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JEPBE > Laws - Content > Flashcards

Laws - Content Flashcards

1
Q

The acquisition of rights over the use of waters or the taking or diverting of waters from a natural source in the manner and for any purpose allowed by law

A

Appropriation of water

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2
Q

The privilege granted by the government to appropriate and use water.

A

Water right

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3
Q

Reason why a water permit cannot be granted to an individual

A

His water requirement can be supposed through an irrigation association

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4
Q

The utilization of water in the right amount during the period that the water is needed for producing the benefits for which the water is appropriated. It is the measure and limit of appropriation of water; or the use of the environment or any element or segment thereof conducive to public or private welfare, safety and health

A

Beneficial use of water

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5
Q

An area of land where subterranean or ground water and surface water are so interrelated that withdrawal and use in one similarly affects the other

A

Control area

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6
Q

Empowered to make all decisions and determinations provided for in the Water Code, except in regard to those functions which under this Code are specifically conferred upon other agencies of the government

A

National Water Resources Council, now the National Water Resources Board

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7
Q

In charge of the construction of dams, bridges and other structures across of which may interfere with the flow of navigable or flotable waterways, and declare flood control areas

A

Department of Public Works and Highways

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8
Q

In charge of approving the development of a hot spring for human consumption, establishment of cemeteries and waste disposal areas

A

Department of Health

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9
Q

In charge of approving any works that may produce dangerous or noxious substances or perform any act which may result in the introduction of sewage, industrial waste, or any pollutant into any source of water supply

A

National Pollution Control Commission

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10
Q

The production of substances not found in the natural composition of water that make the water less desirable or unfit desirable or unfit for intended use

A

Contamination

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11
Q

Discharge from known sources which is passed into a body of water or land, or wastewater flowing out of a manufacturing plant, industrial plant including domestic,
commercial and recreational facilities

A

Effluent

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12
Q

Refers to any substance, whether solid, liquid, gaseous or radioactive, which directly or indirectly alters the quality of any segment of the receiving water body to affect or tend to affect adversely any beneficial use thereof

A

Pollutant

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13
Q

The sludge produced on individual onsite wastewater disposal systems, principally septic tanks and cesspools

A

Septage

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14
Q

Water-borne human or animal wastes, excluding oil or oil wastes, removed from residences, building, institutions, industrial and commercial establishments together with such groundwater, surface water and storm water as maybe present including such waste from vessels, offshore structures, other receptacles intended to receive or retain waste or other places or the combination thereof

A

Sewage

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15
Q

Any system or network of pipelines, ditches, channels, or conduits including pumping stations, lift stations and force mains, service connections including other constructions, devices, and appliances appurtenant thereto, which includes the collection, transport, pumping and treatment of sewage to a point of disposal

A

Sewerage

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16
Q

Any solid, semi-solid or liquid waste or residue generated from a wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or water control pollution facility, or any other such waste having similar characteristics and effects.

A

Sludge

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17
Q

Shall be implemented by the DENR in the following types of development:

a) a series of similar projects, or a project subdivided into several phases
b) several components or a cluster of projects co-located in an area

A

Programmatic Environmental Impact Assessment

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18
Q

Where there are no environment and natural resources officers, the local executive concerned may, with the approval of the Secretary of the DENR designate whom?

A

Any of his official and/or chief of office preferably the provincial, city or municipal agriculturist, or any of his employee

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19
Q

The burning of municipal, biomedical and hazardous waste, which process emits poisonous and toxic fumes

A

Incineration

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20
Q

Exceptions to the ban on incineration, based on RA 8749 - Philippine Clean Air Act. (2)

A

(1) Traditional small-scale method of community/neighborhood sanitation “siga”
(2) traditional, agricultural, cultural, health, and food preparation and crematoria

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21
Q

Any matter found in the atmosphere other than oxygen, nitrogen, water vapor, carbon dioxide, and the inert gases in their natural or normal concentrations, that is detrimental to health or the environment, which includes but not limited to smoke, dust, soot, cinders, fly ash, solid particles of any kind, gases, fumes, chemical mists, steam and radio-active substances

A

Air pollutant

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22
Q

Any alteration of the physical, chemical and biological properties of the atmospheric air, or any discharge thereto of any liquid, gaseous or solid substances that will or is likely to create or to render the air resources of the country harmful, detrimental, or injurious to public health, safety or welfare or which will adversely affect their utilization for domestic, commercial, industrial, agricultural, recreational, or other legitimate purposes

A

Air pollution

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23
Q

A geographic-based instrument for planners and decision-makers which present an evaluation of the environmental quality and carrying capacity of an area. It is the result of the integration of primary and secondary data and information on natural resources and anthropogenic activities on the land which are evaluated by various environmental risk assessment and forecasting methodologies that enable the Department to anticipate the type of development control necessary in the planning area

A

Eco-profile

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24
Q

Implements the emission standards for motor vehicles

A

Department of Transportation

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25
Q

Monitors meteorological factors affecting environmental conditions including ozone depletion and greenhouse gases and coordinate with the Department in order to effectively guide air pollution monitoring and standard-setting activities

A

PAGASA

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26
Q

The right to conduct exploration for all minerals in specified areas is issued by whom? How long is the period granted?

A

Mines and Geosciences Bureau, 2 years

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27
Q

An agreement where the Government grants to the contractor the exclusive right to conduct mining operations within a contract area and shares in the gross output. The contractor shall provide the financing, technology, management and personnel necessary for the implementation of this agreement

A

Mineral production sharing agreement

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28
Q

An agreement between the Government and the contractor wherein the Government shall provide inputs to the mining operations other than the mineral resource

A

Co-production agreement

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29
Q

An agreement where a joint-venture company is organized by the Government and the contractor with both parties having equity shares. Aside from earnings in equity, the Government shall be entitled to a share in the gross output

A

Joint venture agreement

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30
Q

Period for the modes of mineral agreement, and renewable for a period of how many years?

A

25 years, and renewable for another term not exceeding 25 years

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31
Q

Period for the term of Financial or Technical Assistance Agreement, and renewable for a period of how many years?

A

25 years, and renewable for another term not exceeding 25 years

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32
Q

Maximum area for quarry permit

A

5 ha

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33
Q

Period for the quarry permit, and renewable for a period of how many years?

A

5 years, and renewable for like periods but not to exceed 25 years

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34
Q

No quarry permit shall be issued or granted for these 2 areas

A

Areas covered by a mineral agreement or financial or technical assistance agreement

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35
Q

Maximum area for commercial sand and gravel permit

A

5 ha

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36
Q

Allowed area for industrial sand and gravel permit

A

More than 5 ha

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37
Q

Period for the industrial sand and gravel permit, and renewable for a period of how many years?

A

5 years, and renewable for like periods but not to exceed 25 years

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38
Q

A contract between the government and a contractor, involving mineral production-sharing agreement, co-production agreement, or joint-venture agreement

A

Mineral agreement

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39
Q

Mining activities involving exploration, feasibility, development, utilization, and processing

A

Mining operation

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40
Q

Searching or prospecting for mineral resources by geological, geochemical or geophysical surveys, remote sensing, test pitting, trenching, drilling, shaft sinking, tunneling or any other means for the purpose of determining the existence, extent, quantity and quality thereof and the feasibility of
mining them for profit

A

Exploration

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41
Q

The work undertaken to explore and prepare an ore body or a mineral deposit for mining, including the construction of necessary infrastructure and related facilities.

