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Anatomy and physiology I lecture > Exams 1-4 > Flashcards

Exams 1-4 Flashcards

1
Q

(exam 1) 1. How does Phosphorylation energize molecules?

A

Through the release of electrons

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2
Q

(exam 1) 2. Which subatomic particle is responsible for determine the element?

A

Proton

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3
Q

(exam 1) 3. Ionic bonds are created through….

A

Electrical force between ions

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4
Q

(exam 1) 4. Which cellular organelle is characterized by its capacity to translate mRNA?

A

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

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5
Q

(exam 1) 5. Gene expression begins…

A

Begins in the nucleus and ends in the cytoplasm

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6
Q

(exam 1) 6. The genetic code is carried in groups of three nucleotides called a:

A

Codon

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7
Q

(exam 1) 7. What is needed to translate mRNA?

A

T-RNA and ribosomes

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8
Q

(exam 1) 8. AUG on the mRNA is a….

A

Start Codon

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9
Q

(exam 1) 9. The cardiovascular system is responsible for: A. Cognition and homeostatic regulation
B. Transporting waste and nutrients throughout the body.
C. Filtering and cleansing the blood
D. Fighting infection
E. Creating hormones

A

B. Transporting waste and nutrients throughout the body

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10
Q

(exam 1) 10. A nerve cell is surrounded by high concentrations of sodium, which continuously leaks in. How would you describe the movement of sodium?

A

Sodium is moving down its concentration gradient

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11
Q

(exam 1) 11. A red blood cell is placed in a 0% salt solution, which causes it to expand. The solution is described as:

A

Hypotonic to the blood cell

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12
Q

(exam 1) 12. The organelle that is responsible for housing genetic material, and is the control center of the cell, is the:

A

Nucleus

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13
Q

(exam 1) 13. Choose the following statement that is true about gene expression:
A. DNA is made up of nucleotide while RNA is not.
B. Codons code for DNA
C. Anti-codons do not match codons to determine amino acid order
D. tRNA assembles the protein
E. Ribosomes and tRNA translate the mRNA to protein

A

E. Ribosomes and tRNA translate the mRNA to protein

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14
Q 
(exam 1) Which of the following is considered to be a stop codon?
A. AUG
B. AGU
C. UAG
D. UAU
E. AGG
A

C. UAG

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15
Q 
(exam 1) The Sagittal plane creates 
A. Anterior and Posterior Halves
B. Superior and Inferior Halves
C. Angled superior and inferior halves
D. Dorsal and ventral halves
E. Right and left sides of the body
A

E. Right and Left sides of the body

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16
Q

(exam 1) Positive feedback is when…

A

The original stimulus has been amplified

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17
Q

(exam 1) Which quadrant is the liver in?

A

Right upper quadrant

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18
Q

(exam 1) The abdominopelvic quadrants are primarily referred to by: Clinicians or anatomists?

A

Clinicians

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19
Q

(exam 1) The lungs are found in the _____ cavity

A

Pleural

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20
Q

(exam 1) “A 22year old stab victim presents to the emergency room with a collapsed lung. Name the specific cavort directly involved with this injury, and the organ system involved.

A

Pleural; Respiratory system

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21
Q

(exam 1) Which common function do the nervous system and endocrine system share?

A

Homeostatic control of body function

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22
Q 
(exam 1) Globular proteins, such as antibodies and enzymes, would be considered:
A. Water insoluble (non-polar)
B. Lipid Soluble (non-polar)
C. Hydrophobic (non-polar)
D. Lipid soluble (polar)
E. Water soluble (polar)
A

E. Water soluble (polar)

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23
Q

(exam 1) Two pairs of electrons shared equally between two atoms is called a…

A

Double covalent bond

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24
Q

(exam 1) Which specific bond is responsible for the presence of “surface tension” in water?

A

Hydrogen bonds

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25
Q

(exam 1) A lipid molecule does not dissolve into blood plasma, which is mostly composed of water. What characteristics inhibits its solubility?
A. The lipid molecule is polar, therefore hydrophilic.
B. The lipid molecule is hydrophilic
E. The lipid molecule is non-polar, therefore hydrophobic

A

E.

