Lecture Exam 3 (Final Exam) Flashcards

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1
Q

Fill in the blank

Replication of DNA is considered semi-conservative, meaning that the new helix(s) is composed of one ﹍﹍ strand and one﹍﹍ strand

A

one old stand and one new strand

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2
Q

Human genetic diseases resulting from errors in the inheritance of autosomes and sex chromosomes are primarily due to:

A

nondisjunction of the chromosomes

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3
Q

A Barr Body found in human white blood cells, is an example of what process?

A

Inactivaed X chromosome

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4
Q

The narrowed or constricted region on a duplicated chromosome where the two strands appear joined together is called the:

A

centromere

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5
Q

The research team of Hershey, Chase, et al confirmed what principle in their famous experiment?

A

that DNA is the genetic material

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6
Q

Cytokinesis is defined as the:

A

division of the cytoplasm

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7
Q

Gregor Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment explains that the random separation of:

A

Genes located on different pairs of homologous chromosomes

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8
Q

An example of Heterozygous condition

(Genotype)

A

Aa

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9
Q

An example of Homozygous condition

(Genotype)

A

AA

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10
Q

An example of X-linked disease

A

Hemophilia

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11
Q

An example of Intermediate expression

A

color in snapdragons

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12
Q

An example of Co-dominance

A

ABO alleles

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13
Q

Fill in the blank

Gregor Mendel was credited with establishing the principles of modern-day genetics. He coined the term “﹍﹍” to describe the condition of an allele that is always expressed in the presence of the other allele

A

dominant

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14
Q

The property that a normal cell exhibits when it responds to the presence of a barrier by halting cell division is defined as:

A

contact inhibition

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15
Q

Humans inherit:

(chromosomes)

A

22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes

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16
Q

This genetic tracking method or chard is used to construct the patter of inheritance of one trait in a group of related people or relatives.

A

Pedigree

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17
Q

In Protein Synthesis, this molecule is responsible for the delivery of the Amino Acid to the ribosome-mRNA structure located in the cytoplasm

A

tRNA

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18
Q

Fill in the blank

An individual with the genotype XYY has ﹍﹍Syndrome

A

Jacob’s Syndrome

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19
Q

This gene is considered one of the most important anti-oncogenes, or tumor suppressor genes, studied in humans

A

p53

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20
Q

True or False

The genetic code (nucleotide triplets) is universal to all organisms.

A

True

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21
Q

True or Flase

Females express more X-linked human disorders than males because they need only one copy of the recessive, disease gene.

A

False

Males have only one copy of the X chromosome, not females.

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22
Q

True or False

A gene frameshift mutation is considered a minor change in the DNA sequence that is not likely to cause signigicant harm to the cell or organism.

A

False

A frameshift mutation will cause the whole DNA sequence to be read wrong

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23
Q

True or False

In the genetic code, only 61 out of the 64 possible triplet combinations code for or signal an amino acid

A

True

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24
Q

This single gene is solely responsible for the onset of male development in a human embryo

A

SRY

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25
Q

The orientation of a strand of DNA is described as either being 5’–3’ or 3’–5’. This designation is based on:

A

the numbering of the carbon atoms in the sugar molecule

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26
Q

The orientation of the two strands in the DNA structure, with respecto to each other, are considered:

A

anti-parellel

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27
Q

A male who expresses the color blindness phenotype has this genotype:

A

Xᵇ Y

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28
Q

Outward apparance of a trait

A

Phenotype

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29
Q

Genes inherited for a trait

A

Genotype

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30
Q

Deletion at chromosome #5 produces

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome

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31
Q

Contains the anti-codon

A

tRNA

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32
Q

Duplication on a sex chromosome produces

A

Fragile X syndrome

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33
Q

In what phase does this occur?

Tetrads form and exchange genes

Lecture Exam 3

A

Prophase I

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34
Q

In what phase does this occur?

Chromosomes appear without crossing-over

A

Prophase II

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35
Q

In what phase does this occur?

Sister Chromatids separate

A

Anaphase II

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36
Q

What signals the start of Telophase

A

Cleavage Furrow

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37
Q

In what phase does this occur?

Homologous chromosomes separate

A

Anaphase I

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38
Q

A primary tumor cell detaches and spreads to a distance, secondary site. This process of detaching and spreading by a cancer cell is called:

A

metastasis

39
Q

What happens to mRNA when it leaves the nucleus?