A

Development

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42
Q

The extraction or disposition of minerals

A

Utilization

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43
Q

The milling, beneficiation or upgrading of ores or minerals and rocks or by similar means to convert the same into marketable products

A

Mineral processing

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44
Q

All naturally occurring inorganic substance in solid, gas, liquid, or any intermediate state excluding energy materials such as coal, petroleum, natural gas, radioactive materials, and geothermal energy

A

Minerals

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45
Q

A naturally occurring substance or material from which a mineral or element can be mined and/or processed for profit

A

Ore

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46
Q

Refers to any common rock or other mineral substances as the Director of Mines and Geosciences Bureau may declare to be quarry resources such as, but not limited to, andesite, basalt, conglomerate, coral sand, diatomaceous earth, diorite, decorative stones, gabbro, granite, limestone, marble, marl, red burning clays for potteries and bricks, rhyolite, rock phosphate, sandstone, serpentine, shale, tuff, volcanic cinders, and volcanic glass

A

Quarry resources

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47
Q

The process of extracting, removing and disposing quarry resources found on or
underneath the surface of private or public land

A

Quarrying

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48
Q

Primary government agency responsible for the conservation, management, development, and proper use of the State’s mineral resources

A

Department of Environment and Natural Resources

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49
Q

Has direct charge in the administration and disposition of mineral lands and mineral resources

A

Mines and Geosciences Bureau

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50
Q

The ability of ecological, social or economic systems to adjust to climate change including climate variability and extremes, to moderate or offset potential damages and to take advantage of associated opportunities with changes in climate or to cope with the consequences thereof

A

Adaptive capacity

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51
Q

Causes resulting from human activities or produced by human beings

A

Anthropogenic causes

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52
Q

Strategy for making women’s as well as men’s concerns and experiences an integral dimension of the design, implementation, monitoring, and evaluation of policies and programs in all political, economic, and societal spheres so that women and men benefit equally and inequality is not perpetuated. It is the process of assessing the implications for women and men of any planned action, including legislation, policies, or programs in all areas and at all levels

A

Gender mainstreaming

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53
Q

Constituents of the atmosphere that contribute to the greenhouse effect including, but not limited to, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons and sulfur hexafluoride

A

Greenhouse gases

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54
Q

The context of climate change, refers to human intervention to address anthropogenic emissions by sources and removals by sinks of all GHG, including ozone- depleting substances and their
substitutes.

A

Mitigation

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55
Q

An increase in sea level which may be influenced by factors like global warming through expansion of sea water as the oceans warm and melting of ice over land and local factors such as land subsidence.

A

Sea level rise

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56
Q

The degree to which a system is susceptible to, or unable to cope with, adverse effects of climate change, including climate variability and extremes. It is a function of the character,
magnitude, and rate of climate change and variation to which a system is exposed, its sensitivity, and its adaptive capacity

A

Vulnerability

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57
Q

The sole policy-making body of the government which shall be

tasked to coordinate, monitor and evaluate the programs and action plans of the government relating to climate change

A

Climate Change Commission

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58
Q

Composition of the Climate Change Commission

A

Chairperson - President of the Philippines

Commissioners - three, to be appointed by the President

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59
Q

Who declares the state of calamity, national level?

A

Declaration by the President, upon recommendation of the National Council

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60
Q

Who declares the state of calamity, local level?

A

Declaration by the local sanggunian, upon the recommendation of the LDRRMC

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61
Q

4 remedial measures c/o the declaration of state of calamity

A
  1. Price ceiling
  2. Vs. overpricing and hoarding
    3, Reprogramming of funds
  3. No-interest loans
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62
Q

The adjustment in natural or human systems in response to actual or expected climatic stimuli or their effects, which moderates harm or exploits beneficial opportunities

A

Adaptation

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63
Q

The combination of all strengths and resources available within a community, society or organization that can reduce the level of risk, or effects of a disaster. It may include infrastructure and physical means, institutions, societal coping abilities, as well as human knowledge, skills and collective attributes such as social relationships, leadership and management

A

Capacity

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64
Q

A change in climate that can be identified by changes in the mean and/or variability of its properties and that persists for an extended period typically decades or longer, whether due to natural variability or as a result of human activity

A

Climate change

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65
Q

A process of disaster risk reduction and management in which at risk communities are actively engaged in the identification, analysis, treatment, monitoring and evaluation of disaster risks in order to reduce their vulnerabilities and enhance their capacities, and where the people are at the heart of decision-making and implementation of disaster risk reduction and management activities

A

Community-Based Disaster Risk Reduction and Management

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66
Q

A result of the combination of: the exposure to a hazard; the conditions of vulnerability that are present; and insufficient capacity or measures to reduce or cope with the potential negative consequences.

A

Disaster

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67
Q

The concept and practice of reducing disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyze and manage the causal factors of disasters, including through reduced exposures to hazards, lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and the environment, and improved preparedness for adverse events

A

Disaster Risk Reduction

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68
Q

The systematic process of using administrative directives, organizations, and operational skills and capacities to implement strategies, policies and improved coping capacities in order to lessen the adverse impacts of hazards and the possibility of disaster

A

Disaster Risk Reduction and Management

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69
Q

The combination of the probability of an event and its negative consequences

A

Risk

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70
Q

Structural and non-structural measures undertaken to limit the adverse impact of natural hazards, environmental degradation, and technological hazards and to ensure the ability of at-risk communities to address vulnerabilities aimed at minimizing the impact of disasters

A

Mitigation

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71
Q

The ability of a system, community or society exposed to hazards to resist, absorb, accommodate and recover from
the effects of a hazard in a timely and efficient manner, including through the preservation and restoration of its essential basic structures and functions

A

Resilience

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72
Q

A condition involving mass casualty and/or major damages to property, disruption of means of livelihoods, roads
and normal way of life of people in the affected areas as a result of the occurrence of natural or human-induced
hazard

A

State of Calamity

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73
Q

The characteristics and circumstances of a community, system or asset that make it susceptible to the damaging
effects of a hazard

A

Vulnerability

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74
Q

Where does the Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Fund come from, and the percentages?

A

Not less than 5% of the estimated revenue

from regular sources

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75
Q

Percentage of the Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Fund allocated as Quick Response Fund (QRF) or stand-by fund for relief and recovery programs

A

30%

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76
Q

Where does the National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Fund come from, and its previous name?

A

Previously the Calamity Fund appropriated under the annual General Appropriations

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77
Q

Percentage of the National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Fund allocated as Quick Response Fund (QRF) or stand-by fund

A

30%

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78
Q

Chairperson of the National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council

A

Secretary of the Department of National Defense

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79
Q

Vice Chairperson for Disaster Preparedness

A

DILG Secretary

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80
Q

Vice Chairperson for Disaster Response

A

DSWD Secretary

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81
Q

Vice Chairperson for Disaster Prevention and Mitigation

A

DOST Secretary

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82
Q

Executive Director of the National Council

A

OCD Administrator

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83
Q

4 ways by which public lands suitable for agricultural purposes can be disposed of

A

(1) For homestead settlement
(2) By sale
(3) By lease
(4) By confirmation of imperfect or incomplete titles:
- By judicial legalization
- By administrative legalization (free patent).

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84
Q

Homestead maximum area

A

24 ha

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85
Q

Sale of public agricultural land maximum area, for Filipino citizens of lawful age

A

144 ha

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86
Q

Sale of public agricultural land maximum area, for corporation or association at least 60% Filipino interest

A

1,024 ha

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87
Q

Lease of public agricultural land maximum area, for Filipino citizens of lawful age

A

1,024 ha

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88
Q

Lease of public agricultural land maximum area, for corporation or association at least 60% Filipino interest

A

1,024 ha

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89
Q

Lease of public agricultural land maximum area, for grazing purposes

A

2,000 ha

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90
Q

Period for lease of public agricultural land, and period for renewal

A

Not more than 25 years, but may be renewed once for another period
of not to exceed 25 years

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91
Q

Free patent maximum area, for natural-born citizens of the Philippines

A

24 ha

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92
Q

The Public Land Act does not apply to these four

A
  1. timber lands
  2. mineral lands
  3. friar lands
  4. reverted private property
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93
Q

3 classifications of lands of public domain

A

(a) Alienable or disposable
(b) Timber
(c) Mineral lands

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94
Q

4 classification of uses of A&D lands

A

(a) Agricultural
(b) Residential commercial industrial or for similar productive purposes
(c) Educational, charitable, or other similar purposes
(d) Reservations for town sites and for public and quasi-public uses

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95
Q

No land of the public domain ___ in slope or over shall be classified as ___

A

18%, A&D

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96
Q

No forest land ___ in slope or over shall be classified as ___

A

50%, grazing land

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97
Q

3 exceptions to when lands 18% in slope or over which have already been declared as alienable and disposable shall be reverted to the classification of forest lands

A

(1) covered by existing titles
(2) occupied openly, continuously for a
period of not less than thirty (30) years
(3) where the occupant is qualified for a free patent under the Public Land Act

