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JEPBE > Jacobo > Flashcards

Jacobo Flashcards

1
Q

Law & section: Refers to activities connected with the management and development of land, as well as the preservation, conservation, and management of the human environment

A

PD 1308, Section 2

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2
Q

Law & section: The multi-disciplinary art and science of analysing, specifying, clarifying, harmonizing, managing, and regulating the use and development of land and water resources, in relation to their environs, for the sustainable development of sustainable communities and ecosystems

A

RA 10587, Section 4

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3
Q

4 basic roles of the state

A
  1. Supplier of goods and services
  2. Regulator and facilitator of the market
  3. Arbiter between contending social groups
  4. Social engineer
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4
Q

Definition of urban (old): cities and municipalities in their entirety with population density of ___

A

1,000 persons per sq km

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5
Q

Definition of urban (old): poblaciones or city/municipality central districts with a population density of ___

A

500 persons per sq km

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6
Q

Definition of urban (old): poblaciones or central districts regardless of population size with (3)

A
  1. Parallel or right-angled streets
  2. At least 6 establishments
  3. At least 3 of the ff: public building, church, park, market
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7
Q

Definition of urban (old): barangays with at least ___ inhabitants

A

1,000 persons

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8
Q

Definition of urban (new): barangay with population size of ___

A

5,000 persons

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9
Q

Definition of urban (new): barangay has at least ___ establishment/s with ___ employees

A

1 establishment, 100 employees

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10
Q

Definition of urban (new): barangay with ___ establishments with minimum of ___ employees, and ___ facilities within the ___ radius from the barangay hall

A

5 establishments, 10 employees, 5 facilities, 2 km radius

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11
Q

All barangays in ___ are automatically classified as urban

A

NCR

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12
Q
  • Concept defined by charter or legal act after specific requirements
  • An important permanent settlement possessing characteristics of size, density, heterogeneity, granted a substantial level of self-governance by means of Statute of Charter
A

City

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13
Q

How an area acquires urban character

A

Urbanization

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14
Q

Proportion of people in urban vs non-urban areas

A

Level of Urbanization

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15
Q

Way of life associated with living in cities

A

Urbanism

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16
Q

Proponent of the Hydraulic Civilization Theory, which is applicable in Asia

A

Karl Wittfogel

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17
Q

The anti-thesis to totalitarian empires

A

Greek city-states

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18
Q

The centerpiece and the focus of Greek city-states

A

Temples, civic spaces

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19
Q
  • Pre-occupied with defense (castra)

- Grid-iron design was useful for military movement

A

Roman imperial cities

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20
Q
  • Central concern was survival and security

- Theory: urbanization was due to population pressure

A

Fortress cities, post-Roman empire

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21
Q

Wrote “The Origin and Evolution of Cities”

A

Gideon Sjoberg

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22
Q
  • Urbanization is a cultural process
  • Trade commerce fosters socio-cultural diversity
  • Cities brought together specialists, which resulted in innovation and technology
A

Socio-cultural theory of urbanization

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23
Q

Proponent of the religious model

A

Paul Wheatley

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24
Q

Cities as religious, ceremonial centres became factor for urbanization

A

Religious model

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25
Q

Cities as burial complexes for eternal god-kings

A

Necropolis

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26
Q
  • The town grew around the cathedral

- Radio-centric, retained protective walls

A

Cathedral cities, middle ages

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27
Q
  • Age of exploration
  • Rise of the merchant class
  • Cities as commercial nodes
A

Port/mercantile cities, renaissance

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28
Q
  • Industrial revolution
  • Located near coal fields
  • Massive rural migration and high pollution
A

Industrial/manufacturing cities

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29
Q
  • Information and communication technology’s impact on spatial organization of activities
  • Pre-eminence of highly-skilled, intellectual, creative, imaginative labor force
A

Post-industrial city, information revolution

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30
Q

The dominant form of the post-industrial city

A

Extended sprawling metro

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31
Q

Proponent of Cybernetics

A

Norbert Wiener

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32
Q

Proponent of the Cyclical Process

A

Brian McLoughlin

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33
Q

Proponent of the Systems Approach

A

George Chadwick

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34
Q

Proponent of Linear Planning

A

Allan Wilson

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35
Q

Proponent of Survey-Analysis-Plan

A

Patrick Geddes

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36
Q

Proponent of Mixed Scanning

A

Amitai Etzioni

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37
Q
  • “Successive limited comparisons”

- Strategic selection of goals; loose framework

A

Mixed scanning

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38
Q

Proponent of Incremental Planning

A

Charles Lindbloom

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39
Q

Proponent of Communicative Planning

A

Jurgen Habermas, and the Frankfurt School of Social Critical Theory

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40
Q
  • Planning as transactive, to and fro

