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Anatomy and physiology I lecture > Lect 1-3 (organ systems, chemistry, cells) > Flashcards

Lect 1-3 (organ systems, chemistry, cells) Flashcards

1
Q

Name the organ systems

A

Muscular, Urinary, Skeletal, Integumentary, Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, Endocrine, Nervous, Digestive, Respiratory, Reproductive

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2
Q

Name the structures and function of the Integumentary system

A

Hair, Skin, Nails Function: provides protection, regulates temperature, prevents water loss, synth. Vit D

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3
Q

Skeletal: structures and functions

A

Bones and joints Function: provides support, produces blood cells and stores minerals

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4
Q

Muscular: structures and functions

A

Skeletal muscles Function: Produces body movements, maintains posture, produces body heat

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5
Q

Lymphatic: structures and functions

A

Thymus, Red bone marrow, lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes, spleen, thoracic duct Function: Combats disease, houses white blood cells, removes substances and excess fluid from the blood

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6
Q

Respiratory: structures and functions

A

Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, lung, bronchus Function: Oxygen and CO2 exchange in blood

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7
Q

Digestive: structures and functions

A

Oral cavity, esophagus, liver, stomach, small/LG intest. rectum/anus Function: Absorption of nutrients and elimination of wastes, mechanical& chemical digestion of food

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8
Q

Nervous: structures and functions

A

Brain, nerves, spinal cord Function: Regulates the bodies physiological functions such as intellect, sensation, movement.

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9
Q

Endocrine: structures and functions

A

All glands, Thymus, pancreas, ovaries/testes Function: secretes hormones to control growth, metabolism, reproduction

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10
Q

Cardiovascular: structures and functions

A

Heart, blood vessels Function: Transports blood, nutrients and wastes throughout the body

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11
Q

Urinary: structures and functions

A

Kidney, Ureter, Bladder, urethra Function: Removes waste products from the blood, regulates water, electrolyte, and acid balance of the blood

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12
Q

Reproductive: structures and functions (MALE)

A

Prostate gland, penis, testis, ductus deferens, scrotum Function: produce and transport sperm to the female oocyte(egg)

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13
Q

Reproductive: structures and functions (FEMALE)

A

Mammary glands, vagina, ovary, uterus, uterine tube Function: Produce oocytes, fertilization, fetal develop.

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14
Q

Which organ system is responsible for Regulating temperature and preventing water loss?

A

Integumentary

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15
Q

Which organ system is responsible for producing blood cells and storing minerals?

A

Skeletal

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16
Q

Which organ system is responsible for maintaining posture and producing heat?

A

Muscular

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17
Q

Which organ system is responsible for removing substances and excess fluid from the blood?

A

Lymphatic

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18
Q

Which organ system is responsible for housing white blood cells?

A

Lymphatic

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19
Q

Which organ system contains the thymus, red bone barrow, spleen, and thoracic duct?

A

Lymphatic

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20
Q

Which organ system is responsible for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in blood?

A

Respiratory

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21
Q

Which organ system contains the pharynx, larynx, and bronchus, but not the esophagus?

A

Respiratory

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22
Q

Which organ system is responsible for the absorption of nutrients and elimination of wastes, and the mechanical/chemical digestion of food?

A

Digestive

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23
Q

Which organ system contains the oral cavity, esophagus, and liver?

A

Digestive

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24
Q

Which organ system is responsible for secreting hormones to control growth, metabolism, and reproduction?

A

Endocrine

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25
Q

The pineal, pituitary, thyroid, thymus, and adrenal gland are a part of which organ system?

A

Endocrine

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26
Q

True or false, the ovaries/testes are a part of the endocrine system along with the rep. system?

A

True

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27
Q

Which organ system is responsible for transporting blood, nutrients, and wastes through the body?

A

Cardiovascular

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28
Q

Which organ system is responsible for removing waste products from the blood?

A

Urinary

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29
Q

Which organ system is responsible for regulating water, electrolyte, and acid balance of the blood?

A

Urinary

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30
Q

The kidney, ureter, bladder, and urethra are a part of which organ system?

A

Urinary

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31
Q

An oocyte is ____ and is a part of the _____ organ system

A

an egg reproductive

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32
Q

The ductus deferens is a part of the ____ organ system

A

Male reproductive

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33
Q

Define homeostasis

A

The existence and maintenance of a relatively constant environment

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34
Q

Despite continuous outside changes, _____ maintains a relatively stable internal environment

A

Homeostasis

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35
Q

Which two organ systems are responsible for accomplishing communication via nerve impulse and hormones (during homeostatic control)

A

Nervous and Endocrine

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36
Q

What are the three main components of a control mechanism (Homeostasis)

A

Receptor, Control center, and effector

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37
Q

In homeostatic control, what does a receptor do?