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26
Q

(exam 1) A protein that is characterized by the presence of beta-pleated sheets and alpha helices, and is fully functional, is called a:

A

Tertiary protein

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27
Q

(exam 1) Catabolism is defined as:

A

The breakdown of molecules, which releases energy

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28
Q 
(exam 1) Which of the following forms of molecular movement does not require ATP?
A. Active transport
B. Endocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Intracytosis
A

D. Facilitated Diffusion

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29
Q

(exam 1) An isotonic solution is defined as:

A

A solution which has the same concentration of dissolved particles inside and outside the cell

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30
Q 
(exam 1)  V-snares and T-snares are directly associated with: 
A. Exocytosis
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Endocytosis
E. Diffusion
A

A. Exocytosis

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31
Q 
Catherine proteins are associated with: 
A. Exocytosis
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Endocytosis
E. Diffusion
A

D. Endocytosis

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32
Q 
(exam 1) Which of the following forms of molecular movement uses ATP indirectly?
A. Secondary active transport
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Endocytosis
E. Diffusion
A

A

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33
Q

(exam 1) Which components of a cells cytoskeleton are responsible for transporting contents throughout its internal structure?

A

MICROtubules

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34
Q

(exam 1) Which cytoskeletal protein structure is responsible for endocytosis, exocytosis, and cell movement?

A

MICROfilaments

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35
Q

The Golgi is responsible for:
A. Receiving proteins and modifying them to their final form.
B. producing lipid based products
C. Producing ATP

A

A. Receiving proteins and modifying them to their final form.

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36
Q

(exam 2) Stratified squamous epithelium consists of:
A. A single later of cuboidal cells
B. Multiple layers of cuboidal cells
E. Multiple layers of flat cells

A

E.

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37
Q

(exam 2) When a tissue shows multiple layers of cells that are as tall as they are wide with the grouping is called:

A

Stratified cuboidal epithelial cells

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38
Q

(exam 2) Choose the correct statement regarding the structural characteristics of epithelial tissue:
A. epithelial tissue is avascular
B. Cells are attached by cell junctions
C. Does not cover the surfaces of the body
D. All of the above are correct
E. Only A and B are correct

A

E.

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39
Q 
(exam 2) Under a microscope, the pathologist sees long slender cells with striations. Each cell is multinucleated. In what organ would this muscle tissue be found?
A. Intestines
B. Brain
C. Liver
D. Quadricept
E, The heart
A

The quadricept musccle

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40
Q 
(exam 2) What type of cartilage can be found in the pubic symphysis, meniscus of the knee, intervertebral disks, and can withstand tearing forces?
A. Elastic cartilage
B. Hyaline Cartilage 
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Collagen cartilage 
E. All of the above
A

D. Collagen cartilage

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41
Q

(exam 2) Epithelium which can change shape, and are found in the bladder?

A

Transitional epithelium

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42
Q

(exam 2) Cells which are arranged in a single row, and are taller than they are wide are:

A

Simple columnar epithelium

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43
Q

(exam 2) Which tissue type forms boundaries between environments, secretes, absorbs, and filters substances?

A

Epithelial

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44
Q 
(exam 2) Which polar end of a cell directly binds to the basement membrane?
A. Apical
B. Basal
C. Lateral
D. Superficial
E. Oblique
A

B. Basal

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45
Q

(exam 2) A sebaceous gland “explodes” to release its contents. What is this called?

A

Holocrine secretion

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46
Q

(exam 2) A “pricky” “spiny” or “star shaped” appearance characterizes which of the following layers?

A

Stratum Spinosum

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47
Q

(exam 2) Which specific structure is responsible for epidermal regeneration, production of vitamin D, and melanin production?

A

Stratum Basale

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48
Q 
(exam 2) Deep pressure sensations are detected by:
A. hair follicle receptor
B. Pacinian corpuscle
C. Arrector Receptor
D. Arrector Pili
E. Merkel's disks
A

Pacinian corpuscle

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49
Q

(exam 2) Patient has burns that involve the epidermis and the dermis. Three month later, no signs of burning or scarring. Which type of burn did the patient suffer from, and from which structures did the skin regenerate?