- Group interest determined through dialogue

A

Communicative Planning

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41
Q

Uniform 60-storey apartment-towers with large open spaces in between

A

Radiant City, by Le Corbusier

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42
Q

The Radiant City was meant for ___ people

A

3 million

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43
Q
  • Authoritarian, inflexible, simplistic
  • Standardization was inhuman, socially-destructive
  • Design was good for temporary living, and not as permanent residence
A

Brasilia, Brazil, by Oscar Niemeyer

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44
Q

4 concepts of the New Towns Movement

A
  1. Skyscraper City
  2. Garden City
  3. Superblocks
  4. Neighborhood Clusters
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45
Q

Proponent of the Superblocks

A

Henry Wright

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46
Q

Proponent of Neighborhood Clusters

A

Clarence Perry

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47
Q

Island of greens, surrounded by homes, bordered by automobile roads

A

Superblock

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48
Q

A low-rise, pedestrian-oriented residential quarter with schools as centre, boudned by arterial streets, shops at the circumference and junctions, and internal system discourages through-traffic

A

Neighborhood Unit

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49
Q

Neighborhood Units are meant for ___ persons

A

6,000 persons

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50
Q

Neighborhood Units: ___ open green spaces

A

10%

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51
Q

Proponent of the Garden City

A

Ebenezer Howard

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52
Q

Central City population

A

58,000

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53
Q

Garden City population

A

30,000

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54
Q

City Functional Movement prioritized ___ over master planning

A

Land Use Zoning

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55
Q

First significant case regarding zoning as police power

A

Village of Euclid vs. Ambler Realty

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56
Q

Proponent of the Linear City

A

Don Arturo Soria Y Mata

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57
Q
  • Linear utility lines as basis of layout
  • May run parallel to a river
  • Had 5 sectors: railways, production zone, greenbelt, residential/institutional zone, and agricultural zone
A

Linear City

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58
Q

Movement that rationalizes urban planning in relation to decentralized economic production and transport planning

A

City Efficient Movement

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59
Q

The science of human settlements integrates economics and physical design

A

Ekistics

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60
Q
  • Reviving the lost art of place-making
  • Opposes suburbs and focuses on rebuilding inner-city neighbourhoods around traditions
  • Fostering informal human settlements revitalizes the community
  • Pedestrianization and mixed-use
A

New Urbanism/ Neo-Traditionalism

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61
Q

Anti-big city, return to micro identities as a spatial strategy

A

Eco-Anarchism

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62
Q

Extra-urban

A

Exurb

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63
Q

Aim is to redevelop outworn, physically deteriorated areas

A

Urban Renewal, by the US Federal Program

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64
Q

Urban renewal bonds paid by future tax revenues

A

Tax increment financing

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65
Q

Up-scaling blighted areas to attract business and elite occupants

A

Gentrification

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66
Q

Father of Town Planning in Europe

A

Hippodamus of Miletus

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67
Q

Swiss-French architect-planner who was criticized for “planning paradox”

A

Le Corbusier

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68
Q

Scottish city planner and the Father of Regional Planning

A

Patrick Geddes

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69
Q

Coined “city-region” and “conurbation,” and the “Folk Work Place” framework

A

Patrick Geddes

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70
Q

Father of Urban Planning in Canada, who formed the Town Planning Institute of Canada

A

Thomas Adams

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71
Q

Said that diversity in geographic concentration spurs urban growth and that mixed-use neighbourhoods make vibrant urban communities

A

Jane Jacobs

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72
Q

Father of American City Planning

A

Daniel Burnham

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73
Q

Proponent of Broadacre City

A

Frank Lloyd Wright

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74
Q

Low-density development which proposed to give 1 acre per family

A

Broadacre City

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75
Q

Co-founded the Regional Planning Association of America

A

Clarence Stein, H. Wright, and L. Mumford

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76
Q

Father of Historical Sociological Approach to Planning

A

Lewis Mumford

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77
Q

Said that planning is multi-disciplinary and it should emphasize organic relationship between people and living spaces

A

Lewis Mumford

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78
Q

The re-planning of London through the dispersal of 1.25 million people to new towns and rural areas

A

Abercrombie Plan, by Sir Leslie Patrick Abercrombie

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79
Q

First modern environmental planner who pioneered environmental impact statements and GIS use

A

Ian McHarg

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80
Q

“Form must also respect the natural environment”

A

Ian McHarg

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81
Q

Designed Philadephia: rectangular grid system, central park, and neighbourhood park per quadrant

A

William Penn and Thomas Holme

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82
Q

Redesigned Paris with circular plazas, long wide boulevards, and pocket parks

A

Baron Haussmann

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83
Q
  • American forester, conservationist and regional planner

