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ANAPHYSIO > LESSON 5 LAB MANUAL > Flashcards

LESSON 5 LAB MANUAL Flashcards

1
Q

Bone growth in length is called interstitial growth, and bone growth in diameter (thickness) is called ___________ growth.

A

Appositional

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2
Q

The crystallized inorganic mineral salts in bone contribute to bone’s hardness, while the collagen fibers and other organic molecules provide bone with ___________ strength.

A

Tensil

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3
Q

True or False ? Bone resorption involves increased activity of osteoclasts.

A

True

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4
Q

True or False ? The formation of bone from cartilage is known as endochondral ossification.

A

True

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5
Q

True or False ? The growth of bones is controlled primarily by hormones.

A

True

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6
Q

Place in order the steps involved in intramembranous ossification.

[ ] Periosteum develops on the bone’s periphery.

[ ] Bony matrices fuse to form a trabeculae.

[ ] Clusters of osteoblasts form a center of ossification that secretes the organic extracellular matrix.

[ ] Spongy bone is replaced with compact bone on the bone’s surface.

[ ] The extracellular matrix hardens by deposition of calcium and mineral salts.

A

[ 4 ] Periosteum develops on the bone’s periphery.

[ 3 ] Bony matrices fuse to form a trabeculae.

[ 1 ] Clusters of osteoblasts form a center of ossification that secretes the organic extracellular matrix.

[ 5 ] Spongy bone is replaced with compact bone on the bone’s surface.

[ 2 ] The extracellular matrix hardens by deposition of calcium and mineral salts.

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7
Q

Place in order the steps involved in endochondral ossification.

[ ] Secondary ossification centers appear at epiphyses.
[ ] Nutrient artery invades the perichondrium.
[ ] Osteoblasts become active in the primary ossification center.
[ ] Chondrocytes enlarge and calcify.
[ ] Osteoclasts create a marrow cavity.

A

Place in order the steps involved in endochondral ossification.

[ 5 ] Secondary ossification centers appear at epiphyses.
[ 2 ] Nutrient artery invades the perichondrium.
[ 3 ] Osteoblasts become active in the primary ossification center.
[ 1 ] Chondrocytes enlarge and calcify.
[ 4 ] Osteoclasts create a marrow cavity.

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8
Q

Spongy bone differs from compact bone because spongy bone:

[ ] is composed numerous osteons (haversian systems).
[ ] is found primarily in the diaphyses of long bones, and compact bone is found primarily in the epiphyses of long bones.
[ ] contains osteons all aligned in the same directions along lines of stress.
[ ] does not contain osteocytes contained in lacunae.
[ ] is composed of trabeculae that are oriented along lines of stress.

A

is composed of trabeculae that are oriented along lines of stress.

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9
Q

A primary effect of weight-bearing exercise on bones is to:

[ ] provide oxygen for bone development increase the demineralization of bone
[ ] maintain and increase bone mass
[ ] stimulate the release of sex hormones for bone growth
[ ] utilize the stored triglycerides from the yellow bone marrow

A

maintain and increase bone mass

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10
Q

Place in order the steps involved in the repair of a bone fracture.

[ ] formation of a hematoma at the site of fracture;
[ ] Osteoblast production of trabeculae and bone callus formation;
[ ] migration of fibroblasts to the fracture site;
[ ] bridging of broken ends of bones by a fibrocartilaginous callus;
[ ] resorption of remaining bone fragments and remodeling of bone;

A

[ 1 ] formation of a hematoma at the site of fracture;
[ 4 ] Osteoblast production of trabeculae and bone callus formation;
[ 2 ] migration of fibroblasts to the fracture site;
[ 3 ] bridging of broken ends of bones by a fibrocartilaginous callus;
[ 5 ] resorption of remaining bone fragments and remodeling of bone;

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11
Q

column-like layer of maturing chondrocytes

Choice’s
- zone of hypertrophic cartilage
- zone of resting cartilage
- zone of proliferating cartilage
- zone of calcified cartilage

A

zone of hypertrophic cartilage

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12
Q

layer of small, scattered chondrocytes anchoring the epiphyseal (growth) plate to the bone

Choice’s
- zone of hypertrophic cartilage
- zone of resting cartilage
- zone of proliferating cartilage
- zone of calcified cartilage