A

Monitors the environment and responds to stimuli

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38
Q

In homeostatic control, what does the control center do?

A

receives input from receptor, determines appropriate response

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39
Q

In homeostatic control, what does the effector do?

A

receives output from control center, provides the means to respond,

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40
Q

Which component of a control mechanism (homeostasis) is responsible for allowing the response to reduce or enhance the stimulus? (feedback)

A

Effector

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41
Q

Negative feedback

A

the response REDUCES or SHUTS OFF the original stimulus

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42
Q

Examples of neg. feedback?

A

Regulation of body temperature Regulation of blood volume

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43
Q

Positive feedback

A

The response ENHANCES or EXAGGERATES the original stimulus -may exhibit a cascade or amplifying effect

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44
Q

Examples of positive feedback

A

-Enhancement of labor contractions by oxytocin -platelet plug info and blood clotting

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45
Q

The disturbance of homeostasis is called:

A

Homeostatic imbalance

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46
Q

The disturbance of homeostasis causes:

A

-an increase risk of disease -contributes to changes associated with aging -allows destructive pos. feedback (e.g heart failure)

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47
Q

List three types of descriptive anatomy

A

-Regional -Directional -Planes and sections

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48
Q

Where is the cervical area located?

A

Neck

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49
Q

Where is the cephalic area located?

A

Head

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50
Q

Which body parts are in the trunk area?

A

Top of shoulder down to hip bones

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51
Q

What is the chest cavity called?

A

Thoracic

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52
Q

The cavity below the thoracic is the ____

A

Abdominal

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53
Q

A better word for mouth is:

A

Oral

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54
Q

A better word for the nose

A

nasal

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55
Q

Not cheek, but

A

buccal

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56
Q

Not ear but,

A

otic

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57
Q

Not eye but,

A

orbital

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58
Q

Not forehead but,

A

Frontal

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59
Q

The middle of the spinal region is considered the:

A

Vertebral

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60
Q

The lower back is considered the:

A

Lumbar

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61
Q

Gluteal is the….

A

butt

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62
Q

Not armpit but,

A

axillary

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63
Q

not inner elbow but,

A

antecubital

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64
Q

upper arm:

A

brachial

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65
Q

Lower arm:

A

antebrachial

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66
Q

wrist:

A

carpal

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67
Q

Palm:

A

palmar

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68
Q

Fingers:

A

digital

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69
Q

Shoulder:

A

acromial

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70
Q

Elbow:

A

olecranal

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71
Q

Thigh:

A

Femoral

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72
Q

anterior Knee:

A

patellar

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73
Q

anterior Shin:

A

crural

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74
Q

foot:

A

tarsal

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75
Q

posterior knee

A

popiteal

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76
Q

posterior shin

A

sural

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77
Q

heel:

A

calcaneal

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78
Q

Medial is:

A

split down the middle

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79
Q

lateral is:

A

to the left or right of medial

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80
Q

Distal:

A

further from the center

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81
Q

Proximal:

A

in proximity to the center of focus

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82
Q

Ipsilateral is:

A

Same side

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83
Q

Contralateral:

A

Other side “contrary”

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84
Q

Anterior is:

A

front

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85
Q

Posterior is:

A

back

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86
Q

Sagittal is:

A

right from left

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87
Q

transverse is:

A

top from bottom

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88
Q

frontal is:

A

front from back

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89
Q

Dorsal cavity contains the:

A

Brain and spinal cord

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90
Q

Ventral cavity contains the:

A

Thoracic and pericardial cavity

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91
Q

Thoracic cavity contains the:

A

pleural cavity (lungs)

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92
Q

Pericardial cavity:

A

heart

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93
Q

Abdominopelvic cavity:

A

Intestines, liver, stomach.

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94
Q

How many Abdominopelvic regions are there?