A

Second degree; hair follicles and glands

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50
Q

(exam 2) Dihydrotestosterone is responsible for:

A

Male pattern baldness

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51
Q

(exam 2) In what skeletal region is the femur located?

A

Appendicular

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52
Q

(exam 2) Endochondral ossification utilizes a:

A

Cartilaginous model

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53
Q

(exam 2)Endochondral ossification is characterized by:

A

Cartilaginous cells which develop into long bones

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54
Q

(exam 2) If blood calcium is too low:
A. The thyroid secretes calcitonin and increases blood calcium levels.
D. The parathyroid secretes parathyroid hormone and increases blood calcium levels

A

D.

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55
Q 
(exam 2) Kyphosis is also known as:
A. S-shaped back
B. Hump back
C. Strait back
D. Pregnancy back
A

B. Hump back

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56
Q

(exam 2) Pregnant woman complains of lower pack pain, which spinal position is she in?

A

Lordosis

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57
Q

(exam 2) Melanocytes secrete melanin in vesicles called:

A

Melanosomes

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58
Q

(exam 2) Which cell develops into an osteocyte?

A

Osteoblast

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59
Q 
(exam 2) The hypodermal layer consists of 
A. simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Skeletal muscle tissue
C. Loose areolar connective tissue
E. Adipose tissue
A

E. Adipose tissue

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60
Q

(exam 2) Dermal papillary ridges form:
A. finger prints
B. All of the epidermis
C. CLeavage lines

A

A. finger prints

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61
Q

(exam 2) What region of the long bone contains the epiphyseal line?

A

Metaphysis

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62
Q

(exam 2) A patient suffers from osteoporosis. Physician gives her calcitonin in order for her to maintain bone tissue. What is the expected cell activity after the administration of this drug?

A

Osteoclasts are inhibited, and osteoblasts build bone

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63
Q 
(exam 2) Tightly packed bone arranged in "circular rings" describe: 
A. Spongy bone
B. Compact bone.
C. Cancellous bone
D. Hyaline cartilage
A

B. Compact bone

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64
Q

(exam 2) Which characteristics defines the diaphysis?
A. The diaphysis has mostly compact bone and is on the “shaft” of the long bone
B. The diaphysis has an epiphyseal bone
C. The diaphysis has mostly spongy bone, and is on the “end” of the long bone

A

A.

65
Q 
(exam 2) Resonating the voice and formation of mucus is performed by:
A. Nasal conchea
B. Cribiform plate
C. Ethmoid bone
D. Sinuses
A

D. Sinuses

66
Q 
(exam 2) Which of the following structures is considered part of the appendicular skeleton?
A. sacrum
B. sternum
C. Occipital bone
D. Humerus
E. Atlas
A

D. Humerus

67
Q

(exam 2) Which stratum is responsible for protection ,and is characterized by keratin filled cells in the skin?

A

Stratum Corneum

68
Q

(exam 2) The stratum lucidum is found in:

A

The palms and soles of the feet

69
Q

(exam 2) Smooth muscle is characterized by:
A. No striations, is not influenced by hormones and autonomic nervous system
B. No striations, is influenced by hormones an dthe ANS.

A

B.

70
Q

(exam 2) Tight junctions:
A. connect the internal environments of adjacent cells
B. assist adherence junctions
D. Are primarily important to resist stretch
E. Prevent the passage of the molecules between cells

A

E. Prevent the passage of molecules between cells

71
Q

(exam 2) Which cell junctions are characteristic of cardiac tissue, and allows the flow of electrical ions from one cell to the next?
A. Desmosomes
B. hemidesmosomes
C. Gap junctions

A

C. Gap junctions

72
Q

(exam 2) Desmosomes:
A. Bind the lateral end of cells together
B. Prevent molecules from passing between cells
E. Assist in the binding of epithelial cells through tight junctions

A

A

73
Q

(exam 2) A pathologist observes a cross section of respiratory tissue, and sees cilia on what appears to be stratified epithelium. What is he looking at?
A. Psuedostratified columnar epithelium
B. Statified squamous epi.