A

zone of resting cartilage

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13
Q

layer of actively dividing chondrocytes

Choice’s
- zone of hypertrophic cartilage
- zone of resting cartilage
- zone of proliferating cartilage
- zone of calcified cartilage

A

zone of proliferating cartilage

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14
Q

region of dead chondrocytes

Choice’s
- zone of hypertrophic cartilage
- zone of resting cartilage
- zone of proliferating cartilage
- zone of calcified cartilage

A

zone of calcified cartilage

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15
Q

involved in bone growth by increasing osteoblast activity; causes long bones to stop growing in length

Choice’s
- PTH
- CT
- Calcitriol
- Insulin-like growth factors
- sex hormones
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K

A

sex hormones

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16
Q

during childhood, it promotes growth at epiphyseal plate;
production stimulated by human growth hormone

Choice’s
- PTH
- CT
- Calcitriol
- Insulin-like growth factors
- sex hormones
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K

A

Insulin-like growth factors

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17
Q

raises blood calcium leves by increasing bone resorption

Choice’s
- PTH
- CT
- Calcitriol
- Insulin-like growth factors
- sex hormones
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K

A

PTH

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18
Q

required for protein synthesis

Choice’s
- PTH
- CT
- Calcitriol
- Insulin-like growth factors
- sex hormones
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K

A

Vitamin K

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19
Q

required for collagen synthesis

Choice’s
- PTH
- CT
- Calcitriol
- Insulin-like growth factors
- sex hormones
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K

A

Vitamin C

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20
Q

decreases blood calcium levels by accelerating calcium deposition in bones and inhibiting osteoclasts

Choice’s
- PTH
- CT
- Calcitriol
- Insulin-like growth factors
- sex hormones
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K

A

CT - Calcitonin

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21
Q

active form of Vitamin D; raises blood calcium levels by increasing absorption of calcium from digestive tract

Choice’s
- PTH
- CT
- Calcitriol
- Insulin-like growth factors
- sex hormones
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K

A

Calcitriol

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22
Q

a partial break in a bone in which one side of the bone is broken and the other side bends

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

greenstick fracture

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23
Q

a broken bone that does not break through the skin

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

closed (simple) fracture

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24
Q

an infection of bone

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

osteomyelitis

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25
Q

condition characterized by failure of new bone formed by remodelling to calcify in adults

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

osteomalacia

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26
Q

a degeneration of articular cartilage allowing the bony ends to touch; worsens due to friction between the bones

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

osteoarthritis

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27
Q

a broken bone that protrudes through the skin

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

open (compound) fracture

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28
Q

a condition of porous bones characterized by decreased bone mass and increased susceptibility to fractures

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

osteoporosis

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29
Q

microscopic bone breaks resulting from inability to withstand repeated stressful impact

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

stress fracture

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30
Q

splintered bone, with smaller fragments lying between main fragments

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

comminuted fracture

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31
Q

a broken bone in which one end of the fractured bone is driven into the other end

Choice’s
- closed (simple) fracture
- open (compound) fracture
- impacted fracture
- greenstick fracture
- stress fracture
- comminuted fracture
- osteoporosis
- osteomalacia
- osteoarthritis
- osteomyelitis

A

Impacted fracture

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32
Q

rings of hard calcified matrix found just beneath the periosteum and lining the medullary cavity

Choice’s
- osteogenic cells
- osteocytes
- osteons (haversian svstems)
- perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
- circumferential lamelllae
- osteoblasts
- trabeculae

A

circumferential lamelllae

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33
Q

microscopic unit of compact bone tissue

Choice’s
- osteogenic cells
- osteocytes
- osteons (haversian svstems)
- perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
- circumferential lamelllae
- osteoblasts
- trabeculae

A

osteons (haversian svstems)

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34
Q

irregular lattice of thin columns of bone found in spongy bone tissue

Choice’s
- osteogenic cells
- osteocytes
- osteons (haversian svstems)
- perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
- circumferential lamelllae
- osteoblasts
- trabeculae

A

trabeculae

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35
Q

unspecialized stem cells derived from mesenchyme

Choice’s
- osteogenic cells
- osteocytes
- osteons (haversian svstems)
- perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
- circumferential lamelllae
- osteoblasts
- trabeculae