A

Nine

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95
Q

The upper three abdominal regions are, from right to left:

A

Right hypochondriac, epigastric region, and left hypochondriac region

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96
Q

The middle three abdominal regions, from right to left, are:

A

Right lumbar region, Umbilical region, and left lumbar region

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97
Q

The lower three abdominal regions are, from right to left:

A

Right iliac(over the appendix) region, hypogastric(pubic) region, and left iliac region

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98
Q

Right upper quadrant is near the:

A

appendix

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99
Q

Left upper quadrant is near the:

A

stomach

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100
Q

Right lower quadrant is near the:

A

large intestine

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101
Q

Left lower quadrant is near the:

A

small inestine

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102
Q

What is the thin, double-layered membrane called?

A

Serous membrane

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103
Q

Which serosa membrane lines internal body walls?

A

Partietal

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104
Q

Which serosa membrane covers the internal organs?

A

Visceral (“somebody eVIScerated his internal organs”)

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105
Q

What determines the element?

A

Number of protons

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106
Q

_____ involves the transfer or sharing of electrons between atoms

A

Chemical bonding

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107
Q

Name three chemical bonds

A

Ionic, Covalent, Hydrogen

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108
Q

Ions are:

A

charged elements

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109
Q

The loss of an electron gives the atom a ____ charge

A

positive

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110
Q

The gain of an electron gives the atom a ____ charge

A

negative

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111
Q

“electrical forces between ions: opposites attract” Which bond is this and what is one example?

A

Ionic, ex: Sodium Chloride

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112
Q

“when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons, creating a molecule” which bond is this?

A

Covalent bonding

113
Q

What are the three types of covalent bonds?

A

Single, double, and polar

114
Q

In a single covalent bond, how many pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms?

A

One pair

115
Q

In a double covalent bond, how many pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms?

A

Two pairs.

116
Q

Polar covalent bond: _____ sharing of electrosn

A

Asymmetrical

117
Q

True or false, water molecules bond at an angle

A

True

118
Q

True or false: in a polar covalent bond, the electron sits closer to CO2

A

False, the electron sits closer to O2

119
Q

What is the weaker bond?

A

Hydrogen bonds

120
Q

What is surface tension in water?

A

the small positive and negative charges attracting each other, which hold the water molecules together

121
Q

A hydrophilic molecule tends to ____ in water

A

dissolve

122
Q

Hydrophilic means, in greek,

A

Water-loving

123
Q

A hydrophilic molecule is____

A

Polar

124
Q

A hydrophobic molecule is _____

A

Non-polar

125
Q

Is salt hydrophilic? Why or why not?

A

Yes, because when in water, the Na and Cl break apart.

126
Q

Is oxygen hydrophilic?

A

No

127
Q

Oils and fats are hydro_____

A

phobic

128
Q

Do anabolic reactions require energy?

A

Yes

129
Q

Anabolism:

A

Raising up and requires energy

130
Q

Catabolism:

A

Casting down and releases energy

131
Q

Do catabolic reactions require or release energy?

A

Release energy

132
Q

Catalysts cause a ____ reaction

A

Faster

133
Q

True or false, high temperature and smaller particle size cause faster reactions?

A

True

134
Q

Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are:

A

Cell building blocks

135
Q

Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms compose:

A

carbohydrates

136
Q

The smallest carbohydrates are _____, also known as simple sugars

A

Monosaccharides

137
Q

Glycogen is a polysaccharide, which is just many _____

A

monosccharides

138
Q

The main energy source (ATP) for body cells is ____

A

Glucose

139
Q

The main storage form of glucose is_____

A

Glycogen

140
Q

Which organ stores excess glucose in the body as glycogen?

A

Liver

141
Q

True or false, carbohydrates contribute to cell membrane structural integrity

A

True

142
Q

______ act as cellular markers to guide interactions between cells

A

Carbohydrates

143
Q

_____ : Energy storage molecules

A

Lipids

144
Q

_____ are substances that dissolve in hydrophobic solvents, but not in water

A

Lipids

145
Q

What is the most common type of fat molecule?

A

Triglycerides

146
Q

describe a strand of a phospholipid

A

The head is hydrophilic and the body is hydrophobic

147
Q

True or false, Cholesterol is an important component in the cell membrane?

A

True

148
Q

Eicosanoids are_______

A

Lipids found in ALL cell membranes

149
Q

Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are found in:

A

Eicosanoids

150
Q

Eicosanoids are released from damaged tissue and locally influence:

A

Blood clotting, blood pressure, inflammation, and labor contractions

151
Q

Synthesis of eicosanoids and their act of inflammation is controlled by this drug:

A

NSAIDS

152
Q

What are the building blocks of protein?

A

Amino acids

153
Q

How many basic types of Amino acids are there?