A

A.

74
Q

(exam 2) Under a microscope he sees centrally located canals surrounded by rings of bone. He also discovers that the central canals are arranged in the longitudinal direction. Which specific structure is he looking at?

A

Haversion Canal

75
Q

(exam 2) Which spinal position is S shaped?

A

Scoliosis

76
Q

(exam 2) Which region is below T12?

A

Lumbar region L1-L5

77
Q

(exam 2) Water, ion, and protein based secretions, which exit the epidermis through its own duct, and are responsible for “Sweaty hands and feet” are:
A. Eccrine sweat gland
B. Apocrine sweat gland
C. Sebacious gland.

A

A. Eccrine

78
Q

(exam 2) A 1st degree burn is described as:
A. A burn which uses glandular tissue and hair follicles to heal
B. A burn which heals with no scarring

A

B.

79
Q

(exam 2) Capillaries in the dermis serve for:
A. Stimulation of epithelial growth only
B. Gas and nutrient exchange only
E. Gas, nutrient exchange, and temperature regulation only

A

E.

80
Q

(exam 3) Two or more bones meet. This is defined as:
B. Articulation
D. coarticulation

A

B.

81
Q

Smooth muscle is characterized by the following, except:
A. calmodulin
B. Thick filaments have heads along their entire length
D. Sarcomeres
(Other ones describe skeletal muscle)

A

D. Sarcomeres

82
Q

(exam 3) Calcium detachment from calmodulin will cause:
A. Contraction of smooth muscle
B. Relaxation of smooth muscle
C. Relaxation of skeletal muscle

A

B. Relaxation of smooth muscle

83
Q

(exam 3) Action Potentials in skeletal muscle are initiated by:
A. An influx of K+ through chemically gated potassium channels
B. An influx of Na+ through chemically gated sodium channels
C. An efflux of sodium and potassium through electrically gated sodium channels

A

B.

84
Q

(exam 3) Joints function to:
A. Give skeleton calcium and hold fluid together
B. Give skeleton potassium and hold calcium together
E. Give skeleton mobility and hold skeleton together

A

E.

85
Q

(exam 3) Most joints in the body are:
C. Diarthrotic
D. Amphiarthrotic
E. Synarthrotic

A

C.

86
Q 
(exam 3) The articular joint capsule, which encloses the synovial fluid within the cavity, is composed of:
A. Simple columnar epithelium
B. Simple squamous epithelium
D. Loose regular connective tissue
E. Dense irregular connective tissue
A

E.

87
Q

(exam 3) What is the main function of synovial fluid within the joint cavity?

A

Lubricate and nourish articular cartilage

88
Q

(exam 3) Which structures are responsible for producing the filtrate for synovial fluid?
A. Lymphatic capillaries which reside on the synovial capsule
B. Capillary beds from the circulatory system, which reside on the capsule
C. WHite blood cells from the circulatory system which reside on the articulating cartilage

A

B.

89
Q

(exam 3) Fibrous sacs, which contain synovial fluid, and act as “ball bearings” to allow smooth movement where muscles, ligaments, and bones rub together is called:

A

Bursae

90
Q

(exam 3) An elongates bursa, which wraps around a tendon, is called:

A

Tendon Sheath

91
Q

(exam 3) Plane joints slide past one another in multiple directions. What kind of movement would this be?
C. Multiaxial movement of humerus
D. Nonaxial movement of carpal bones
E. Bilateralaxial movement of femur

A

D.

92
Q

(exam 3) Low intracellular skeletal muscle fiber contractions of calcium will cause….

A

Tropomyosin to block the binding sites on actin for myosin heads

93
Q

(exam 3) During the relaxation phase of muscle, calcium will:
C. Get actively transported back to the lysosomes
D. Get actively transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. Diffuse out of the cell into the interstitial space

A

D.

94
Q

(exam 3) T-tubules are continuous with the:
A. Sarcolemma
D. Terminal cisternae

A

A. Sarcolemma

95
Q

(exam 3) How does a muscle fiber rid itself of ACh after it has completed its function on the muscle receptor?

