperature you can use LNAV minima (and still use VNAV). If the temperature is ISA -25 then you would need to opt for LNAV and either VS or FPA. At minimum adjust the FAF and MDA for cold temp BUT NOT IN FMC. NB You must tell ATC if you wish to fly your 'corrected' levels and what that correction is. If you accept a clearance to fly at 3000ft then you must fly at that level on the QNH unadjusted for temp. Follow the flow chart guidance in OMA 8.23.4.i - Temperature Corrections on PBN Procedures

Question 41

Are you permitted to enter cold wx temp corrected heights into the FMC?

Answer 41

8.13.4.b NO - the FCTM section 5 'Use of VNAV' states "waypoints in the FMC from the FAF onward may not be modified EXCEPT TO ADD COLD TEMPERATURE CORRECTION". However, after much discussion it appears the contradiction is known about and the current answer is NO! You could modify waypoints prior but if it's too cold then the approach must be flown using VS/FPA and LNAV.

Question 42

How would you determine the MAP for non-ILS or GS u/s etc approach?

Answer 42

You might use timing but given the accuracy of the FMC FTM says it is perfectly acceptable to use MDA in conjunction with VNAV PATH or if VNAV PATH is not being used then the map in conjunction with distance is sufficient.

Question 43

What would be your actions if the a/c were not established on the correct vertical or lateral path at the FAF on a non-ils database approach?

Answer 43

Discontinue approach.

Question 44

On a non-ils database approach from the FAF what is the max allowable XTK and vertical error?

Answer 44

The only place I can find it written is for an AR approach in FCOM SP4. From the RNAV FAF the maximum allowable XTK error is 1x RNP for the approach and 75ft VTK. For -300 and those -200 with NPS scale, it will turn amber at 1xRNP. Ensure that the RNP value for the approach (generally 0.3) is correctly entered/selected in the FMC on PROG 4. In the event of a cross track error outside the limit - a NAV UNABLE RNP Advisory will display and the crew must carry out the QRH procedure i.e Go-Around/discontinue approach unless suitable visual references can be established and maintained.

Question 45

What is the maximum deviation vertically for non-ILS database?

Answer 45

The actual limits do not appears any longer to be written. FCTM states; For airplanes without NPS, the crew must refer to the FMC PROGRESS page for XTK and VTK information during the approach. If a deviation occurs, and the correction back to course is not immediate, then the PM should refer to the FMC PROGRESS page and notify the PF if the maximum allowable deviations are reached. Normally XTK/lateral deviation should not exceed 1.0 x RNP during RNP operations. (The default RNP value for an RNP APCH is 0.3 nm so max lateral deviation would be 0.3nm). For an RNP AR approach FCOM quotes a value of 75ft from the FAF. On a -300 and those a/c with the NPS, they start to flash and turn amber. Monitor PROG 2 divergence beyond 1/3rd scale that is not correcting then discontinue approach.

Question 46

When selecting a non-ils database procedure if there was no glide path present in the FMC legs page would you still be able to use VNAV?

Answer 46

See FCOM NP 'Approaches using VNAV' FCTM Section 5 - Yes, if the approach end of the runway is defined by RWxx (or MXxx for a MAP before the approach end). FCOM > Landing Procedure - Instrument Approach Using VNAV VNAV should be used only for approaches that have one of the following features: 1. a published GP angle on the LEGS page for the final approach segment 2. an RWxx waypoint at the approach end of the runway 3. a missed approach waypoint before the approach end of the runway (for example, MXxx) Usually these waypoints use a 50ft threshold crossing thus creating a suitable glidepath. FCTM suggests if the RWxx altitude does not coincide with 50ft it may be modified. However OMA 8.23.3 suggests otherwise! Generally it requires a 4 digit entry e.g Aerodrome elevation 30ft therefore 80ft entered as 0080

Question 47

When can you fly an ILS PRM approach?

Answer 47

To runways with 3000-4300ft separation down to CAT 1 mins.

Question 48

Where would you find information on the procedures to be followed to carry out an ILS PRM approach?

Answer 48

Often published in AOI notes for the airfield in question. Outline info also in OMB 2.33 and further in FCOM SP4.

Question 49

In regards to an ILS PRM/SOIA approach how would you fly a breakout manoeuvre?

Answer 49

Breakout Maneuver 1. HP disengage A/P 2. NHP turns off F/D 3. 'Gentle' Turn & Climb (Climb max 10°, descend maintain existing ROD) 4. Once established turn F/D back on. 5. Check FMA’s, re-engage A/P and reconfigure A/C. 5. A/T will still provide speed control 6. ATC descending maneuver only as last resort

Question 50

What would you do if you received a TCAS RA at the same time as being issued a breakout instruction?