A

osteogenic cells

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36
Q

tiny canals that penetrate compact bone; carry blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves from the periosteum

Choice’s
- osteogenic cells
- osteocytes
- osteons (haversian svstems)
- perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
- circumferential lamelllae
- osteoblasts
- trabeculae

A

perforating (Volkmann’s) canals

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37
Q

mature cells that maintain the daily metabolism of bone

Choice’s
- osteogenic cells
- osteocytes
- osteons (haversian svstems)
- perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
- circumferential lamelllae
- osteoblasts
- trabeculae

A

osteocytes

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38
Q

cells that secrete the components required to build bone

Choice’s
- osteogenic cells
- osteocytes
- osteons (haversian svstems)
- perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
- circumferential lamelllae
- osteoblasts
- trabeculae

A

osteoblasts

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39
Q

Membrane-filled spaces between cranial bones that enable the fetal skull to modify its size and shape for passage through the birth canal are called_________

A

Fontanels

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40
Q

The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone contains the________ gland.

A

Pituitary Gland

41
Q

The regions of the vertebral column that consists of fused vertebrae are the sacrum and the __________

A

Coccyx

42
Q

True or False ? The atlanto-occipital joints allow you to rotate the head, as in signifying “no”

A

True.

The atlanto-occipital joints, which are between the atlas (C1 vertebra) and the occipital bone of the skull, allow for the nodding or “yes” motion of the head, as well as some limited side-to-side tilting. Rotational movements like those used to signify “no” primarily occur at the atlanto-axial joints, which are between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) vertebrae.

43
Q

True or False ? Ribs that are not attached to the sternum are known as the true ribs.

A

False

44
Q

In which of the following bones are paranasal sinuses not found?

Choice’s
- frontal bone
- ethmoid bone
- sphenoid bone
- lacrimal bones
- maxillae

A

lacrimal bones

45
Q

Which of the following pairs are mismatched?

  • mandible: only movable bone in the skull
  • hyoid: bone that does not articulate with any other bone
  • sacrum: supports lower back
  • thoracic vertebrae: articulate with thoracic ribs posteriorly
  • inferior nasal conchae: classified as facial bones
A

The mismatched pair in the list is:

  • inferior nasal conchae: classified as facial bones

The inferior nasal conchae are actually classified as cranial bones, not facial bones.

46
Q

Which of the following bones are not paired?

Choice’s
- vomer
- maxilla
- palatine
- nasal
- lacrimal

A

Vomer

47
Q

The suture located between a parietal and temporal bone is the:

Choice’s
- lambdoid
- sagittal
- coronal
- anterolateral
- squamous

A

squamous

48
Q

The primary vertebral curves that appear during fetal development are the
(1) cervical, (2) thoracic, (3) lumbar curve, (4) coccyx curve, (5) sacral curve.

Choice’s
- 2 & 3
- 1& 2
- 2 & 4
- 2 & 5
- 1 & 3

A

2 & 5

49
Q

Which of the following are functions of the cranial bones?
(1) protection of the brain
(2) attachment of muscles that move the head
(3) protection of the special sense organs
(4) attachment of the meninges
(5) attachment of muscles that produce facial expressions

Choice’s
- 1, 2, and 5
- 1, 2, 4, and 5
- 2 and 5
- 1, 2, 3, and 5
- 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

A

1, 2, 3, and 5

50
Q

large, rounded, rough projections

Choice’s
- foramen
- tuberosity
- spinous process
- crest
- facet
- fissure
- condyle
- fossa
- meatus

A

tuberosity

51
Q

prominent ridge or elongated projection

Choice’s
- foramen
- tuberosity
- spinous process
- crest
- facet
- fissure
- condyle
- fossa
- meatus

A

Crest

52
Q

tube-like opening

Choice’s
- foramen
- tuberosity
- spinous process
- crest
- facet
- fissure
- condyle
- fossa
- meatus

A

Meatus

53
Q

large round protuberance at the end of a bone

Choice’s
- foramen
- tuberosity
- spinous process
- crest
- facet
- fissure
- condyle
- fossa
- meatus

A

Condyle

54
Q

sharp, slender projection

Choice’s
- foramen
- tuberosity
- spinous process
- crest
- facet
- fissure
- condyle
- fossa
- meatus