A

Acetylcholinesterase will destroy ACh and remove It from the synapse

96
Q

(exam 3) A marathon runner who has muscles resistant to fatigue most likely has:
A. Slow oxidative fibers (type I)
B. Slow oxidative fibers (type II A)

A

A.

97
Q

(exam 3) Hip replacement is accompanied by the reconstruction of the acetabulum. This joint is also considered to be:
A. Diarthrotic
B. Carilaginous
D. Synarthrotic

A

A. Diarthrotic

98
Q

(exam 3) Which kind of joint is characterized by hyaline cartilage on articular surfaces and a synovial membrane?

A

Synovial

99
Q

(exam 3) A synarthrotic joint is considered to be:
A. Immovable
B. freely movable

A

A.

100
Q

(exam 3) What is the functional classification of a freely movable joint?
A. semiarthrotic
B. Diarthrotic
C. Synarthrotic

A

B.

101
Q

(exam 3) Teeth bound in alveolar sockets. This joint is called:

A

Gomphosis

102
Q

(exam 3) Which organelles are responsible for storing glycogen within a skeletal muscle fiber?

A

Glyocosome

103
Q

(exam 3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum foot proteins:
A. Are responsible for the shortening of the sarcomere
B. Are responsible for the release of calcium to the interior of a muscle fiber

A

B.

104
Q

(exam 3) Complete displacement of bones within the joint are called:
A. Subluxations
B. Dislocations

A

B

105
Q

(exam 3) Which of the following is considered a fibrous joint?
B. lambdoid suture
C. Femoral-coxal joint

A

B.

106
Q

(exam 3) A motor unit is defined as:
A. A neuron which innervates multiple skeletal fibers
B. A neuron which innervates multiple muscle fibers

A

A.

107
Q

(exam 3) Which ligaments prevent anterior and posterior displacement of the knee?
A. Tibial collateral
B. Fibular collateral
C. Posterior Cruciate ligament
D. Anterior Cruciate ligament
E. Both anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

A

E.

108
Q

(exam 3) Why are T-tubules important?
A. They are continuous with the muscle fiber cell membrane and stores calcium within the cell
B. They are continuous with the muscle fiber cell membrane and conduct electrical impulses to the interior of the cell

A

B.

109
Q

(exam 3) The trochlear notch of the ulna and the trochlea of the humerus come together to create the elbow joint. WHat kind of movement is allowed in this joint?
C. Multiaxial
D. Biaxial
E. Uniaxial

A

E

110
Q

(exam 3) The metacarpal-phalangeal joint of the finger has the capacity to move in:
A. Diaxial direction
B. Biaxial direction
C. Uniaxial direction

A

B.

111
Q

(exam 3)Which of the following joints would be considered a multiaxial joint?
A. Gleno-humeral
B. Humeral-ulnar
C. Inter vertebral

A

A.

112
Q

(exam 3) Pointing toes downward. Which type of movement is this?

A

Plantar flexion

113
Q

(exam 3) what is the unhappy triad?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament, Tibial collateral, and medial meniscus

114
Q

(exam 3) What is the result when calcium concentrations increase within a skeletal muscle fiber?

A

Calcium binds to troponin, which leads to actin and myosin cross-bridge cycling and contraction

115
Q

(exam 3) Tropomyosin moves away from active binding sites when…

A

When troponin changes shape, after binding to calcium

116
Q

(exam 3) Indirect muscle attachments (most common) are defined by:
B. Epimysium on the whole muscle remains continuous with the periosteum
C. Epimysium on the whole muscle remains continuous with the tendon

A

C.

117
Q

(exam 3) The thick filament within a sarcomere is composed of:
A. myosin heads and M-lines
B. Myosin tails and myosin heads
C. Myosin tails and M-lines

A

B.

118
Q

(exam 3) Which structure does not directly compose the thin filament?

A

Z-disk

119
Q

(exam 3) Which pathology is described by autoimmune dysfunction, inflammation, and bilateral effect?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

120
Q

(exam 4) Chemically gated potassium channels on the neuronal cell dendrite will initiate:
A. Excitatory post-synaptic potential (EPSP)
D. Inhibitory post-synaptic potential (IPSP)

A

D.