A

20

154
Q

Name three different types of proteins that amino acids can make

A

Enzymes, transport, or structural

155
Q

Define the primary structure of a protein:

A

It is the sequence of amino acids in a chain

156
Q

Define the secondary structure of a protein

A

The folding pattern of the amino acid strand

157
Q

What are the two different types of secondary protein structures?

A

Beta pleated sheath: folded Alpha helix: twisted

158
Q

Define the tertiary structure of a protein

A

The additional folding pattern of the string of amino acids, forming a three dimensional structure

159
Q

Describe the quarternary structure of a protein

A

the arrangement of SUBUNITS to form the actual protein

160
Q

Primary to Quaternary proteins are held together by:

A

Hydrogen, covalent, and ionic bonds

161
Q

_____ give rise to different bonds, which leads to different structures

A

different amino acids

162
Q

Fibrous(structural) proteins are:

A

-Strand like -water insoluble -stable (non-polar)

163
Q

Name examples of Fibrous proteins

A

Keratin, collagen, elastin, and contractile fibers

164
Q

Globular(functional) proteins are:

A

-Compact -spherical -water soluble (polar) -Sensitive to environmental changes

165
Q

Examples of Globular proteins:

A

Antibodies hormones molecular chaperones enzymes

166
Q

Define DNA

A

The genetic material of cells

167
Q

RNA is related to DNA and plays a role in ______

A

gene expression or protein synthesis

168
Q

Nucleotides are:

A

building blocks of DNA and RNA

169
Q

A double helix is:

A

DNA structure

170
Q

Name the function of ATP

A

Phosphorylation

171
Q

Define the purpose Phosphorylation

A

The release of electrons through phosphorylation energies molecules to perform reactions

172
Q

Transport, Mechanical, and Chemical work are all different types of:

A

Phosphorylation

173
Q

What is: ATP phosphorylates transport proteins, activating them to transport solutes across cell membranes

A

Transport work

174
Q

What is: ATP phosphorylates contractile proteins in muscle cells so the cells can shorten

A

Mechanical work

175
Q

What is: ATP phosphorylates key reactions, providing energy to drive energy-absorbing chemical reactions

A

Chemical work

176
Q

How many types of membrane proteins are there?

A

Six

177
Q

This membrane protein: -spans the membrane -provides a hydrophilic channel -some use ATP to transport molecules -Are selectively permeable

A

Transport proteins

178
Q

This membrane protein: -Spans the membrane -has a binding site with a specific shape that fits the chemical messenger -may change shape when bound by the chemical messenger -Triggers internal chemical reactions (second messengers)

A

Receptor Proteins

179
Q

This membrane protein: -MAY span the cell membrane -Are found inside or outside the cell -create components of the cells cytoskeleton -maintain cell shape and fix the location of some membrane proteins -Help in cell movement or bind cells together

A

Structural proteins

180
Q

This membrane protein: -May span the membrane -Active site (reaction site) may be located inside or outside the cell -May act together (in sequence) to perform a metabolic reaction

A

Enzymatic proteins

181
Q

This membrane protein: -May span the membrane -Called cell adhesion molecules (CAMS) -May provide temporary binding sites that help in cell migration (diapedises)

A

Cell Adhesion Proteins

182
Q

This membrane protein: -May span the membrane -Have a short sugar (carbohydrate) molecule attached to it -Serve as ID tags for recognition by other cells (Glycoproteins: contact signaling)

A

Cell to cell recognition proteins

183
Q

Membrane protein receptor function in communication between cells. What are the two kinds of signaling they produce?

A

Contact and chemical

184
Q

_______ is when two cells physically come together and are used in cellular recognition between immune cells and body cells

A

Contact signaling

185
Q

_______ is when chemical signals (ligands) bind to cell membrane receptors, trigger an internal chemical chain-reaction which leads to a specific function, and chain reaction is stimulated by a regulatory molecule called G-protein

A

Chemical Signaling

186
Q

G-Proteins are a part of which protein membrane receptor?