A

spinous process

55
Q

shallow depression

Choice’s
- foramen
- tuberosity
- spinous process
- crest
- facet
- fissure
- condyle
- fossa
- meatus

A

Fossa

56
Q

smooth, flat articular surface

Choice’s
- foramen
- tuberosity
- spinous process
- crest
- facet
- fissure
- condyle
- fossa
- meatus

A

Facet

57
Q

narrow slit between adiacent parts of bones for

Choice’s
- foramen
- tuberosity
- spinous process
- crest
- facet
- fissure
- condyle
- fossa
- meatus

A

Fissure

58
Q

opening for passage of blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments

Choice’s
- foramen
- tuberosity
- spinous process
- crest
- facet
- fissure
- condyle
- fossa
- meatus

A

Foramen

59
Q

small bones located within joints between certain cranial bones

Choice’s
- irregular bones
- long bones
- short bones
- flat bones
- sesamoid bones
- sutural bones

A

sutural bones

60
Q

bones that develop in certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension, and physical stress

Choice’s
- irregular bones
- long bones
- short bones
- flat bones
- sesamoid bones
- sutural bones

A

sesamoid bones

61
Q

cube-shaped bones that are nearly equal in length and width

Choice’s
- irregular bones
- long bones
- short bones
- flat bones
- sesamoid bones
- sutural bones

A

short bones

62
Q

bones that provide considerable protection and extensive areas for muscle attachment

Choice’s
- irregular bones
- long bones
- short bones
- flat bones
- sesamoid bones
- sutural bones

A

Flat bones

63
Q

bones with comblex shapes. including the vertebrae and some facial bones

Choice’s
- irregular bones
- long bones
- short bones
- flat bones
- sesamoid bones
- sutural bones

A

Irregular bones

64
Q

thin bones composed of two nearly parallel plates of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone

Choice’s
- irregular bones
- long bones
- short bones
- flat bones
- sesamoid bones
- sutural bones

A

flat bones

65
Q

patella is an examble

Choice’s
- irregular bones
- long bones
- short bones
- flat bones
- sesamoid bones
- sutural bones

A

sesamoid bones

66
Q

bones that have greater length than width and consist of a shaft and a variable number of extremities

Choice’s
- irregular bones
- long bones
- short bones
- flat bones
- sesamoid bones
- sutural bones

A

long bones

67
Q

Which of the following bones is called the keystone of the cranial floor, contains the sella turcica, optic foramen, and pterygoid processes

Choice’s
- temporal bones
- parietal bones
- frontal bone
- occipital bone
- sphenoid bone

A

sphenoid bone

68
Q

Which of the following forms the forehead?

Choice’s
- temporal bones
- parietal bones
- frontal bones
- maxillae
- lacrimal bones

A

frontal bones

69
Q

Which of the following is the largest, strongest facial bone and is the only movable skull bone?

Choice’s
- mandible
- maxilla
- hyoid bone
- vomer
- ethmoid bones

A

mandible

70
Q

Which of the following form the bridge of the nose?

Choice’s
- lacrimal bones
- hyoid bones
- nasal bones
- palatine bones
- occipital bones

A

nasal bones

71
Q

Which of the following bones is known as the smallest bones of the face; contain a vertical groove that houses a structure that gathers tears and passes them into the nasal cavity?

Choice’s
- nasal bones
- zygomatic bones
- inferior nasal conchae
- lacrimal bones
- palatine bones

A

lacrimal bones

72
Q

Which of the following does not articulate with any other bone?

Choice’s
- zygomatic bones
- lacrimal bones
- palatine bones
- inferior nasal conchae
- hyoid bone

A

Hyoid bone

73
Q

Which of the following form the posterior part of the hard palate, part of the floor and lateral wall of the nasal cavity, and a small portion of the floors of the orbits?

Choice’s
- palatine bones
- vomer
- zygomatic bones
- ethmoid bone
- hyoid bone

A

palatine bones

74
Q

The bones that make up the palm are the ________

A

Metacarpal

75
Q

List the three bones that fuse to form the hip (coxal) bone: ilium, ischium, __________

A

PUBIS

76
Q

The portion of the bony pelvis that is inferior to the pelvic brim is the ________ or lesser pelvis.