- Father of the Appalachian Trail

A

Benton McKaye

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84
Q
  • Proponent of Ekistics and ecumenopolis
  • Designed Islamabad
  • Town Planning Chief of Greater Athens
A

Konstantinos Doxiadis

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85
Q

A planetwide city; the future urban areas and megalopolises would eventually fuse and there would be a single continuous worldwide city

A

Ecumenopolis

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86
Q
  • Park Commissioner, head of New York City Planning Commission
  • Responsible for every parkway, expressway, and public housing in New York Region
A

Robert Moses

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87
Q
  • Designed the Washington D.C. plan

- Forerunner of City Beautiful

A

Pierre Charles L’ Enfant

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88
Q
  • Conservation and Parks Movement

- Designed Central Park with Calvert Vaux

A

Frederick Law Olmsted

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89
Q
  • Forerunner of avant garde 20th century French architects

- Proposed Une Cite Industrielle (linear industrial city)

A

Tony Garnier

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90
Q
  • First to write a comprehensive book on urban and regional planning
  • Quantitative, statistical tools to study social phenomenon
A

Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin, Jr.

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91
Q
  • Father of Advocacy Planning

- Public interest is political, not scientific

A

Paul Davidoff

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92
Q
  • American biologist and eco-feminist who sparked environmental movement in US through Silent Spring
  • Advocacies led to the US Environmental Protection Agency and the Environmental Impact Assessment system
A

Rachel Louise Carson

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93
Q

Proponemnt of Human Ecology

A

Robert Park, of the Chicago School of Urban Sociology

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94
Q

Human ecology: a social group enters an area

A

Invasion

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95
Q

Human ecology: a former social group is replaced

A

Succession

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96
Q

Human ecology: sorting out of population groups according to conscious preference, bias, and prejudice

A

Segregation

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97
Q

Human ecology: diverse groups find peaceful co-existence

A

Assimilation/ accommodation

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98
Q

Human ecology: distribution of activities, population, and manner which they have focused on the city centre

A

Concentration

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99
Q

Human ecology: locating away from the central city

A

Decentralization

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100
Q

Human ecology: neighbourhood declines

A

Filtering

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101
Q

Human ecology: powerful groups acquire best locations; matter of who can maximize and pay costs

A

Survival of the fittest

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102
Q

The pull forces of a city

A

Centripetal

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103
Q

Forces urging rural to city movement

A

Push Forces

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104
Q

Push forces from the city

A

Centrifugal

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105
Q
  • First stage of urban growth

- Natural resource, tourism

A

Export specialization

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106
Q
  • Second stage of urban growth

- Broadens to other facets of focus

A

Export complex

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107
Q
  • Third stage of urban growth
  • Local service sector puberty
  • Import substitution
A

Economic maturation

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108
Q
  • Fourth stage of urban growth

- Serves as node to others

A

Regional metropolis

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109
Q
  • Fifth stage of urban growth
A

National / international metropolis

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110
Q
  • Sixth stage of urban growth

- National eminence in specialized skill

A

Technical/ Professional Virtuosity

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111
Q

Proponent of the Concentric Ring Theory

A

Ernest W. Burgess

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112
Q
  • Accessibility, rent, and densities decrease with distance from city centre; commerical agents that can afford high land values will concentrate at the centre
  • Outward pressure as those with higher income pursue better development
A

Concentric Ring Theory

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113
Q

Concentric Ring Theory: Zone 1

A

Central business district

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114
Q

Concentric Ring Theory: Zone 2

A

Zone of transition

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115
Q

Concentric Ring Theory: Zone 3

A

Blue-collar residential

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116
Q

Concentric Ring Theory: Zone 4

A

Middle-class residential

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117
Q

Concentric Ring Theory: Zone 5

A

Commuter residential

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118
Q
  • Opposite of Burgess’ s model: poor moving away from city centre, while the rich retain control
  • Observed mostly in less developed countries and primarily administrative cities
  • Lack of adequate transport system restricts elites to city centre
A

Inverse Concentric Model

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119
Q

Proponent of the Sector or Radial Model

A

Homer Hoyt

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120
Q
  • High-rent districts shape city land use
  • Residential areas grow in wedge shape
  • Expands towards trade routes, high ground, waterfronts, transportation, and open space
A