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98
Q

Boundaries of forest lands are clearly marked and maintained at intervals of ___

A

Not more than 500 meters

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99
Q

The maximum period of any privilege to harvest timber, and renewable period

A

25 years, not exceeding twenty-five years

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100
Q

Lease period for industrial tree plantations and tree farms, and renewable period

A

25 years, renewable for another period not exceeding twenty-five 25 years

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101
Q

Minimum area for industrial tree plantations and tree farms

A

1,000 ha for industrial tree plantations

100 ha for tree farms

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102
Q

No lease shall be granted within ___

A

Critical watersheds

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103
Q

The mass of lands of the public domain which has not been the subject of the present system of classification for the determination of which lands are needed for forest purposes and which are not

A

Public forest

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104
Q

Those lands of the public domain which have been the subject of the present system of classification and determined to be needed for forest purposes

A

Permanent forest or forest reserves

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105
Q

Those lands of the public domain which have been the subject of the present system of classification and declared as not needed for forest purposes

A

Alienable and disposable lands

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106
Q

A land area drained by a stream or fixed body of water and its tributaries having a common outlet for surface run-off

A

Watershed

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107
Q

A drainage area of a river system supporting existing and proposed hydro-electric power and irrigation works needing immediate rehabilitation as it is being subjected to a fast denudation causing accelerated erosion and destructive floods. It is closed from logging until it is fully rehabilitated

A

Critical watershed

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108
Q

Type of forest occurring on tidal flat along the sea coast, extending along streams where the water is brackish

A

Mangrove

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109
Q

These 10 lands, even if they are below 18% in slope, are needed for forest purposes, and may not, therefore, be classified as alienable and disposable land

A
  1. Areas less than 250 hectares which are not contiguous with any certified alienable
    and disposable land;
  2. Isolated patches of forest of at least 5 hectares ;
  3. Areas which have already been reforested;
  4. Areas within forest concessions which are timbered;
  5. Ridge tops and plateaus where headwaters emanate;
  6. Appropriately located road-rights-or-way;
  7. 20 meter strips of land along the edge of the normal high waterline of rivers and streams;
  8. Strips of mangrove or swamplands at least 20 meters wide;
  9. Areas needed for other purposes, such as national parks, national historical sites, game refuges and wildlife sanctuaries, forest station sites, and others of public interest; and
  10. Areas previously proclaimed by the President as forest reserves, national parks, game refuge, bird sanctuaries, national shrines, national historic sites
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110
Q

These 8 forest lands shall be reforested and covered with suitable and sufficient trees,

A

(a) Bare or grass-covered tracts of forest lands with at least 50% slope;
(b) Bare or grass-covered tracts of forest lands with less than fifty per cent 50% slope, but with soil so highly erodible;
(c) Brushlands or tracts of forest lands generally covered with brush;
(d) Open tracts of forest lands with slopes or gradients generally exceeding 50%,
interspersed with patches of forest each of which is less than 250 hectares in area;
(e) Denuded or inadequately-timbered areas proclaimed by the President as forest reserves and reservations as critical watersheds, national parks, game refuge, bird sanctuaries, national shrines, national historic sites;
(f) Inadequately-stocked forest lands within forest concessions;
(g) Portions of areas covered by pasture leases or permits having a slope of at least 50%; and
(h) River banks, easements, road rights-of-ways, deltas, swamps, former river beds, and beaches

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111
Q

Swamplands that are ___ or ____ shall revert to forest land category when released to BFAR

A

(1) not utilized or

(2) abandoned for 5 years from release

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112
Q

Has administrative jurisdiction over alienable and disposable lands

A

Bureau of Lands

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113
Q

Has administrative jurisdiction over mangroves and other swamps

A

Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources

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114
Q

In no case shall retention by the landowner exceed ___, and ___ may be awarded to each child of the landowner

A

5 ha to the landowner

3 ha to each child of the landowner

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115
Q

2 qualifications of child of landowner

A

(1) that he is at least fifteen (15) years of age; and

(2) that he is actually tilling the land or directly managing the farm

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116
Q

No qualified beneficiary may own more than ___ of

agricultural land

A

3 ha

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117
Q

Landholdings of landowners with a total area of ___ and below shall not be covered for acquisition and distribution to qualified beneficiaries

A

5 ha

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118
Q

4 lands covered by the CARP

A

(a) All alienable and disposable lands of the public domain devoted to or suitable for agriculture;
(b) All lands of the public domain in excess of the specific limits;
(c) All other lands owned by the Government devoted to or suitable for
agriculture; and
(d) All private lands devoted to or suitable for agriculture

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119
Q

Redistribution of lands, regardless of crops or fruits produced, to farmers and regular farmworkers who are landless, irrespective of tenurial arrangement, to include the totality of factors and support services designed to lift the economic status of the beneficiaries and all other arrangements alternative to the physical redistribution of lands, such as production or profit-sharing, labor administration, and the distribution of shares of stocks, which will allow beneficiaries to receive a just share of the fruits of the lands they work

A

Agrarian reform

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120
Q

Refers to any controversy relating to tenurial arrangements, whether leasehold, tenancy, stewardship or otherwise, over lands devoted to agriculture, including disputes concerning farmworkers’ associations or representation of persons in negotiating, fixing, maintaining, changing, or seeking to arrange terms or conditions of such tenurial arrangements.

A

Agrarian dispute

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121
Q

Refers to any agricultural land not cultivated, tilled or developed to produce any crop nor devoted to any specific economic purpose continuously for a period of 3 years immediately prior to the receipt of notice of acquisition by the government as provided

A

Idle or abandoned land (CARP)

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122
Q

Qualified beneficiaries for CARP (8)

A
  1. landless residents of the same barangay
  2. landless residents of the same
    municipality
    (a) agricultural lessees and share tenants;
    (b) regular farmworkers;
    (c) seasonal farmworkers;
    (d) other farmworkers;
    (e) actual tillers or occupants of public lands;
    (f) collectives or cooperatives of the above beneficiaries; and
    (g) others directly working on the land
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123
Q

5 exemptions from UDHA

A

(a) Those included in the coverage of CARP;
(b) Those actually used for national defense and security of the State;
(c) Those used, reserved or otherwise set aside for government offices;
(d) Those used or set aside to maintain ecological balance or environmental protection
(e) Those used for religious, charitable, or educational purposes, cultural and historical sites, hospitals and health centers, and cemeteries or memorial parks

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124
Q

Areas where the structures are dilapidated, obsolete and unsanitary, tending to depreciate the value of the land and prevent normal development and use of the area

A

Blighted lands

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125
Q

Nonagricultural lands urban and urbanized areas on which no improvements, as herein defined, have been made by the owner, as certified by the city, municipal or provincial assessor

A

Idle lands (UDHA)

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126
Q

The acquisition of lots of varying ownership through purchase or expropriation for the purpose of planned and rational development and socialized housing programs without individual property boundary restrictions

A

Land assembly or consolidation

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127
Q

Acquisition of land at values based on existing use in advance of actual need to promote planned development and
socialized housing programs

A

Land banking

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128
Q

Process of land acquisition by exchanging land for another piece of land of equal value, or for shares of stock in a government or quasi-government corporation whose book value is of equal value to the land being exchanged,
for the purpose of planned and rational development and provision for socialized housing where land values are determined based on land classification, market value and assessed value taken from existing tax
declarations

A

Land swapping

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129
Q

The rational approach of allocating available land resources as equitably as possible among competing user groups
and for different functions consistent with the development plan of the area

A

Land use plan (UDHA)

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130
Q

Individuals or groups who occupy lands without the express consent of the landowner and who have sufficient income for legitimate housing

A

Professional squatters

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131
Q

Areas identified by the appropriate national agency or by the local government unit with respect to areas within its jurisdiction, which shall be used for the relocation of the underprivileged and homeless citizens

A

Resettlement areas

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132
Q

The program of the National Housing Authority of upgrading and improving blighted squatter areas outside of Metro Manila pursuant to existing statutes and pertinent executive issuances

A

Slum Improvement and Resettlement Program (SIR)

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133
Q

The process of upgrading and rehabilitation of blighted and slum urban areas with a view of minimizing displacement of dwellers in said areas, and with provisions for basic services as provided for in Section 21 hereof