A

Chemical signaling

187
Q

Function of G-proteins:

A

Stimulates second messengers which convert the extracellular signal to an intracellular signal

188
Q

_____ will relay the signal to a ______ enzyme

A

-G protein -membrane bound

189
Q

Once an enzyme is activated, it actives the______

A

second messenger protein (ex: cyclic AMP or ionic calcium)

190
Q

Second messengers activate other _____ which transfer phosphate from ATP to multiple other enzymes to _________

A

-enzymes -create various cell responses

191
Q

In membrane protein receptors, _______ linked second messenger receptor activity is found in various body functions such as 1. ________ 2. _________ 3. ________ 4. ________

A

G-protein 1. neurotransmission 2. smell 3. vision 4. hormone action

192
Q

Tight junction, Desmosome, and gap junction are _______ junctions

A

Membrane

193
Q

Which membrane junction fuses cells together, is impermeable, and is found in the digestive tract?

A

Tight Junction

194
Q

Which membrane junction is also called “anchoring junctions”?

A

Desmosome

195
Q

Which membrane junction binds/anchor cells together? (don’t confuse with fuse)

A

Desmosome

196
Q

Which membrane junction distributes tension between cells/prevents tearing in tissue?

A

Desmosome

197
Q

Which membrane junction is a transmembrane protein that forms pores?

A

Gap junction

198
Q

Which membrane junction allows the continuous flow of ions between cells and which two muscles are associated with it?

A

Gap junction, and cardiac and smooth muscle

199
Q

What is the function of tight junctions?

A

Prevents fluids and most molecules from moving between cells

200
Q

Identify this membrane junction

A

Tight Junctions

201
Q

Identify this membrane junction

A

Desmosome

202
Q

What is the function of desmosomes?

A

Anchor cells together to distribute tension and prevent tearing

203
Q

What is the function of gap junctions?

A

Allow the continuous flow of fluid and ions between cells

204
Q

Identify this junction

A
205
Q

In a cell, the function below describes the__________

Separates the cells internal environment from its external environment

A

Plasma membrane

206
Q

In a cell, the function below describes the__________

“Regulates what moves in and out of the cell”

A

Plasma membrane

207
Q

In a cell, the function below describes the__________

“Holds the cell in place as well as holds the proteins in place”

A

Plasma membrane

208
Q

In a cell, the function below describes the__________

“Communicates with neighboring cells and the rest of the body

A

Plasma Membrane

209
Q

Molecules move through the cell membrane a few different ways. Three of these do not require ATP. Name them.

A

Diffusion
Osmosis
Facilitated diffusion

210
Q

Molecules move through the cell membrane a few different ways. Which ones are carrier mediated?

A

Diffusion, Osmosis, facilitated diffusion, active transport, and secondary active transport

211
Q

Active transport, secondary active transport, endocytosis, and exocytosis all require:

A

ATP

212
Q

The random movement of solutes down their concentration gradient, which produces an equal concentration in all areas of the solution is:

A

DIFFUSION

213
Q

Name this action:

A

Diffusion

214
Q

Which three substances readily diffuse through the cell membrane?

A

Oxygen

carbon dioxide

cholesterol

215
Q

Main difference between diffusion and facilitated diffusion?

A

Facilitated diffusion is diffusion through specific protein channels

216
Q

_____ is the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane, from a region of high water concentration to a region of low water concentration

A

Osmosis

217
Q

During osmosis, only ________ moves across the membrane

A

Water

218
Q

True or false: Water diffuses towards areas of high solute concentration.

A

True

219
Q

True or false: In osmosis, water diffuses from a region of low water concentration to a region of high water concentration

A

False, other way around

220
Q

When a concentration of dissolved particles is the same inside and outside the cell membrane, this is called an ______ environment

A

Isotonic

221
Q

When a concentration of dissolved particles inside the cell is greater than the concentration outisde the cell, this is called a ________ environment

A

Hypotonic

222
Q

When a concentration of dissolved particles is greater outside the cell than inside the cell, this called a _________ environment

A

Hypertonic

223
Q

________ is the movement of molecules through membrane bound protein transporters, up their concentration gradients (from low to high)

A

Active Transport

224
Q

Is ATP needed for Active transport?

A

Yes

225
Q

Which cell membrane transport uses ATP indirectly?