Sector or Radial Model

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121
Q

Sector Model: center

A

Central business district

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122
Q

Sector Model: Middle top-bottom wedges and left half-circle

A

Low-class residential

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123
Q

Sector Model: Left top-bottom wedges

A

Industry

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124
Q

Sector Model: right wedge from center outwards

A

High-class residential

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125
Q

Sector Model: right half-circle closest to center

A

Zone of transition

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126
Q

Sector Model: right larger half-circle

A

Middle-class residential

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127
Q

Proponents of the Multiple Nuclei Model

A

Chauncy Harris and Edward Ullman

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128
Q
  • Related from US gridiron road patterns
  • Nuclei acts as growth centres for particular land uses that expand and merge to form a single urban area
  • Certain activities cluster for profit, while other repel
A

Multiple Nuclei Model

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129
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: center jigsaw puzzle

A

Central business district

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130
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: left rectangle, closest to center jigsaw puzzle

A

Light manufacturing/ zone of transition

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131
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: three rectangles around the left rectangle closest to center jigsaw puzzle

A

Low-class residential

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132
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: blob to the right of the center jigsaw puzzle

A

Medium-class residential

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133
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: rightmost blob

A

High-class residential

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134
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: small rectangle at the bottom left of one of the three rectangles

A

Heavy manufacturing

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135
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: square in the middle of the two blobs

A

Outlying central business district

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136
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: isolated square located under the blobs

A

Residential suburb

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137
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: isolated square under the rectangles surrounding the center jigsaw puzzle

A

Industrial suburb

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138
Q

Proponent of the Hybrid Model

A

Walter Isard

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139
Q
  • Combines strengths of the Concentric, Sector, and Zonal models
  • Urban land use is overlay of different transportation effects - some oriented along transportation effects, some along transport axis, some in nuclei to reach scale and agglomeration economies
A

Hybrid Model

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140
Q

Proponent of Concentric Zone Modification

A

Peter Mann

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141
Q
  • Typical British town model
  • Main feature is the separated commuter village
  • Considers prevailing wind from west, and the best residential area is upwind from industrial
A

Concentric Zone Modification

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142
Q

Proponent of Galactic City

A

Peirce F. Lewis

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143
Q
  • Result of leapfrog development
  • Edge cities form in suburbs
  • “Doughnut shape,” low-density centre, activity along ring roads resemble galaxy
A

Galactic City

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144
Q

Proponent of Edge Cities

A

Joel Garreau

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145
Q
  • Fringe cities on alternate CBDs centered on suburban malls, office/techno parks
  • “More jobs than bedrooms”
  • Functions deconcentrated away from historical central cities
A

Edge Cities

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146
Q

Evolution of LA Cities: maquiladoras

A

Industry

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147
Q

Latin American Model: central area

A

Central business district (the original colonial city)

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148
Q

Latin American Model: vertical area from center to bottom

A

Spine (the CBD extension down a main boulevard)

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149
Q

Latin American Model: smallest circle around the central area

A

Zone of maturity (gradually improved self-built housing)

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150
Q

Latin American Model: larger circle around the central area

A

Zone of accretion (transition zone, modest housing)

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151
Q

Latin American Model: largest circle

A

Zone of peripheral squatter settlements (refugee camp-like)

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152
Q

Latin American Model: periferia

A

Older, more permanent in informal housing

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153
Q

Latin American Model: favela

A

Recent, poor quality informal housing

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154
Q

Urban form stereotype:

  • No vivid or memorable image of city
  • Low-density development spread evenly over wide tract
  • No road hierarchy, transport network is a continuous grid
  • Public service provision is expensive
A

Dispersed sheet

155
Q

Urban form stereotype:

  • Development clustered into relatively small units, separated by a zone of low or zero density
  • Clusters equal in importance but can specialize
A

Galaxy of settlements

156
Q
  • Major centre provides specialized services

- Nodes act as external linkage, captive market, support

A

Centric and Nodal Form

157
Q

Nodes are connected by radial/circumferential raods

A

Radial and Circumferential

158
Q

Urban form stereotype:

  • Concentrated development into one continuous body
  • High density activities
  • Housing is limited to high-rise or compact dwelling
  • Strong visual image for the whole town
A

Core City

159
Q

Urban form stereotype: dominant core with secondary centers distributed along main radials, making for a strong visual image

A

Urban Star (linear/strip development)

160
Q

Urban form stereotype:

  • No single dominant center
  • Low density center surrounded by high density area
  • Strong visual image due to contrast
A

Ring

161
Q

Spatial Planning Theory: Cities structured in a spatially balanced hierarchical system

A

European market economy just before/after Industrial Revolution

162
Q

Transportation cost is proportional to distance, and invarant to direction

A

Friction of Distance

163
Q

Proponent of the Agricultural Land Rent Theory

A

Johann Heinrich von Thunen

164
Q

Spatial Planning Theory:

  • Land nearest to market in greatest demand (higher rent, higher value) due to low transport cost
  • Production intensity and land use diminishes with distance from market centre
A