A
  1. removal of introns from the mRNA
  2. Addition of a GTP “cap” to the 5’ end of the mRNA
  3. Addition of a poly-adenine “tail” to the 3’ end of the mRNA
40
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

occurs in somatic cells & gametes

A

Mitosis

41
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

diploid daughter cells

A

Mitosis

42
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

requires one cycle/division

A

Mitosis

43
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

produces two daughter cells

A

Mitosis

44
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

Daughter cells are genetically identical from parent cell and each other

A

Mitosis

45
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

Occurs in gametes only

A

Meiosis

46
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

Haploid daughter cells

A

Meiosis

47
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

Requires two cycles/divisons

A

Meiosis

48
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

Four daughter cells are produced

A

Meiosis

49
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

Daughter cells are genetically different from parent cell and each other

A

Meiosis

50
Q

Mitosis or Meiosis

Exchange of genetic material occurs

A

Meiosis

51
Q

What is the first step of Protein Synthesis?

A

DNA exists in the nucleus, contains the genetic code

52
Q

What is the second step of Protein Synthesis?

A

DNA is transcribed by mRNA

53
Q

What is the third step of Protein Synthesis?

A

mRNA leaves the nucleus through the pores in the nuclear membrane. Introns are spliced out, GTP caps are added to the 5’ end, and poly-adenine “tail” is added to the 3’ end of the mRNA.

54
Q

What are some common carcinogens?

A
  • x-rays
  • ultraviolet radiation
  • cigarette smoke
55
Q

What is the molecular/cellular defination of a gene?

A

a gene is a sequence of DNA that codes for a polypeptide

56
Q

What does DNA Helicase do?

A

unravels the DNA strand(s)

57
Q

What enzyme unravels the DNA strand(s)?

A

DNA Helicase

58
Q

What does DNA Polymerase do?

A

adds new nuelotide bases to the already exposed bases

59
Q

What enzyme adds ne nuelotide bases to the already exposed bases?

A

DNA Polymerase

60
Q

What does DNA Ligase do?

A

fills the gaps in the polydiester backbone

61
Q

What enzyme fills the gaps in the polydiester backbone of DNA?

A

DNA Ligase

62
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Escapes mitotic controlling factors

A

Cancer

63
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Divides an unlimited number of times

A

Cancer

64
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Loses contact inhibition

A

Cancer

65
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Releases vascularization factor

A

Cancer

66
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Releases collagenase

A

Cancer

67
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Cells detach and spread

A

Cancer

68
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Exhibit poor cell surface adhesion

A

Cancer

69
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Cells form tumors

A

Cancer

70
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Responds to mitotic controlling factors

A

Normal

71
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Divides a maximum of 50 times

A

Normal

72
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Exhibits contact inhibition

A

Normal

73
Q

Cancer or Normal

Exhibits good cell surface adhesion

A

Normal

74
Q

Cancer or Normal Cell

Cells form tissues

A

Normal

75
Q

What is the first phase of Mitosis?

A

Interphase (G1, S, G2)

76
Q

What is the second phase of Mitosis?

A

Prophase

77
Q

What is the third phase of Mitosis?

A

Metaphase

78
Q

What is the fourth stage of Mitosis?

A

Anaphase

79
Q

What is the fifth stage of Mitosis?

A

Telophase

80
Q

Interphase is the ____ phase of Mitosis

A

first

81
Q

Prophase is the ____ phase of Mitosis

A

second

82
Q

Metaphase is the ____ phase of Mitosis

A

third

83
Q

Anaphase is the ____ phase of Mitosis

A

fourth

84
Q

Telophase is the ____ phase of Mitosis

A

fifth

85
Q

What does IPMAT stand for?

A

Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

86
Q

What does this genotype mean?

XY

A

a Normal Male

87
Q

What does this genotype mean?

XX

A

a Normal Female

88
Q

What does this genotype mean?

X_

A

Turner Syndrome

89
Q

What does this genotype mean?

XXY

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

90
Q

What does this genotype mean?

XXX

A

metafemale

91
Q

What does this genotype mean?

XYY

A

Jacob’s Syndrome

92
Q

Which chromosomes are autosomes?

A

chromosomes 1-22

93
Q

What chromosomesare sex chromosomes?

A

X and Y chromosomes