A

On-site development

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134
Q

Housing programs and projects covering houses and lots or homelots only, or residential condominium units only undertaken by the government or the private sector for the underprivileged and
homeless citizens which shall include sites and services development, long-term financing, liberalized terms on interest payments, and such other benefits

A

Socialized housing

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135
Q

Beneficiaries of this Act and to individuals or families residing in urban and urbanizable areas whose income or combined household income falls within the poverty threshold as defined by the
National Economic and Development Authority and who do not own housing facilities

A

Underprivileged and homeless citizens

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136
Q

Lands in urban and urbanizable areas which are not registered with the Register of Deeds, or with the city or municipal assessor’s office concerned, or which are uninhabited by the owner and have not
been developed or devoted for any useful purpose, or appears unutilized for a period of 3 consecutive years immediately prior to the issuance and receipt or publication of notice of acquisition by the government

A

Unregistered or abandoned lands (UDHA)

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137
Q

Program of the National Housing Authority of upgrading and improving blighted squatters areas within the cities and municipalities of Metro Manila

A

Zonal Improvement Program (ZIP)

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138
Q

Priorities in the Acquisition of Land, for socialized housing (6)

A

(a) Those owned by the government;
(b) Alienable lands of the public domain;
(c) Unregistered or abandoned and idle lands;
(d) Those within the declared Areas for Priority Development, Zonal Improvement Program sites, and Slum Improvement and Resettlement Program sites which have not yet been acquired;
(e) Bagong Lipunan Improvement of Sites and Services or BLISS sites which have not yet been acquired; and
(f) Privately-owned lands.

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139
Q

Expropriation proceedings shall be instituted if, after the lapse of ___ following receipt of notice of acquisition, the owner fails to introduce improvements

A

1 year

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140
Q

Exemptions to the expropriation of idle lands (UDHA) (2)

A

(1) residential lands owned by small property owners

(2) ownership of which is subject of a pending litigation

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141
Q

4 eligibility criteria for socialized housing program beneficiaries

A

(a) Must be a Filipino citizen;
(b) Must be an underprivileged and homeless citizen;
(c) Must not own any real property whether in the urban or rural areas; and
(d) Must not be a professional squatter or a member of squatting syndicates

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142
Q

Developers of proposed subdivision projects shall be required to develop an area for socialized housing equivalent to ___ of the total subdivision area or total subdivision project cost

A

15% (UDHA); 20% (RA 10884)

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143
Q

The balanced housing development as herein required may also be complied with by the developers concerned in any of the following 4 ways:

A

(a) Development of socialized housing in a new settlement;
(b) Slum upgrading or renewal of areas for priority development (not anymore based on RA 10884);
(c) Joint-venture projects with either the local government units or any of the housing agencies; or
(d) Participation in the community mortgage program

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144
Q

4 basic services be provided by the

local government unit or the National Housing Authority

A

(a) Potable water;
(b) Power and electricity;
(c) Sewerage facilities and a solid waste disposal system; and
(d) Access to primary roads and transportation facilities

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145
Q

4 entities charged with identifying and effectively curtailing the nefarious and illegal activities of professional squatters and squatting syndicates

A
  1. LGU
  2. PNP
  3. Presidential Commission for the Urban Poor
  4. PCUP-accredited urban poor organization
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146
Q

Eviction or demolition may be allowed under the following 3 situations

A

(a) When persons or entities occupy danger areas and other public places;
(b) When government infrastructure projects with available funding are about to be implemented; or
(c) When there is a court order for eviction and demolition

147
Q

Mortgage financing program of the National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation which assists legally organized associations of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a tract of land under the concept of community ownership

A

Community Mortgage Program (CMP)

148
Q

An area possessing some outstanding ecosystem, features and/or species of flora and fauna of national scientific importance maintained to protect nature and maintain processes in an undisturbed state in order to have ecologically representative examples of the natural environment available for scientific study, environmental monitoring, education, and for the maintenance of genetic resources in a dynamic and evolutionary state

A

Strict nature reserve

149
Q

A relatively large area not materially altered by human activity where extractive resource uses are not allowed and maintained to protect outstanding natural and scenic areas of national or
international significance for scientific, educational and recreational use

A

Natural park

150
Q

A relatively small area focused on protection of small features to protect or preserve nationally significant natural features on account of their special interest or unique characteristics

A

Natural monument

151
Q

Comprises an area which assures the natural conditions necessary to protect nationally significant species, groups of species, biotic communities or physical features of the environment where
these may require specific human manipulations for their perpetuation

A

Wildlife sanctuary

152
Q

Areas of national significance which are characterized by the harmonious interaction of man and land while providing opportunities for public enjoyment through the recreation and tourism within the normal lifestyle and economic activity of these areas

A

Protected landscapes and seascapes

153
Q

An extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited area normally with difficult
access designated as such to protect natural resources of the area for future use and prevent or contain development activities that could affect the resource pending the establishment of objectives which are based upon appropriate knowledge and planning

A

Resource reserve

154
Q

An area set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the
environment to adapt to modern technology at their pace

A

Natural biotic areas

155
Q

The classification and administration of all designated protected areas to maintain essential ecological processes and life-support systems, to preserve genetic diversity, to ensure sustainable use of resources found therein, and to maintain their natural conditions to
the greatest extent possible

A

National Integrated Protected Areas System (NIPAS)

156
Q

Identified portions of land and water set aside by reason of their unique physical and biological significance, managed to enhance biological diversity and protected against destructive human exploitation

A

Protected Area

157
Q

identified areas outside the boundaries of and immediately adjacent to designated protected areas pursuant to Section 8 that need special development control in order to avoid or minimize harm to the protected area

A

Buffer zones

158
Q

A forest reservation essentially of natural wilderness character which has been withdrawn from settlement, occupancy or any form of exploitation except in conformity with approved management plan and set aside as such exclusively to conserve the area or preserve the scenery, the natural and historic objects, wild animals and plants therein and to provide enjoyment of these features in such areas

A

National park

159
Q

Procedure to disestablish a protected area

A

Requires act of Congress, and recommendation of DENR

160
Q

The administration and management of NIPAS falls to whom

A

DENR, through the Protected Areas and Wildlife Division (under the supervision of the Regional Technical Director)

161
Q

Composition of the Protected Area Management Board (8)

A

(1) The Regional Executive Director;
(2) 1 representative from the autonomous regional government, if applicable;
(3) the Provincial Development Officer;
(4) 1 representative from the municipal government;
(5) 1 representative from each barangay covering the protected area;
(6) 1 representative from each tribal community, if applicable; and,
(7) at least 3 representatives from non-government organizations/local community
organizations, and if necessary,
(8) 1 representative from other departments or national government agencies involved in protected area management.

162
Q

Required for proposals for activities outside the scope of the management plan for protected areas

A

Environmental Impact Assessment

163
Q

Actual implementation of activities outside the scope of the management plan for protected areas requires an ___

A

Environmental Compliance

Certificate (ECC)

164
Q

2 exceptions to survey for energy resources

A

Strict nature reserves and natural parks

165
Q

Selected areas with highly developed or which have the potential to be developed into agroindustrial, industrial tourist/recreational, commercial, banking, investment and financial centers

A

Special Economic Zones (SEZ) or ECOZONES

166
Q

A tract of land subdivided and developed according to a comprehensive plan under a unified continuous management and with provisions for basic infrastructure and utilities, with or without pre-built standard factory buildings and community facilities for the use of the community of industries

A

Industrial Estate (IE)

167
Q

A specialized industrial estate located physically and/or administratively outside customs territory, predominantly oriented to export production. Enterprises located in these zones are allowed to import capital equipment and raw materials free from duties, taxes and other import restrictions

A

Export Processing Zone (EPZ)

168
Q

An isolated policed area adjacent to a port of entry (as a seaport) and/or airport where imported goods may be unloaded for immediate transshipment or stored, repacked, sorted, mixed, or otherwise manipulated without being subject to import duties. However, movement of these imported goods from the free-trade area to a non-free-trade area in the country shall be subject to import duties

A

Free Trade Zone

169
Q

Procedure for the establishment of ECOZONES

A

Proclamation by the President of the Philippines, upon the evaluation and recommendation of the PEZA