121
Q 
(exam 4) Substance P is a neurotransmitter that is released from the inside of damaged cells, therefore triggering pain sensations. How is substance P categorized?
A. Gas
B. amino acid
C. Biogenic amine
D. Purine
E. Peptide
A

Peptide

122
Q 
(exam 4) Which of the following structures is not found within the diencephalon region of the brain?
A. Thalamus
B. Corpus Quadrigemina
C. Epithalamus
D. pineal gland
A

B.

123
Q

(exam 4) Neurotransmitters can stimulate an effect post-synaptically on a neuron through “direct action”. What action most closely defines “direct action” through the neurotransmitter?
B. The neurotransmitter binds to an external receptor and triggers a second messenger response
C. The neurotransmitter binds to an external receptor and promotes a rapid response
D. The neurotransmitter binds to a nuclear receptor

A

C.

124
Q 
(exam 4) Which structure resides below L2 in the spinal cord and is comprised of spinal nerve roots?
A. Cauda equine
B. Cervical root plexus
C. L4
D. L5
E. Brachial plexus
A

A. Cauda equina

125
Q 
(exam 4) Which structure in the CNS, that lies posterior to the brainstem, is responsible for creating balance, muscle tone, and coordinating fine movements?
A. Pons
B. Midbrain
C. Diencephalon
D. Medulla Oblongata
E. Cerebellum
A

E.

126
Q

(exam 4) Which lobe of the brain is responsible for receiving and processing visual stimulation?

A

Occipital lobe

127
Q

(exam 4) The insula lobe is primarily responsible for?
A. perceiving taste sensation
B. visual perception and sensation
E. none of the above

A

A.

128
Q 
(exam 4) Which of the following is NOT performed by the basal nuclei?
A. Regulate olfactory sensation
B. Regulate attention and cognition
C. Regulate intensity of movement
D. Regulate muscular control
E. Inhibits unnecessary movements
A

A.

129
Q

(exam 4) The spinocerebellar tract is primarily responsible for:
A. Relaying pain and temperature sensation
B. Initiating motor commands which stem from the motor cortex
C. Relaying skeletal muscle and tendon stretch

A

C.

130
Q

(exam 4) Which speech area of the brain is responsible for controlling muscular movement of the tongue?

A

Broca’s area

131
Q 
(exam 4) How does the CNS determine stimulus intensity?
A. By frequency of impulses
B. Frequency of neurotransmitters
C. Frequency of microglial cells
D. Frequency of receptors
A

A.

132
Q

(exam 4) What does it mean for a neuron to be “hyperpolarized”?
A. Potassium channels were slow to close, which allowed excess potassium to rush OUT
B. Potassium channels opened, which allowed potassium to rush in
C. Potassium channels were slow to close, which allowed potassium to not move.

A

A.

133
Q

(exam 4) Patient can understand written and spoken language but cannot make any sounds. Which part of the brain is damaged

A

Again, Broca’s

134
Q

(exam 4) A neuron sends a single neurotransmitter to the dendrites of another neuron (post synaptically). The neurotransmitter triggers the opening of Na+ channels, which allows Na+ to rush into the cell. What kind of NA+ channels are responsible for this action?
Chemical, mechanical, or electrically?

A

Chemically

135
Q

(exam 4) Which descending tract in the spinal cord is responsible for relaying fine motor movements and precise movements of the hands?
A. Spinothalamic tract
B. Dorsal Column
C. Lateral corticospinal tract

A

C

136
Q 
(exam 4) Which brainstem structure contains the corpora quadrigemina?
A. Cerebrum
B. midbrain
C. diencephalon
D. Cerebellum
E. Thalamus
A

B. midbrain

137
Q 
(exam 4) Which hormone does the pineal gland secrete? 
A. Glutamate
B. Serotonin
C. Epinephrine
D. ACh
E. Melatonin
A

E. Melatonin

138
Q

(exam 4) What kind of motor fibers convey impulses from motor neurons, in the CNS, to skeletal muscles?
A. visceral sensory efferents
B. Somatic motor efferents
C. Somatic motor afferents

A

B.