A

True

77
Q

The portion that is superior to the pelvic brim is called the ____ or greater pelvis.

A

False

78
Q

True or False ? The largest carpal bone is the lunate.

A

False

79
Q

True or False ? The anterior joint formed by the two coxal (hip) bones is the pubic symphysis.

A

True

80
Q

Which of the following is the most superior of the tarsals and articulates with the distal end of the tibia?

Choice’s
- talus
- calcaneus
- navicular
- cuboid
- cuneiform

A

Talus

81
Q

Which of the following is (are) not true concerning the scapula?
(1) The lateral border is also known as the axillary border.
(2) The scapular notch accommodates the head of the humerus.
(3) The scapula is also known as the collarbone.
(4) The acromion process articulates with the clavicle.
(5) The coracoid process is utilized for muscle attachment.

Choice’s
- 1, 2, and 3
- 3 only
- 2 and 3
- 3 and 4
- 2, 3, and 5

A

3 Only

82
Q

Which of the following is false?

  • a decrease in the height of the medial longitudinal arch creates a condition known as clawfoot
  • the transverse arch is formed by the navicular, cuneiforms, and bases of the five metatarsals
  • the longitudinal arch has medial and lateral parts, both of which originate at the calcaneus
  • arches help to absorb shocks
  • arches enable the foot to support the body’s weight
A

This is False “

a decrease in the height of the medial longitudinal arch creates a condition known as clawfoot

“

83
Q

The greater sciatic notch is located on the ________

Choice’s
- ischium
- femur
- ilium
- pubis

A

ilium

84
Q

Which of the following is described as a large, triangular, flat bone found in the posterior part of the thorax?

Choice’s
- calcaneus
- scapula
- patella
- radius

A

scapula

85
Q

Which of the followings is an S-shaped bone lying horizontally in the superior and anterior part of the thorax?

Choice’s
- scapula
- humerus
- clavicle
- ulna
- fibula

A

clavicle

86
Q

Which of the following articulates proximally with the scapula and distally with the radius and ulna?

Choices
- fibula
- humerus
- clavicle
- tibia

A

Humerus

87
Q

Which of the following is located on the medial aspect of the forearm?

Choice’s
- ulna
- radius
- tibia
- fibula
- humerus

A

Ulna

88
Q

The longest, heaviest, and strongest bone of the body:

Choice’s
- humerus
- tibia
- femur
- fibula
- calcaneus

A

Femur

89
Q

Which of the following is the sesamoid bone that articulates with the femur and tibia?

Choice’s
- cuneiform
- calcaneus
- patella
- femur
- talus

A

Patella

90
Q

located in the proximal row of carpals; its name
indicates that it is a “three-cornered”

Choice’s
- cuboid
- triquetrum
- calcaneus
- pisiform
- capitate

A

triquetrum

91
Q

largest carpal bone

Choice’s
- cuboid
- triquetrum
- calcaneus
- pisiform
- capitate

A

Capitate

92
Q

largest and strongest tarsal bone

Choice’s
- cuboid
- triquetrum
- calcaneus
- pisiform
- capitate

A

Calcaneus

93
Q

most medial, pea-shaped bone located in the proximal row of carpals

Choice’s
- cuboid
- triquetrum
- calcaneus
- pisiform
- capitate

A

Pisiform

94
Q

lateral bone that articulates with the calcaneus and metatarsals; IV-V

Choice’s
- cuboid
- triquetrum
- calcaneus
- pisiform
- capitate

A

Cuboid

95
Q

obturator foramen

Choice’s
- femur
- tibia
- fibula
- hip bone
- radius

A

Hip bone

96
Q

greater trochanter

Choice’s
- femur
- tibia
- fibula
- hip bone
- radius

A

Femur

97
Q

lateral malleolus

Choice’s
- femur
- tibia
- fibula
- hip bone
- radius

A

Fibula

98
Q

radial tuberosity

Choice’s
- femur
- tibia
- fibula
- hip bone
- radius

A

Radius

99
Q

Bone growth in length is called _______ growth, and bone growth in diameter (thickness) is called appositional growth.

A

interstitial

ANAPHYSIO (27 decks)

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