170
Q

Criteria for the establishment of other ECOZONES (8)

A

(a) The proposed area must be identified as a regional growth center in the Medium-Term Philippine
Development Plan or by the Regional Development Council;
(b) The existence of required infrastructure in the proposed ECOZONE;
(c) The availability of water source and electric power supply;
(d) The extent of vacant lands available for future expansion of the ECOZONE;
(e) The availability of skilled, semi-skilled and non-skilled trainable labor force;
(f) The area must have a significant incremental advantage over the existing economic zones;
(g) The area must be strategically located; and
(h) The area must be situated where controls can easily be established to curtail smuggling activities

171
Q

The ECOZONE shall be managed and operated by the ___ as ____

A

Philippine Economic Zone Authority, separate customs territory

172
Q

Conditions for permanent resident status to investor, his spouse, and children under 21 years old within the ECOZONE

A

Initial investment shall not be less than $150,000.00

173
Q

Working visas for foreign executives and other aliens shall be renewable every ___

A

2 years

174
Q

Exemption from national and local taxes in ECOZONES: ___ on gross income, except for real property taxes on land owned
by developers

A

5%, with 3% to the National Government and 2% to the municipality or city

175
Q

Period of lease for foreign investors, and renewable period

A

Not exceeding 50 years, renewable once for a period of not more than 25 years

176
Q

Supervisory, technical or advisory capacity in ECOZONES shall not exceed ___ of its workforce without the express authorization of the Secretary of Labor and Employment

A

5%

177
Q

A body corporate attached to the Department of Trade and

Industry

A

Philippine Economic Zone Authority (PEZA)

178
Q

Director General of PEZA shall have the rank of ____

A

Department undersecretary

179
Q

NPAAAD

A

Network of Protected Areas for Agricultural and Agro-industrial Development

180
Q

Agricultural areas identified by the Department through the Bureau of
Soils and Water Management in coordination with the National Mapping
and Resources Information Authority

A

Network of Protected Areas for Agricultural and Agro-industrial Development

181
Q

SAFDZ

A

Strategic Agriculture and Fisheries Development Zones

182
Q

ARC

A

Agrarian Reform Communities

183
Q

These shall serve as centers where development in the agriculture and fisheries sectors are catalyzed in an environmentally and socio-cultural sound manner

A

Strategic Agriculture and Fisheries Development Zones

184
Q

No conversion within ___ from effectivity of AFMA

A

5 years

185
Q

Not more than ___ of the said lands located within the SAFDZ

may be converted.

A

5%

186
Q

A barangay at the minimum or a cluster of contiguous barangays where there is a
critical mass of farmers or farm workers and which features the main thrust of agrarian development land tenure improvement and effective delivery of support services

A

Agrarian Reform Community

187
Q

The development, adoption, manufacture and application of appropriate location specific, and cost-effective agricultural technology using human, animal, mechanical, electrical and other nonconventional sources of energy for agricultural production and post-harvest operations consistent with agronomic conditions and for efficient and economic farm management

A

Agricultural Mechanization

188
Q

The process of transforming the agriculture and fisheries sectors into one that is dynamic, technologically advanced and competitive yet centered on human development guided by the sound practices of sustainability and the principles of social justice

A

Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization

189
Q

Duly registered associations of persons with a common bond of interest who have voluntarily joined together to achieve a lawful common social and economic end, making equitable contributions to the capital required and accepting a fair share of the risks and benefits of the undertaking in accordance with universally accepted cooperatives principles

A

Cooperatives

190
Q

The manner of utilizing the land, including its allocation, development and management

A

Land use

191
Q

A document embodying a set of policies accompanied by maps and similar
illustrations which represent the community-deserved pattern of population distribution and a proposal for the future allocation of land to the various land-using activities, in accordance with the social and economic objectives of the people.

A

Land use plan (AFMA)

192
Q

The act of defining the allocation, utilization, development and management of all lands within a given territory or jurisdiction according to the inherent qualities of the land itself and supportive of sustainable, economic, demographic, socio-cultural and environmental
objectives as an aid to decision-making and legislation

A

Land use planning

193
Q

The undertaking of any development activity, the results of which modify or alter the physical characteristics of the agricultural lands to render them suitable for non-agricultural purposes, without an approved order of conversion from the
DAR

A

Premature Conversion of Agricultural Land

194
Q

A local legislation approving the development land use plan and providing for the regulations and other conditions on the uses of land including the limitation of the infrastructure that may be placed within the territorial jurisdiction of a city or municipality

A

Zoning Ordinance

195
Q

The process by which the economy is transformed from one that is predominantly agricultural to one that is dominantly industrial and service-oriented

A

Rural Industrialization

196
Q

The areas within the NAPAAD identified for production, agro-Processing and marketing activities to help develop and modernize, either the support of government, the agriculture and fisheries sectors in an
environmentally and socio-cultural sound manner

A

Strategic Agriculture and Fisheries Development Zones

197
Q

Threshold for micro enterprises

A

Not more than P 1,500,000

198
Q

Threshold for small enterprises

A

P 1,500,001 to P 15,000,000

199
Q

Threshold for medium enterprises

A

P15,000,001 to P 60,000,000

200
Q

2 entities that may adjust the values for SMEs as deemed necessary

A

Department of Agriculture and Congressional Oversight Committee on Agricultural and Fisheries Modernization

201
Q

Penalty for agricultural inactivity: any person or juridical entity knowingly or deliberately causes any irrigated agricultural lands ___ or larger to lie idle and unproductive

A

7 ha

202
Q

Penalty for agricultural inactivity: for a period exceeding one (1) year

A

Subject to an idle land tax and

required to make the lands agriculturally productive

203
Q

Penalty for agricultural inactivity: for a period exceeding two (2) years

A

Subject to escheat proceedings

204
Q

AFMA

A

Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization Act

205
Q

In charge of identification of the SAFDZ within the NPAAAD

A

Department of Agriculture

206
Q

In charge of mapping of network of areas for agricultural and agro-industrial development for all municipalities, cities and an appropriate scale

A

Bureau of Soils and Water Management (BSWM), in coordination with the National Mapping and Resource Information Authority (NAMRIA) and the Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (HLURB)

207
Q

In charge of infrastructure support aspect of the plan order to accomplish networking of related infrastructure facilities (AFMA)

A

Department of Public Works and Highways

208
Q

In charge of mobilizing resources under the control of local government units (AFMA)

A

Department of Interior and Local Government

209
Q

In charge of setting and implementing standards for fresh, primary-and-secondary-processed agricultural and fishery product

A

Bureau of Agriculture and Fisheries Product Standards

210
Q

An entity duly incorporated under Batas Pambansa Blg. 68, otherwise known as The Corporation Code of the Philippines, and other relevant laws, and which shall administer and supervise each TEZ

A

Tourism Enterprise Zones operator

211
Q

A person appointed by the Board of Directors of a TEZ operator who shall be responsible for implementing the policies, plans and projects of the TEZ operator

A

Tourism Enterprise Zones administrator

212
Q

A new or pioneer development

A

Greenfield Tourism Zone

213
Q

An area with existing infrastructure or development

A

Brownfield Tourism Zone

214
Q

TIEZA

A

Tourism Infrastructure And Enterprise Zone Authority

215
Q

The management of all resources that meets the needs of tourists and host regions while protecting the opportunities for the future, in such a way that economic, social and aesthetic needs can be fulfilled while maintaining cultural integrity, essential ecological processes, biological diversity and life support systems

A

Sustainable tourism development

216
Q

An enterprise located within a TEZ that is duly-registered with the TIEZA

A

Registered enterprise

217
Q

Facilities, services and attractions involved in tourism

A

Tourism enterprises

218
Q

Travel and tour services; land, sea and air transport services exclusively for tourist use; accommodation establishments; convention and exhibition organizers; tourism estate management services; and such other enterprises as may be identified by the Secretary

A

Primary tourism enterprises

219
Q

All other tourism enterprises

A

Secondary tourism enterprises

220
Q

3 entities attached to the Department and operate under their respective charters, which may be authorized to operate TEZs, under the supervision of the TIEZA

A

Intramuros Administration
National Parks Development Committee
Nayong Pilipino Foundation