139
Q

(exam 4) Where on the neuron is a “all or nothing” action potential initiated?

A

Axon hillock -_-

140
Q

(exam 4) Why does an action potential get weaker after it’s been initiated on the axon hillock?
A. The AP is initiated in a non-mylenated part of the neuron which causes Na+ to leak out during the AP
B. The AP is initiated in a non-mylenated part of the neuron which causes phosphorous to leak in

A

A.

141
Q 
(exam 4) Which protein channels are primarily responsible for the "deactivation" of an AP down an axon?
A. K+ channels which open
B. K+ channels which close
C. Na+ channels which open
D. Na+ channels which close
E. Chloride channels which open
A

A.

142
Q

(exam 4) A guy smells a perfume and it reminds him of a super old ex. Which structure in the CNS is responsible for this memory association?
A. hypothalamus
B. Pons
D. Habenular nuclei

A

D. ?

143
Q

(exam 4) A patient is dizzy and off balance. Which cranial nerve is directly involved?

A

VIII

144
Q

(exam 4) Whiplash causes damage to cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve) Symptoms of this damage?
A. difficulty moving tongue
B. difficulty shrugging his shoulders and flexing neck
D. difficulty moving the eyes

A

B.

145
Q

(exam 4) If the facial nerve were damaged, it would result in:
A. Difficulty moving the eyes laterally
B. Inability to perceive taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
C. Difficulty creating facial expressions
D. Difficulty moving the lead laterally
E. Both B and C

A

E.

146
Q

(exam 4) Cranial nerve VI is responsible for:
A. movement of the eye laterally
B. Facial expression

A

A

147
Q

(exam 4) The glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for:
A. Taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue and swallowing
B. Movement of the tongue
C. movement of the eye

A

A.

148
Q

(exam 4) The frontal lobe is primarily responsible for:
A. Control of voluntary motor function only
B. Initiation of movement only
C. Controlling aggression and mood only
D. Olfactory reception only
E. All of the above

A

E.

149
Q

(exam 4) The lateral cortical spinal tract is responsible for:
A. Relaying balance sensations
B. Coarse motor movements of the body
C. Relaying pain and temperature sensations
D. Fine motor movements of the hand

A

D.

150
Q

(exam 4) In the PNS, which neuroglial cell provides the myelin sheath?

A

Schwann

151
Q

(exam 4) What does it mean for an action potential to perform saltatory conduction?
A. Potassium channels initiate an action potential within the membrane of a mylenated cell soma
B. Sodium channels initiate an action potential within the node of ranvier between mylenated portions of an axon

A

B.

152
Q

(exam 4) Nodes of ranvier on the membrane of an axon allow:
A. dense groupings of potassium channels to open and stimulate saltatory conduction of an action potential
B. Dense groupings of sodium channels to open and stimulate saltatory conduction of an action potential

A

B.

153
Q

(exam 4) Why is it important for an AP to demonstrate an absolute refractory period?

A

It will ensure that each AP is “all or nothing”, and will allow for ONE WAY transmission of nerve impulses

154
Q

(exam 4) The membrane of a neuron at rest is 75 times more permeable to:
A. Calcium than Na+
B. K+ than Na+
C. Na+ than K+

A

B.

155
Q

(exam 4) An unmyelinated axon means the AP will be….

A

Slow

156
Q

(exam 4) Why is the internal environment of a neuron negatively charged at rest?
A. More sodium leaks in through leaky S channels
B. More sodium leaks our through leaky S channels
C. More potassium leaks out through leaky P channels

A

C

157
Q

(exam 4) Graded potentials:
A. Can be amplified, and decrease in magnitude over any distance
B. Area all or nothing responses to stimulus, and decrease in magnitude over any distance

A

A.

158
Q

(exam 4) A person tastes rotten fruit and vomits. Which cranial nerves are involved?

A

VII (facial) and X (Vagus nerve)

Anatomy and physiology I lecture (14 decks)

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