Agricultural Land Rent Theory

165
Q

Agricultural Land Rent Theory: innermost circle

A

Central city

166
Q

Agricultural Land Rent Theory: second circle

A

Intensive farming

167
Q

Agricultural Land Rent Theory: third circle

A

Forestry

168
Q

Agricultural Land Rent Theory: fourth circle

A

Extensive field crops

169
Q

Agricultural Land Rent Theory: fifth circle

A

Ranching

170
Q

Agricultural Land Rent Theory: farmers are ___, content with a certain level of productivity

A

Satisficers

171
Q

Proponent of the Urban Bid Rent Theory

A

William Alonso

172
Q

Spatial Planning Theory:

  • Land value is maximum at city centre
  • Rent diminishes to offset lower revenue, higher transport, and operating costs
  • Different land uses would have different rent gradients
A

Urban Bid Rent Theory

173
Q

Proponent of the Central Place Theory

A

Walter Christaller

174
Q

Market area served by the central place

A

Hinterland

175
Q

Spatial Planning Theory: Systematic pattern of central places evenly spread, surrounded by hexagonally shaped market areas

A

Central Place Theory

176
Q

High ranked central place offers all goods and services of ___

A

Next lower ranked place, plus one or two more

177
Q

Goods that are inexpensive and frequently purchased

A

Low-order goods

178
Q

Goods that are more costly, infrequently purchased, and need a larger population to support

A

High-order goods

179
Q

Spatial Planning Theory: Proponent of Range and Threshold

A

Brian Berry and William Garrison

180
Q

The minimum effective demand, market needed, or population to support supply

A

Threshold

181
Q

The distance customers are willing to travel to obtain goods/services

A

Market range

182
Q

Average maximum distance customers are willing to travel to purchase at market price

A

Range of goods and services

183
Q

Proponent of the Rank-Size Rule

A

George Zipf

184
Q

Formula for rank-size rule

A

The population of nth settlement is equal to the population of the largest settlement divided by the settlement’s rank

185
Q

Spatial Planning Theory:

  • Applies when there is Urban Primacy
  • Considers only service, and not natural resources localization
A

Rank-Size Rule

186
Q
  • Sub-national territory with known scale and extent

- Refers to a city or central place plus its functionally integrated outlying territories

A

Region

187
Q

Linkages:

  • Extent of urban influence on non-urban areas
  • Dependence on resources
  • Production/consumption
A

Economic linkages

188
Q

Linkages:

  • Transport nodes, utility trunks
  • Areas performing sink functions
A

Infrastructure linkages

189
Q

Kind of region (main):

Geographical area with a certain functional coherence, interdependence of parts

A

Functional region

190
Q

Kind of region (sub):

  • Bound by economic linkages, interflows of factors, materials, in/outputs
  • Interlinked industrial clusters, districts, zones, ports
A

Economic region

191
Q

Kind of region (sub):

- Interdependence and connectedness

A

Natural region

192
Q

Kind of region (sub): life flows and species

A

Bio-region

193
Q

Kind of region (sub): ecosystems and communities

A

Eco-region

194
Q

Kind of region (main): geographical area uniform and homogeneous in terms of related criteria

A

Formal region

195
Q

Kind of region (sub): common political authority, administrative boundaries, electoral constituency

A

Political-administrative region

196
Q

Kind of region (sub): cities/towns and socio-economically linked/.dependent commuter villages or communities

A

Urban region

197
Q

Kind of region: common historical past

A

Historical region

198
Q

Kind of region: network of functionally-related areas with high level of connectivity (ICT) and economic inter-flows though not spatially proximate or contiguous

A

Virtual region

199
Q

Published manifesto containing region concept and inter-disciplinary planning approach

A

Survey

200
Q

Wrote “The New Exploration: A Philosophy of Regional Planning”

A

Benton McKaye

201
Q
  • Cross cutting, more encompassing concept

- Treats cities in relation to environs

A

Regional Planning

202
Q

Inherently unequal due to geography, natural resources, history, and socio-economics

A

Regional divergence

203
Q

Proponent of Growth Pole Theory

A

Francis Perroux

204
Q

Spatial agglomeration of related industries with a growing number of propulsive firms which induce growth in surrounding hinterland (economic space)

A

Growth pole

205
Q

Dominant economic unit that induces growth in others when it grows or innovates

A

Propulsive firm/industry

206
Q

Proponent of Growth Center

A

Jacques Boudeville

207
Q

Propulsive urban center of a region, a growth pole in a specific place that is heterogeneous, not specialized, and continuous (geographic space)

A

Growth center

208
Q

Inspired the Philippine strategy of “concentrated decentralization,” wherein alternate urban centers serve as counter magnets