221
Q

Prior to appointment, every tourism officer must have obtained a relevant bachelor’s degree and at least ___ years of substantial involvement in the tourism industry

A

5 years

222
Q

Fiscal Incentives Available to TEZ Operators and Registered Enterprises (5)

A

a) Income Tax Holiday.
b) Gross Income Taxation
c) 100% exemption on taxes and customs duties
d) Tax credit on locally-sourced goods and services
e) Social Responsibility Incentive

223
Q

Mandate: the primary planning, programming, coordinating, implementing and regulatory government agency in the
development and promotion of the tourism industry, both domestic and international, in coordination with attached agencies and other government instrumentalities

A

Department of Tourism

224
Q

A body corporate under the supervision of the Secretary and attached to the Department for purposes of program and
policy coordination

A

Tourism Infrastructure and Enterprise Zone Authority

225
Q

Mandate: designate, regulate and supervise the TEZs established under this Act, as well as develop, manage and supervise tourism infrastructure projects in the country

A

Tourism Infrastructure and Enterprise Zone Authority

226
Q

Mandate: responsible for marketing and promoting the Philippines domestically and
internationally as a major global tourism destination, highlighting the uniqueness and assisting the development of its tourism products and services, with the end in view of increasing tourist arrivals and tourism investment

A

Tourism Promotions Board

227
Q

Mandate: operate the duty- and tax-free merchandising system in the Philippines to
augment the service facilities for tourists and to generate foreign exchange and revenue for the government

A

Duty Free Philippines Corporation

228
Q

Undertakes measures to provide the standard basic dive rules to all levels or kinds of divers, regulate scuba sports and technical diving in the country and ensure the safety of the sport through the formulation of policies pursuant thereto, in coordination with the Office of Tourism Standards and Regulations

A

Philippine Commission on Sports Scuba Diving

229
Q

Washing clothes or bathing within a radius of ___ from any well or other source
of drinking water is prohibited

A

25 meters

230
Q

No artesians, deep or shallow well shall be constructed within ___ from any
source of pollution

A

25 meters

231
Q

No radioactive sources or materials shall be stored within a radius of ___ from
any well or source of drinking water

A

25 meters

232
Q

No grocery or sari-sari store shall be established within a distance of ___ from any source of contamination

A

25 meters

233
Q

Septic tanks shall not be constructed under any building and within ___ from any source of water supply

A

25 meters

234
Q

A burial ground shall at least be ___ distant from any dwelling house and no
house shall be constructed within the same distance from any burial ground

A

25 meters

235
Q

No burial ground shall be located within ___ from either side of a river or within ___ from any source of water supply

A

50 meters, 50 meters

236
Q

What requires health certificates?

A

Employment in any food establishment requires a Health Certificate issued by the local health authority

237
Q

4 issuing authorities for death certificate

A

(1) attending physician
(2) mayor
(3) secretary of the municipal
board, or
(4) councilor of the municipality

238
Q

Issues regulations on the shipment of remains

A

Bureau of Quarantine

239
Q

Depth of graves where remains are buried

A

1.5 meters

240
Q

No unembalmed remains shall remain unburied longer than ___ after death; if
death caused by communicable disease, within ___

A

48 hours; 12 hours

241
Q

Permissible periods to disinter for non-dangerous communicable diseases and for communicable diseases

A

Non-dangerous communicable diseases: 3 years after burial

Communicable diseases: 5 years after burial

242
Q

Undertakes the promotion and preservation of the health of the people and raise the health standards of individuals and communities throughout
the Philippines

A

Department of Health

243
Q

Promulgates rules and regulations for the proper implementation and enforcement of the provisions of the Code on Sanitation

A

Secretary

244
Q

Are responsible for staff activities involving the development of plans, programs, operating standards and management techniques in their respective field of assignment

A

Bureau of Directors

245
Q

Administer health functions in their regions, implement policies, standards and programs involving health services and enforce the provisions of the Code of Sanitation; act on applications for the establishment of burial grounds

A

Regional Directors

246
Q

Administers health functions in areas under their jurisdiction and enforce the
provisions of the Code of Sanitation; cause an inspection and evaluation of every food establishment requiring a permit for
its operations, at least every six months; and administer city or municipal cemeteries

A

Provincial/Municipal/City Health Officer

247
Q

Shall employ an adequate number of personnel and shall reserve appropriate tracts of land under their jurisdiction for cemeteries

A

Local Government

248
Q

Refers to all areas generally belonging to
ICCs/IPs comprising lands, inland waters, coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a claim of ownership, occupied or possessed by ICCs/IPs, by themselves or through their ancestors, communally or individually since time immemorial, continuously to the present

A

Ancestral Domains

249
Q

Refers to land occupied, possessed and utilized by individuals, families and clans who are members of the ICCs/IPs since time immemorial, by themselves or through their predecessors-in-interest, under claims of individual or traditional group ownership, continuously, to the present

A

Ancestral lands

250
Q

Refers to a group of people or homogenous societies identified by self-ascription and ascription by others, who have continuously lived as organized community on communally bounded and defined territory, and who have, under claims of ownership since time immemorial, occupied, possessed and utilized such territories, sharing common bonds of language, customs, traditions and other
distinctive cultural traits, or who have, through resistance to political, social and cultural inroads of colonization, non-indigenous religions and cultures, became historically differentiated from the majority of Filipinos

A

Indigenous Cultural Communities/Indigenous Peoples

251
Q

The consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs to be determined in accordance with their respective customary laws and
practices, free from any external manipulation, interference and coercion

A

Free and Prior Informed Consent

252
Q

Refers to a body of written and/or unwritten rules, usages, customs and
practices traditionally and continually recognized, accepted and observed by respective ICCs/IPs

A

Customary Laws

253
Q

Refers to pre-conquest rights to lands and domains which, as far back as memory
reaches, have been held under a claim of private ownership by ICCs/IPs

A

Native Title

254
Q

Refers to a period of time when as far back as memory can go, certain ICCs/IPs are known to have occupied, possessed in the concept of owner, and utilized a defined territory devolved to them

A

Time Immemorial

255
Q

Refers to the rights of ICCs/IPs to sustainably use, manage, protect and conserve:

a) land, air, water, and minerals;
b) plants, animals and other organisms;
c) collecting, fishing and hunting grounds;
d) sacred sites; and
e) other areas of economic, ceremonial and aesthetic value in accordance with their indigenous knowledge, beliefs, systems and practices;

A

Sustainable Traditional Resource Rights

256
Q

Primary government agency responsible for the formulation and implementation of policies, plans and programs to promote and protect the rights and well-being of the ICCs/IPs and the recognition of their ancestral domains as well as the rights thereto

A

National Commission on Indigenous Cultural Communities/Indigenous Peoples (NCIP)

257
Q

The NCIP is an independent agency under the ___

A

Office of the President

258
Q

The NCIP has ___ commissioners, and at least ___ of the total number shall be women

A

7 commissioners; 2 women

259
Q

The guiding principle in the identification and delineation of ancestral domains. As such, the ICCs/IPs concerned shall have a decisive role in all the activities pertinent thereto.

A

Self-delineation

260
Q

As to the scope of the territories and agreements/pacts made with neighboring ICCs/IPs, if any, will be essential to the determination of these traditional territories

A

Sworn Statement of the Elders

261
Q

Required for production-sharing agreement

A

Certification precondition

262
Q

____ shall remain to be governed by its Charter and all lands proclaimed as part of its townsite reservation shall remain as such until otherwise reclassified by appropriate legislation

A

The City of Baguio

263
Q

In charge of the identification, delineation and recognition of ancestral lands/domains, and issuance of the certification precondition

A

Ancestral Domains Office

264
Q

Shall include not only streams, lakes, inland bodies of water and tidal waters within the municipality but also marine waters included between 2 lines drawn perpendicular to the general coastline from points where the boundary lines of the municipality touch the sea at low
tide and a third line parallel with the general coastline including offshore islands and 15 kilometers from such coastline

A

Municipal waters

265
Q

Where 2 municipalities are so situated on opposite shores that there is less than ___ of marine waters between them, the third line shall be ____ from opposite shore of the respective municipalities

A

30 kilometers; equally distant

266
Q

Includes all bodies of water within the Philippine territory and the waters around, between and connecting the islands of the archipelago, and all other waters over which the Philippines has sovereignty and jurisdiction including the Exclusive Economic Zone and the continental shelf

A

Philippine waters

267
Q

Number of nautical miles for the Exclusive Economic Zone

A

200-nautical miles

268
Q

The Philippine Fisheries Code applies to these vessels (3)

A
  1. All Philippine flagged fishing vessels operating in areas governed by a
    Regional Fisheries Management Organization (RFMO)
  2. In the high seas, or
  3. In waters of other coastal states
269
Q

The introduction by human or machine, directly or indirectly, of substances or energy to the aquatic environment which result or is likely to result in such deleterious effects as to harm living and non-living aquatic resources, pose potential and/or real hazard to human health, hindrance to aquatic activities such as fishing and navigation, including dumping/disposal of waste and other marine litters, discharge of petroleum or residual products of petroleum or carbonaceous materials/substances, and other, radioactive, noxious or harmful liquid, gaseous or solid substances, from any water, land or air transport or other human-made structure.