Answer 50

Follow any turn as instructed by the breakout while obeying the TCAS vertical instructions.

Question 51

What is the difference between a SOIA and PRM approach?

Answer 51

Same principal - to allow simultaneous ops to closely separated runways. SOIA uses an LDA (localiser directional aid) to further reduce runway separation to 750-3000ft.

Question 52

Where would you find information on QFE operations on the 777?

Answer 52

FCOM SP 10.

Question 53

If required to operate to an aerodrome only referenced to QFE operations what should you do?

Answer 53

Refer to FCOM SP10 - QFE ops. Essentially if at all possible use derived QNH. Altitude corrections are displayed on LIDO charts. NOTE: always ADD the hpa correction to QFE. If it proves impossible to use derived procedure follow instructions in SP 10.

Question 54

What would you do if provided a pressure setting in mmhg?

Answer 54

Ask for it in hpa (mb). A conversion table is available in LIDO but essentially multiply by 1.33333 e.g 750mmhg x 1,3333 = 1000mb

Question 55

With respect to the LIDO SFC (en-route chart) what are the RFF of yellow and red airfields?

Answer 55

At least CAT 4.

Question 56

With respect to an aerodrome classified as red on the LIDO SFC how has the runway been assessed?

Answer 56

There is sufficient LDA for the a/c type at MLW on a wet runway with zero wind.

Question 57

What are RFF requirements?

Answer 57

777 RFF 9 Departure and Destination accept 1 below or 2 if tempo. All others 2 below or 3 if tempo but no lower than 4. ETOPS 4 @ 30mins notice.

Question 58

What if RFF cover available is below those required?

Answer 58

A commander may decide to land regardless of RFF if he considers it would be safer than to divert elsewhere or he considers the landing can be performed safely.

Question 59

Where would you find a Nil/Minor change of load Certificate and when might it be used?

Answer 59

Nil/Minor change of load certificates are withdrawn effective Feb 2022 OMB 2.27.4. Refer to Load and Balance manual section 3.1.4 and 3.2. Following a diversion contact CLC and use the V551 to pass the correct information to them. Manual Loadsheets may only be prepared by a licenced Load Controller.

Question 60

What is a CAT B aerodrome?

Answer 60

Posted in OMC 6.2 it is an aerodrome which requires 'qualification' prior to operation. The initial qualification is obtained by either a written brief and/or AV brief. Revalidation is achieved by operating to that aerodrome within 12 months or by complying with the revalidation requirements in OMC which generally speaking are the same requirements as the initial validation i.e. a written and/or AV brief. An aerodrome may be included for reasons of a. Non-­std appr aids and/or appr patterns; or b. Unusual local wx conditions; or c. Unusual characteristics or perf limitations d. Any other relevant considerations incl obstructions, physical layout, lighting etc.

Question 61

What is a CAT C Aerodrome?

Answer 61

OMC 6.1 Only 5 and none at present are 777 destinations. All presently require a visit (or sim equivalent).

Question 62

What is a CAT A aerodrome?

Answer 62

Although a briefing is not required many have briefs published with helpful information.

Question 63

What are SCATANA Rules?

Answer 63

No longer exist. Been replaced by ESCAT (Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic). OMA 10.10 - A set of rules which may be invoked by NOTAM anywhere or anytime in areas of military conflict. You must comply with ATC instructions. Further info in LIDO.

Question 64

What would be your initial actions (name x6) should you be intercepted and where might you find more info?

Answer 64

1. Follow instructions given by intercepting a/c (LIDO) 2. Be prepared for TCAS and consider switching to TA 3. Notify controlling ATSU 4. Attempt communications of 121.5 5. 7700 (emergency) 6. ADS - emergency.

Question 65

If a deviation or a diversion becomes necessary in Chinese airspace what considerations might be appropriate?

Answer 65

* ATC only have responsibility for aircraft within the 20km width of the airway. * Airspace outside of the airway is controlled by the military. * Crews requiring deviation for weather should only request vectors within the airway width. * Crews having to deviate outside the airway will be under military control and may be instructed to land at a nearby military airfield. * In such cases consideration of returning to airport of origin or diversion must be considered. * If necessary a PAN call should be made

Question 66

Can flight crew refuel an a/c? Is so where do you find guidance?

Answer 66

Yes OMB 2.8.5.a. However, no Ramp Servicing Manual is available so to get further guidance contact ops/engineering and ask them to email/fax over information.