A

Growth Pole Theory

209
Q

Proponent of the Urban Development Theory

A

Albert Hirschmann

210
Q

Development starts in relative few dynamic sectors/geographic location, then is expected to spread

A

Urban Development Theory

211
Q

Growth is an unbalanced process, “chain of disequilibrium” created by one firm to another

A

Center-Periphery Model

212
Q

Spontaneous inevitable development of backward areas because of pulls in input demand from developed areas

A

Trickle down effect

213
Q

Proponent of Cumulative Causation Theory

A

Gunnar Myrdal

214
Q
  • Market forces create economic disequilibrium, increase regional inequalities if left alone
  • Increased demand from expanding economic activity, increasing demand and incomes, spurring second cycle
A

Cumulative Causation Theory

215
Q

Attention returns to the core region instead of the neighbouring regions

A

Backwash

216
Q

Positive effects initially felt

A

Spread effects

217
Q

Linkages: directed towards suppliers

A

Backward linkage

218
Q

Linkages: directed towards consumers

A

Forward linkage

219
Q

Linkages: firms produce component of a final output (ex. parts of a car)

A

Vertical linkage

220
Q

Linkages: firms produce components of a product that are complementary in use (ex. furniture)

A

Horizontal linkage

221
Q

Linkages: service cuts through different types of firms

A

Diagonal linkage

222
Q

Linkages: services for employees, staff provided by firms/households

A

Residentiary linkage

223
Q

Proponent of the Least Cost Approach

A

Alfred Weber

224
Q

Focus is on reducing cost of production through transportation, since the best location incurs the lowest transport cost

A

Least Cost Approach

225
Q

Proponent of Least Cost Variant

A

Edgar Hoover

226
Q

Considers competition, multiple markets, and institutional factors like local taxes, thus focusing computation on the input side

A

Least Cost Variant

227
Q

Proponents of the Behavioral Theory of Industrial Location

A

Ruth Gasson and Allan Richard Pred

228
Q
  • Locational decisions deviate from ideal, based on the intuition of managers and operative values
  • “Psychic income”: self-satisfaction, industrial peace, cooperation with community
  • Behavioral considerations of space, time, and human behavioral variables
A

Behavioral Theory of Industrial Location

229
Q

Proponent of Market Area Analysis

A

August Losch

230
Q
  • Optimum location is a function of aggregate demand - where there are high profits
  • Assumes uniform population densities with constant tastes, no locational interdependence
A

Market Area Analysis

231
Q

Proponent of Profit Maximization Approach

A

Walter Isard and Melvin Greenhut

232
Q
  • The best location is the one with the least cost and revenue location
  • Considers locational interdependence between firms, assuming behavioral factors neglected
A

Profit Maximizing Approach

233
Q

Proponent of Theory of Manufacturing Production

A

David Smith

234
Q
  • Revision of Least Cost Approach
  • Manufacturing firms benefit from Localization of Economies - declining average cost of firms resulting from economic geographic concentration
  • High-order services attract low-order ones
A

Theory of Manufacturing Production

235
Q

Proponent of Theory of Competitive Firm

A

Michael Porter

236
Q
  • Strategy is about structure and rivalry
  • Not the size of market, but quality of demand
  • High importance of innovation playing a critical role
A

Theory of Competitive Firm

237
Q

LGUs are created through two ways

A
  1. Law enacted by congress

2. Ordinance by Sangguniang Panlalawigan/Panlungsod

238
Q

Reclassification of agricultural lands: Highly-Urbanized and Independent Component Cities

A

15%

239
Q

Reclassification of agricultural lands: Component Cities, first to third class municipalities

A

10%

240
Q

Reclassification of agricultural lands: fourth to sixth class municipalities

A

5%

241
Q

Presiding officer of the Sanggunian Panlalawigan

A

Vice Governor

242
Q

Presiding officer of the Sangguniang Panlungsod

A

City Vice Mayor

243
Q

Presiding officer of the Sangguniang Bayan

A

Municipal Mayor

244
Q

Presiding officer of the Sangguniang Barangay

A

Punong Barangay

245
Q

Composition of the BAC (4)

A
  1. Chairman of appropriation committee
  2. Representative of the minority party in the Sanggunian
  3. Treasurer
  4. Two representatives of NGOs
246
Q

Candidates for the position of governor, vice-governor, or member of the Sangguniang Panlalawigan, or Mayor, vice-mayor, or member of the Sangguinang Panglungsod of HUCs must be at least ___ on election day

A

23 years old

247
Q

Candidates for the position of Mayor or vice-mayor of ICCs, component cities, and municipalities must be at least ___ on election day