A

Secondary Active transport

226
Q

Contransport is a type of ________ transport

A

Secondary active

227
Q

Symport and Antiport are two subtypes of ________ which is a type of _________

A
  1. Contransport
  2. Secondary Active Transport
228
Q

During secondary active transport, when two substances are transported in the same direction, this is called

A

Symport

229
Q

During secondary active transport, when two substances are transported in the opposite direction, this is called

A

Antiport

230
Q

Clatherin proteins play a role during ______

A

Endocytosis

231
Q

__________ is the uptake of large water soluble molecules across the cell membrane in vesicles

A

Endocytosis

232
Q

___________ is the movement of large molecules through vesicles across the cell membrane

A

Exoctyosis

233
Q

Exocytosis requires _______ (on vesicles) to bind with _______ (on cell membrane)

A

v-SNARE and t-SNARE

234
Q

Vesicular and cell membranes can only fuse to release contents when these two transmembrane proteins bind

A

v-SNARE and t-SNARE

235
Q

Name three non-membranous organelles

A

Cytoskeleton, Ribosomes, Centrosomes

236
Q

Name five membranous organelles

A

Nucleus, Rough and Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, golgi, lysosomes and peroxisomes, and mitochondira

237
Q

Name this organelle:
“Main function: cell support, anchor organelles, aid in movement of cell”

A

Cytoskeleton

238
Q

The cytoskeleton contains _________, __________, and __________.

A

Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules

239
Q

____________: mechanical support for cell shape, involved in endocytosis, cell movement, and change in shape (look like beads)

A

Microfilaments

240
Q

___________: hold organelles in place, resisting pulling forces on the cell, and attach to desmosomes (look like rope)

A

Intermediate filaments

241
Q

_______: guide movement in the cell and helps transport contents/organelles throughout the cell

A

Microtubules

242
Q

This organelle are granules containing protein and rRna, and is the site of protein synthesis

A

Ribosomes

243
Q

Free ________ synthesize soluble proteins

A

Ribosomes

244
Q

_________ are located near the nucleus

A

Centrosomes

245
Q

_________ generates microtubules and contraines centrioles

A

Centrosomes

246
Q

This organelle is bound by a nucleur envelope, has nucelar pores, and contains loosely coiled chromosomes called CHROMATIN

A

The Nucleus

247
Q

The nucleolus, in teh center of the nucleus, is the site of ___________

A

Ribosomal production

248
Q

Where are ribosomes first made?

A

The nucleus

249
Q

Ribosomes ________ through translation of mRNA in the cytoplasm

A

Produce proteins

250
Q

True or false, RER has ribosomes attached to the membrane and has enzymes?

A

False, ribosomes are attached to the membrane but RER does not have enzymes (SER DOES)

251
Q

Which Endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes lipids and horomes?

A

Smooth ER

252
Q

True or false: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum has no ribosomes, but has enzymes

A

True

253
Q

Which organelle consists of flattened sacs stacked in layers?

A

Golgi Complex

254
Q

the _________ receives proteins from the ER and modifies them to their final form

A

Golgi Complex

255
Q

Which organelle directs protein molecules to their final destination?

A

Golgi Complex

256
Q

Which two organelles both contain enzymes and are named “garbage disposals?

A

Lysosomes and Peroxisomes

257
Q

This vescicular organelle breaks down unessential proteins

A

Lysosomes

258
Q

This vescicular organelle detoxify the cell and breaks down hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen

A

Peroxisomes

259
Q

This organelle is the major site of ATP

A

Mitochondria

260
Q

This organelle has its own DNA

A

Mitochondria

261
Q

Most glucose catabolism happens in the ____________

A

Mitochondria

262
Q

Gene expression starts in the _________ and ends in the ________

A

Nucleus, cytoplasm

263
Q

DNA is made up of what four nucleotides?

A

Adenine, Thymine, guanine, and cytosine

264
Q

RNA is made up of which four nucleotides?

A

Adenine, URACIL, guanine, and cytosine

265
Q

Codons are:

A

The genetic code that is carried in groups of THREE nucleotides

266
Q

Codones code for _________

A

specific amino acids

267
Q

mRNA needs ________ in order to be translated

A

tRNA

268
Q

tRNA reads the codons with _________

A

anti-codons

269
Q

________ are needed in order to translate mRNA

A

Ribosomes

270
Q

_________ carries the _______ to the ribosome

A

tRNA and amino acids

271
Q

True or false, the anticodon needs to match the codon to determine order of amino acids

A

True

272
Q

is AUG a start codon?

A

Yes

273
Q

Is UAA a start codon?

A

No

274
Q

is UAG a stop codon?

A

Yes

275
Q

When the ribosome reaches _______ everything falls apart and the ________ stops

A

UAG, translation

276
Q

When is everything released from the active site?

A

When the stop codon arrives at the ribosome

277
Q

Name the five steps of cell division in order when a cell is at interphase:

A

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokenesis

278
Q
A

Anatomy and physiology I lecture (14 decks)

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