Question 67

Can you refuel with a main engine running?

Answer 67

Exceptionally OMA 8.6.13.e implies you can. However, it also states you must follow fleet specific procedures - there are none for the 777. “The main aircraft engines should not be operated unless fleet-specific procedures are published.” Note: An aircraft should not be dispatched with an unserviceable APU, to an airport where the Ground Start Facilities are known to be unserviceable. In the event that an APU fails to start having arrived at an airport, where the Ground Start Facilities are unserviceable, an aircraft may be refuelled with an engine running. The fleet-specific procedures must be observed.

Question 68

You have diverted and your APU is u/s and no ground power is available. How are you going to start engines?

Answer 68

To start engines you need a source of electrical power so either APU GEN, A/C BATT (SP 7) or GPU AND a source of pneumatics so APU or Ground Cart. So if APU is u/s engines can still be started using a/c battery and a ground air source.

Question 69

What are the minimum crew for a -200/-300 and where would you find the information?

Answer 69

FAM 10 > Crew complement 8 for -200 ex Main Base is 'required level' for either 3 or 4 class config and 10 for a -300. OMA 4.1.4.c Exceptionally away from Main Base 8/9 respectively and this restricts maximum passenger numbers.

Question 70

Under what x3 circumstances MUST you NOT consider a derated take-off?

Answer 70

1. Runway slippery or contaminated. 2. MEL requires full power. 3. Windshear condx exist.

Question 71

When should you use Full Reverse?

Answer 71

1. Runway covered by standing water, slush, snow 2. VAT increased for a deficiency 3. Unserviceability of speed brakes, wheel brakes or anti-skid

Question 72

Where would you find details of the Remote Hold Procedure?

Answer 72

FCOM > SP RHP. Also QRH > Ops Info

Question 73

Where would you find info on ENG OUT TAXI IN?

Answer 73

QRH/ECL > OPS INFO > ENG OUT TAXI.

Question 74

What is the approximate burn of the APU?

Answer 74

Line Check Discussion Items > 250kghr.

Question 75

You have a technical issue in flight. When might it be appropriate to consult Maintrol and how might you act on any suggestions?

Answer 75

1. Fly the a/c 2. Make it safe 3. Keep it safe 4. Do what's best for BA Only once you have acted in accordance with QRH & T-DODAR should you consult with Maintrol. Unless a system is completely divorced from the airworthiness of the a/c should you consider implementing actions that are not in the QRH.

Question 76

What does 'Compliance with Issue xyz' mean?

Answer 76

A/c weights are withins +1000kgs/-5000kgs | MACTOW/MACZFW within +/- 2%

Question 77

What would you do if you receive "Revisions to Issue" message?

Answer 77

Re-enter performance data. Proviso being that if the only change is to MACTOW the pilot monitoring may amend the CG on the Take-off reference page and re-trim accordingly.

Question 78

Is a NOTOC required for every flight?

Answer 78

Not a legal requirement if there are no dangerous goods or special loads. However a Nil Notoc must still be provided. See Dangerous Good Manual 12.2

Question 79

Do you need a new NOTOC following a diversion?

Answer 79

No, provided the goods are not removed or re-positioned.

Question 80

What are Captain's recency requirements?

Answer 80

1 to/ldg (a/c or sim) in preceding 35 days. Can be alleviated to 45 days.

Question 81

What are a commander's legal obligations?

Answer 81

1. Duty of Care - common law 2. CAA Licence - licence/statutory 3. BA - contractural.

Question 82

Due to the -300 buffet/min manoeuvre margin 'anomaly' (see MLA) passing 20,200ft, most particularly at high weights,what is the suggested speed to reference to in turbulence to avoid a speed excursion into the lower "yellow" band?

Answer 82

Refer to FMC MAX ANGLE speed and add min 15kts.

Question 83

With respect to ETOPS alternates and fuel planning what are the minimum requirements considered?

Answer 83

Sufficient fuel is loaded to permit a descent if necessary and diversion (incl adjustments for wind and icing) to aerodrome then hold for 15mins @ 1500ft followed by an approach and landing. Note: I believe that the diversion is calculated at 15000ft so if you descended to 10000ft following a depressurisation you may either compromise fuel or not have sufficient!

Question 84

A fuel check at an ETOPS Critical Point reveals a figure below the planned minimum. Is this acceptable and what actions might you take?

Answer 84

OMA 8.21.9 - In adverse conditions when Contingency has been burnt this may occur. However, given the low probability of a decompression exactly at critical point together with the wind and icing factors built in, it should always be possible to reach alternate albeit with reduced holding fuel.