A

21 years old

248
Q

Candidates for the position of member of the Sangguniang Panlungsod or Sangguniang Bayan must be at least ___ on election day

A

18 years old

249
Q

Candidates for the Sangguniang Kabataan must at least be ___ but not more than ___ on election day

A

15 years old, 21 years old

250
Q

Chairs of provincial school board

A

Governor and division superintendent of schools

251
Q

Chairs of city school board

A

City mayor and city superintendent of schools

252
Q

Chairs of municipal school board

A

Municipal mayor and district supervisors of schools

253
Q

Chair and vice chair of provincial health board

A

Chair: Governor

Vice chair: Provincial health officer

254
Q

Chair and vice chair of city health board

A

Chair: City Mayor

Vice chair: City health officer

255
Q

Chair and vice chair of municipal health board

A

Chair: Municipal Mayor

Vice chair: Municipal health officer

256
Q

Composition of Barangay Development Council

A
  1. Members of Sangguniang Barangay
  2. NGO representatives (1/4 of council)
  3. Congressman’s representative
257
Q

Composition of City/Municipal Development Council

A
  1. Punong Barangays
  2. Chairman of the committee of appropriations
  3. NGO representatives (1/4 of council)
    4, Congressman’s representative
258
Q

Composition of Provincial Development Council

A
  1. Mayors
  2. Chairman of the committee of appropriations
  3. NGO representatives (1/4 of council)
    4, Congressman’s representative
259
Q

The legal process whereby registered voters of a LGU may directly propose, enact, or amend any ordinance

A

Local Initiative

260
Q

The legal process whereby the registered voters of the LGUs may approve, amend, or reject any ordinance enacted bt the Sanggunian

A

Local Referendum

261
Q

Municipal waters: ___ from the coastline

A

15 km

262
Q

Tax in sand, gravel, and other quarry resources: the province may levy and collect not more than ___ of fair market value

A

10%

263
Q

Tax in sand, gravel, and other quarry resources: proceeds of tax distributed to the province

A

30%

264
Q

Tax in sand, gravel, and other quarry resources: proceeds of tax distributed to the city/municipality

A

30%

265
Q

Tax in sand, gravel, and other quarry resources: proceeds of tax distributed to the barangay

A

40%

266
Q

Rates of Levy for province: ___ of the assessed value of real property

A

1%

267
Q

Rates of Levy for city or municipality within the Metro Manila area: ___ of the assessed value of real property

A

2%

268
Q

Special Education Fund: ___ on the assessed value of real property, and shall be released to ___

A

1%. local school boards

269
Q

Idle Land Tax: ___ of the assessed value of the property

A

5%

270
Q

Idle Lands (RA 7160): agricultural lands, more than ___ in area, ___ of which remain unimproved

A

1 hectare, 1/2 remains unimproved

271
Q

Idle Lands (RA 7160): These 2 shall not be considered idle lands

A
  1. Agricultural lands with at least 50 trees to a hectare

2. Lands for grazing purposes

272
Q

Idle Lands (RA 7160): Lands, other than agricultural, ___ in an area, ___ of which remain unimproved

A

1,000 sqm, 1/2 remains unimproved

273
Q

Special benefit levy: ___ of the actual cost, including the costs of acquiring land

A

60%

274
Q

Distribution of the proceeds of basic real property tax: provinces

A

a. Province - 35%
b. Municipality - 40%
c. Barangay - 25%

275
Q

Distribution of the proceeds of basic real property tax: cities

A

a. City - 70%
b. Barangay where property is located - 15%
c. Other barangays - 15%

276
Q

Distribution of the proceeds of basic real property tax: municipalities within Metro Manila

A

a. MMDA - 35%
b. Municipality - 35%
c. Barangay where property is located - 15%
d. Other barangays - 15%

277
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes: first year of the effectivity of the Code

A

30%

278
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes: second year of the effectivity of the Code

A

35%

279
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes: third year of the effectivity of the Code and thereafter

A

40%

280
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes, first round: provinces

A

23%

281
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes, first round: cities

A

23%

282
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes, first round: municipalities

A

34%

283
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes, first round: barangays

A

20%

284
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes, second round: population

A

50%

285
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes, second round: land area

A

25%

286
Q

Allotment of Internal Revenue Taxes, second round: equal sharing

A

25%

287
Q

Each LGU shall appropriate in its annual budget ___ of its annual internal revenue allotment for development projects

A

20%

288
Q

LGUs shall have a ___ of the gross collection derived by the national government from the preceding fiscal year from taxes, fees, and charges related to use of the national wealth

A

40%

289
Q

Refers to an authorization made by ordinance, directing the payment of goods and services from local government funds under specified conditions or for specific purposes