A

Aquatic Pollution

270
Q

A band of dry land and adjacent ocean space (water and submerged land. in which terrestrial processes and uses directly affect oceanic processes and uses, and vice versa); its geographic extent may include areas within a landmark limit of 1 kilometer from the shoreline at high tide to include mangrove swamps, brackish water ponds, nipa swamps, estuarine rivers, sandy beaches and other areas within a seaward limit of 200 meters isobath to include coral reefs, algal flats, seagrass beds and other soft-bottom areas

A

Coastal area/zone

271
Q

The taking of fishery species by passive or active gear for trade, business & profit beyond subsistence or sports fishing

A

Commercial Fishing

272
Q

Fishing with passive or active gear utilizing fishing vessels of 3.1 gross tons (GT) up to twenty (20) GT

A

Small scale commercial fishing

273
Q

Fishing utilizing active gears and vessels of 20.1 GT up to one hundred fifty (150) GT

A

Medium scale commercial fishing

274
Q

Fishing utilizing active gears and vessels of more than one hundred fifty (150) GT

A

Large scale commercial fishing

275
Q

An area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea which shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines as defined under existing laws

A

Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)

276
Q

Municipal waters: Shall include not only streams, lakes, inland bodies of water and tidal waters within the municipality but also marine waters included between 2 lines drawn perpendicular to the general coastline from points where the boundary lines of the municipality touch the sea at low tide and a third line parallel with the general coastline including offshore islands and ___ from such coastline.

A

15 kilometers

277
Q

Coastal area/zone: its geographic extent may include areas within a landmark limit of ___ from the shoreline at high tide to include mangrove swamps, brackish water ponds, nipa swamps, estuarine rivers, sandy beaches and other areas within a seaward limit of ___ isobath to include coral reefs, algal flats, seagrass beds and other soft-bottom areas

A

1 kilometer, 200 meters

278
Q

Refers to all activities relating to the act or business of fishing, culturing, preserving,
processing, marketing, developing, conserving and managing aquatic resources and the fishery areas, including the privilege to fish or take aquatic resource thereof

A

Fisheries

279
Q

A designated area where fishing or other forms of activities which may damage the ecosystem of the area is prohibited and human access may be restricted

A

Fishery Refuge and Sanctuaries

280
Q

A designated area where activities are regulated and set aside for educational and research purposes

A

Fishery Reserve

281
Q

Refers to any instrument or device and its accessories utilized in taking fish and other fishery species

A

Fishing gear

282
Q

A fishing device characterized by the pursuit of the target species by towing, pushing the gears, surrounding, covering, dredging, and scaring the target species to impoundments; such as, but not limited to, trawl, purse seines, Danish seines, paaling and drift gill net

A

Active Fishing Gear

283
Q

Is characterized by the absence of pursuit of the target species; such as, but not limited to, hook and line, fishpots, traps and gill nets set across the path of the
fish

A

Passive Fishing Gear

284
Q

Refers to any plan, policy or strategy aimed at ensuring adequate supplies of
appropriate food at affordable prices. Food security may be achieved through self-sufficiency (i.e. ensuring adequate food supplies from domestic production), through self-reliance (i.e. ensuring adequate food supplies through a combination of domestic production and
importation), or through pure importation.

A

Food Security

285
Q

A string of land margining a body of water; the part of a seashore between the low-water line usually at the seaward margin of a low tide terrace and the upper limit of wave wash at high tide usually marked by a beach scarp or berm

A

Foreshore land

286
Q

A fishery policy by which a system of equitable resource and allocation is established by law through fishery rights granting and licensing procedure

A

Limited access

287
Q

The largest average quantity of fish that can be harvested from a fish stocks/resource within a period of time (e.g. one year. on a sustainable basis under existing environmental conditions)

A

Maximum Sustainable Yield (MSY)

288
Q

The maximum harvest allowed to be taken during a given period of time from any fishery area, or from any fishery species or group of fishery species, or a combination of area and species and normally would not exceed the MSY

A

Total Allowable Catch (TAC)

289
Q

Refers to any fishery species which in the course of their life could travel from
freshwater to marine water or vice versa, or any marine species which travel over great distances in waters of the ocean as part of their behavioral adaptation for survival and speciation

A

Migratory species

290
Q

Marine fishes which migrate to freshwater areas to spawn

A

Anadromous species

291
Q

Freshwater fishes which migrate to marine areas to spawn

A

Catadromous species

292
Q

The requirement of continuously observing: (1) fishing effort which can be
expressed by the number of days or hours of fishing, number of fishing gears and number of fisherfolk; (2) characteristics of fishery resources; and (3) resource yields (catch)

A

Monitoring

293
Q

The regulatory conditions (legal framework) under which the exploitation,
utilization and disposition of the resources may be conducted

A

Control

294
Q

The degree and types of observations required to maintain compliance with
regulations

A

Surveillance

295
Q

Refers to fishing within municipal waters using fishing vessels of three (3) gross
tons or less, or fishing not requiring the use of fishing vessels

A

Municipal fishing

296
Q

The management of contiguous fishery resources such as bays which straddle several municipalities, cities or provinces, shall be done in ___

A

An integrated manner

297
Q

Exception to the commercial fishing vessel license

A

Scientific, research or educational purposes within Philippine waters pursuant to an international agreement of which the Philippines is a signatory

298
Q

Licensed large commercial fishing vessels license herein authorized to be granted shall allow the licensee to operate only in Philippine waters ___ deep

A

7 or more fathoms

299
Q

Persons Eligible for Commercial Fishing Vessel License

A
  1. Citizens of the Philippines
  2. Partnerships or to associations, cooperatives or corporations duly
    registered in the Philippines at least sixty percent (60%) of the capital stock of which is owned by Filipino citizens
300
Q

Commercial fishing vessels must secure ___

A

Certificates of Philippine Registry

301
Q

Lease of fishponds: maximum area for individuals and for corporations or fisherfolk organizations

A

50 hectares for individuals, and 250 hectares for corporations or fisherfolk
organizations

302
Q

Lease of fishponds: period, and renewable period

A

25 years and renewable for another 25 years

303
Q

Lease of fishponds: the area leased shall be developed and producing on a commercial scale within ___ from the approval of the lease contract; those not fully producing within ___ shall automatically revert to the public domain for reforestation

A

3 years, 5 years

304
Q

Lease of fishponds: transfer or assignment must have ___ of the Department

A

Prior written approval

305
Q

A ___ is required for the import and/or export fishery products of whatever size, stage, or form for any purpose

A

Permit from the Department

306
Q

Fishing areas reserves for exclusive use of the government - for propagation, educational, research and scientific purposes

A

Beyond 15 kilometers from shoreline (beyond municipal waters)

307
Q

FARMC

A

Fisheries and Aquatic Resources Management Council

308
Q

Fish refuge and sanctuaries: ___ of bays,

foreshore lands, continental shelf or any fishing ground

A

At least 25% but not more than 40%

309
Q

Fish refuge and sanctuaries: By the LGU, in consultation with or upon recommendation by the FARMCs – ___ of the total coast areas in each municipality automatically designated as fish sanctuaries

A

At least 15%

310
Q

Prima facie presumption of unauthorized fishing

A

Discovery of any person in an area where he has no permit or registration papers for a fishing vessel