Question 85

What is the approx max recommended N1 during taxi ops?

Answer 85

Approx 30% N1 in Terminal Areas. OMD Appendix 5.

Question 86

Departing an aerodrome, to what point has MSA been assessed?

Answer 86

To the end of the SID. All SID are assessed and if they do not conform to the performance criteria an ETP (emergency turn procedure) will be published or CARD will stipulate that the SID must not be used. Crew must ensure they are at MSA prior to continuing beyond the SID.

Question 87

What assumptions are made when considering an ETP (Emergency Turn Procedure)?

Answer 87

Except at limiting aerodromes where specific analysis has been carried out an ETP will assume max gross weight and an engine failure at the most performance limiting point and in this scenario a turn radius at V2+15.

Question 88

With respect to CARD acceleration heights, what figures would be entered in the FMC?

Answer 88

Unless individual values are published on CARD all three heights - all engine (ACCEL), engine out (EO ACCEL) and thrust reduction (THR RED) - should be amended to that stipulated. Any changes to the 'normal' acceleration height is generally a function of TOGA time limit being reached in order to clear obstacles. If the heights are different it is generally due to noise considerations.

Question 89

Describe the technique you might use to capture G/S from above?

Answer 89

``` Work across MCP from Right to Left. 1 Select APP 2 Set 1000 ATE in Alt Window 3 Select appropriate VS (do not exceed 3000fpm!) 4 use speed brake as necessary. ```

Question 90

The ATIS includes the phrase BA ADVYS. What does this mean and what should you do?

Answer 90

BA ADVYS on ATIS is abbreviation for BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES and is associated with degraded braking action or runway surface contamination. Crew must contact the TWR for confirmation of actual braking action or runway surface contamination when ATIS includes BA ADVYS.

Question 91

You hear the term HIWAS in effect. What does it mean and where would you find further info?

Answer 91

OMC USA Area Brief - HIWAS (Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service). Continuous broadcast of hazardous weather forecasts through selected VORs. AIM 7-1-9. HIWAS availability is notated with VOR listings in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD), and is shown by symbols on IFR Enroute Low Altitude Charts and VFR Sectional Charts. The symbol depiction is identified in the chart legend. VOR stations broadcasting HIWAS are marked with a 'blitz' (a lightning bolt, downward vertical arrow -see LIDO) on RFCs. Example Bonham VOR BYP.

Question 92

You see SWAP annotated on a USA METAR. What does it mean?

Answer 92

SWAP (Severe Weather Avoidance Plan) are formalised plans in areas that are particularly susceptible to severe weather. They are developed, co-ordinated and implemented to reduce ATC restrictions associated with rerouting aircraft around areas of severe weather. If SWAP is annotated on the METAR delays can be expected on arrival into the TMA due to extended track miles and/or reroutes. On departure ground delays may be experienced.

Question 93

What Specific Gravity should be used if no fuel SG available?

Answer 93

OMB 2.8.1 > SG of 0.8.

Question 94

How might you avoid inadvertently triggering a stick shake while flying a ‘heavy’ -300 close to up bug?

Answer 94

If you are flying close to the UP bug whilst flying a heavy -300ER, ​consider selecting either a greater increment above the bug - or ​taking Flap 1 earlier. This will increase the​ stick shaker margin - ​allowing for the variation caused by being ‘bumped’ around in ​turbulence and thus avoiding crucial memory action!

Question 95

What is validity of ETOPS transit check and where is it written down?

Answer 95

4hrs. Back page of ETOPS transit checklist in Part 1 of a/c log.

Question 96

You anticipate the possibility of a visual approach at destination. What must be briefed in order to accept such an approach?

Answer 96

Readily defined Gates and a method of verify the vertical path - PAPI/ILS GP/VNAV pointers could all be used to check the correct visual profile. OMA 8.22.14.b Visual Approach Monitoring Any approach, or part of an approach, flown using purely visual guidance must comply with the following criteria: The method by which the visual portion of the approach will be monitored must have been agreed in the approach briefing. Appropriate use of any FMS guidance (including fixes and constructed aids to SA), radio aids and other electronic guidance must have been agreed. Gates for configuration, turning onto finals and appropriate intervention points confirmed. To avoid distraction and heads-down activity, the agreed methods must be straightforward for PM to implement whilst PF flies the aircraft primarily heads-up and navigating by visual means.

Question 97

What is the approximate fuel penalty if you had to cross the Atlantic at FL280 due to a CPDLC failure preventing use of NAT tracks?

Answer 97

Approximately 4-5T