311
Q

Exception to unauthorized fishing

A

Fishing for daily sustenance, leisure not for commercial, occupation or livelihood purposes

312
Q

Agency in charge of fees and other fishery charges beyond the municipal waters, access to fishery resources, catch ceiling limitations, and establishment of closed season

A

Department of Agriculture – Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau

313
Q

The license fees of fishery activity in municipal waters shall be determined by whom

A

Local Government Units (LGUs), in consultation with the FARMCs

314
Q

EIS

A

Environmental Impact Statements

315
Q

ECC

A

Environmental Compliance Certificate

316
Q

2 special agencies or offices vested with jurisdiction over municipal waters by virtue of special laws

A

Palawan Council for Sustainable Development, Laguna Lake Development Authority

317
Q

His purpose is to attend to the needs of the fishing industry, to be
appointed by the President

A

Undersecretary for Fisheries and Aquatic Resources

318
Q

Established in the national level and in all municipalities/cities abutting municipal waters as defined by the Philippine Fisheries Code; must undergo consultation before creation by fisherfolk organizations/cooperatives and NGOs in the locality and be assisted by the
LGUs and other government entities

A

Fisheries and Aquatic Resources Management Councils (FARMCs)

319
Q

The systematic administration of activities
which provide for segregation at source, segregated transportation, storage, transfer, processing, treatment, and disposal of solid waste and all other waste management activities which do not harm the environment

A

Ecological solid waste management

320
Q

The discipline associated with the control of generation, storage, collection, transfer and transport, processing, and disposal of solid wastes in a manner that is in accord with the best principles of public health, economics, engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations, and that is also responsive to public attitudes;

A

Solid waste management

321
Q

Includes a solid waste transfer station or sorting station, drop-off center, a composting facility, and a recycling facility

A

Materials recovery facility

322
Q

A disposal area wherein the solid wastes are indiscriminately thrown or disposed of without due planning and consideration for environmental and Health standards

A

Open dump

323
Q

The treating of used or waste materials through a process of making them suitable for beneficial use and for other purposes, and includes any process by which solid waste materials are transformed into new products in such a manner that the original product may lose their identity, and which
maybe used as raw materials for the production of other goods or services

A

Recycling

324
Q

A waste disposal site designed, constructed, operated and maintained in a manner that exerts engineering control over significant potential environment impacts arising from the development and operation of the facility

A

Sanitary landfill

325
Q

Wastes produced from activities within local government units which include a
combination of domestic, commercial, institutional and industrial wastes and street litters

A

Municipal waste

326
Q

All discarded household, commercial waste, non-hazardous institutional and
industrial waste, street sweepings, construction debris, agricultural waste, and other nonhazardous/non-toxic solid waste

A

Solid waste

327
Q

Solid waste does not refer to the following (3)

A
  1. Hazardous waste
  2. Infectious waste from hospitals
  3. Waste from mining activities
328
Q

Solid waste or combination of solid waste which because of its quantity, concentration or physical, chemical or infectious characteristics may pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when
improperly treated, stored, transported, or disposed of, or otherwise managed

A

Hazardous waste

329
Q

Liquid produced when waste undergoes decomposition, and when water percolates through solid waste undergoing decomposition. It is contaminated liquid
that contains dissolved and suspended materials

A

Leachate

330
Q

Household hazardous wastes such as paints, thinners, household batteries, lead-acid batteries, spray canisters and the like. These include wastes from residential and commercial sources that comprise of bulky wastes, consumer electronics, white goods, yard wastes that are collected separately, batteries, oil, and tires

A

Special wastes

331
Q

Local government solid waste management plans are good for ___ and consistent with the national solid waste management framework

A

10 years

332
Q

These shall not be allowed as final disposal sites. If they are existing within the city or municipality, the plan shall make provisions for their closure or eventual phase out

A

Open dump sites

333
Q

___ shall be developed and operated as a final disposal site for solid and, eventually, residual wastes of a municipality or city or a cluster of municipality and/or cities

A

Sanitary landfill sites

334
Q

Segregation of wastes shall primarily be conducted at ___, to include
household, institutional, industrial, commercial and agricultural sources

A

The source

335
Q

There shall be established a ___ in every barangay or cluster of barangays, which shall receive mixed waste

A

Materials Recovery Facility (MRF)

336
Q

No controlled dumps shall be allowed ___ following the effectivity of the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act

A

5 years

337
Q

Siga is prohibited under section 48 of this law

A

Ecological Solid Waste Management Act

338
Q

The construction of any establishment within ___ from open dumps or controlled dumps, or sanitary landfill is prohibited

A

200 meters

339
Q

Shall oversee the implementation of solid waste management plans and prescribe policies to achieve the objectives of the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act and shall approve local solid waste management plans in accordance with its rules and regulations

A

National Solid Waste Management Commission

340
Q

Composition of the National Solid Waste Management Commission

A

14 members from the government sector and 3 members from the private sector, with the Secretary of DENR as the chairperson

341
Q

The segregation and collection of solid waste shall be conducted at the ___

A

Barangay level

342
Q

The collection of non-recyclable materials and special wastes shall be the responsibility of the ___

A

Municipality or city

343
Q

Wild forms and varieties of flora and fauna, in all developmental stages, including those which are in captivity or are being bred or propagated

A

Wildlife

344
Q

Species or subspecies of wildlife naturally occurring or has naturally established population in the country

A

Indigenous wildlife

345
Q

The research, collection and utilization of biological and genetic resources for purposes of applying the knowledge derived therefrom solely for commercial
purposes

A

Bioprospecting

346
Q

Place or environment where species or subspecies naturally occur or has naturally
established its population

A

Habitat

347
Q

The preservation and sustainable utilization of wildlife, and/or maintenance,
restoration and enhancement of the habitat

A

Conservation

348
Q

Species or subspecies which is naturally occurring and found only within specific
areas in the country

A

Endemic species

349
Q

Species or subspecies which do not naturally occur in the country

A

Exotic species

350
Q

Species or subspecies which have actual or potential value in trade or utilization for commercial purpose

A

Economically important species

351
Q

Species or subspecies considered as critically endangered, endangered,
vulnerable or other accepted categories of wildlife whose population is at risk of extinction

A

Threatened species

352
Q

A species or subspecies that is facing extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate future

A

Critically endangered species

353
Q

A species or subspecies that is not critically endangered but whose survival in the wild is unlikely if the causal factors continue operating

A

Endangered species

354
Q

A species or subspecies that is not critically endangered nor endangered but is under threat from adverse factors throughout their range and is likely to move to the endangered category in the near future

A

Vulnerable species

355
Q

Requirements for the possession of wildlife

A

Financial and technical capability, and facility

356
Q

Exceptions to the illegal acts in the Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act (5)

A

Killing and destroying wildlife:
(i) religious rituals of indigenous cultural
communities;
(ii) wildlife is afflicted with an incurable communicable disease;
(iii) to put an end to the misery suffered by the wildlife;
(iv) to prevent an imminent danger to the life or limb of a human being; and
(v) after it has been used in authorized research or experiments

357
Q

Has jurisdiction over all terrestrial plant and animal species, all turtles and tortoises and wetland species, including but not limited to crocodiles, waterbirds and all amphibians and dugong

A

DENR

358
Q

Has jurisdiction over all declared aquatic critical habitats, all aquatic resources including but not limited to all
fishes, aquatic plants, invertebrates and all marine mammals, except dugong

A

DA

359
Q

Chair for scientific authorities (terrestrial)

A

PAWB or Biodiversity Management Bureau of the DENR; Ecosystems Research and Development Bureau

360
Q

Chair for scientific authorities (aquatic)

A

BFAR of the DA; UP Marine Science Institute

361
Q

Implementation of management and scientific authorities for international trade in endangered species for Palawan

A

Palawan Council for Sustainable Development

362
Q

4 flaghsip species, which shall serve as emblems of conservation for the local government concerned

A 
Cebu black shama (copsychus cebuensis), tamaraw (bubalus mindorensis),
Philippine tarsier (tarsius syrichta), Philippine teak (tectona philippinensis).
363
Q

Vice chairperson for disaster rehabilitation and recovery

A

NEDA Director-General

JEPBE (17 decks)

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