A

Appropriation

290
Q

___ of the estimated revenue from regular sources shall be set aside as the LDRRMF, ___ of which shall be allocated as the Quick Response Fund

A

5%, 30%

291
Q

Unexpended LDRRMF shall accrue to a special trust fund solely for the purpose of supporting disaster risk reduction and management activities of the LDRRMCs within the next ___

A

5 years

292
Q

The total appropriations for personal services of a local government unit for one fiscal year shall not exceed ___ in the case of first to third class provinces, cities, and municipalities of the total annual income from regular sources realized in the next preceding fiscal year

A

45%

293
Q

The total appropriations for personal services of a local government unit for one fiscal year shall not exceed ___ in the case of fourth class or lower of the total annual income from regular sources realized in the next preceding fiscal year

A

55%

294
Q

___ of the general fund of the Barangay shall be set aside for the Sangguniang Kabataan

A

10%

295
Q

The total annual appropriations for personal services of a Barangay for 1 fiscal year shall not exceed ___ of the total annual income actually realized from
local sources during the next preceding fiscal year.

A

55%

296
Q

Refers to the proposal of one who offers the lowest price, meets all the technical specifications and requirements of the supplies desired and, as a dealer in the line of supplies involved, maintains a regular establishment, and has complied consistently with previous commitments

A

Lowest Complying and Responsible Bid

297
Q

Refers to that kind of article which would serve substantially the same purpose or produce substantially the same results as the brand, type, or make of article originally desired or requisitioned

A

Suitable Substitute

298
Q

3 sectoral representatives of the Sangguniang Bayan/ Panglungsod/ Panlalawigan

A
  1. Women
  2. Agricultural or industrial workers
  3. Other sectors
299
Q

Class A Documents

A
  1. PhilGEPS Certificate
  2. Statement of all its ongoing and completed government and private contracts
  3. Statement of the consultant specifying its nationality and profession
300
Q

Class B Document

A

Joint Venture Agreement

301
Q

EDS

A

Eligibility Data Sheet

302
Q

BDS

A

Bid Data Sheet

303
Q

Behavior on the part of officials in the public or private sectors by which they improperly and unlawfully enrich themselves, others, or induce others to do so, by misusing the position in which they are placed, and includes the offering, giving, receiving, or soliciting of anything of value to influence the action of any such official in the procurement process or in contract execution; entering, on behalf of the GoP, into any contract or transaction manifestly and grossly disadvantageous to the same, whether or not the public officer profited or will profit thereby

A

Corrupt practice

304
Q

A misrepresentation of facts in order to influence a procurement process or the execution of a contract to the detriment of the Procuring Entity, and includes collusive practices among Bidders (prior to or after bid submission) designed to establish bid prices at artificial, non-competitive levels and to deprive the Procuring Entity of the benefits of free and open competition

A

Fraudulent practice`

305
Q

A scheme or arrangement between two or more Bidders, with or without the knowledge of the Procuring Entity, designed to establish bid prices at artificial, non-competitive levels

A

Collusive practices

306
Q

Harming or threatening to harm, directly or indirectly, persons, or their property to influence their participation in a procurement process, or affect the execution of a contract

A

Coercive practices

307
Q

Deliberately destroying, falsifying, altering or concealing of evidence material to an administrative proceedings or investigation or making false statements to investigators in order to materially impede an administrative proceedings or investigation of the Procuring Entity or any foreign government/foreign or international financing institution into allegations of a corrupt, fraudulent, coercive or collusive practice; and/or threatening, harassing or intimidating any party to prevent it from disclosing its knowledge of matters relevant to the administrative proceedings or investigation or from pursuing such proceedings or investigation

A

Obstructive practice

308
Q

The pre-bid conference shall be held ___ calendar days before the deadline for the submission and receipt of bids, but not earlier than ___ from the determination of the shortlisted consultants.

A

12 CDs, 7 CDs

309
Q

The minutes of the pre-bid conference shall be recorded and prepared not later than ___ after the pre-bid conference.

A

5 CDs

310
Q

Decisions of the BAC amending any provision of the bidding documents shall be issued in writing through a Supplemental/Bid Bulletin ___ before the deadline for the submission and receipt of bids.

A

7 CDs

311
Q

Shortlisted consultants may request for clarification(s) on and/or an interpretation of any part of the Bidding Documents in writing, and must be submitted to the Procuring Entity at the address indicated in the BDS ___ before the deadline set for the submission and receipt of bids

A

10 CDs

312
Q

The BAC shall respond to a request for clarification by issuing a Supplemental/Bid Bulletin to be made available to all those who have properly secured the Bidding Documents ___ before the deadline for the submission and receipt of Bids

A

7 CDs

313
Q

Bids shall remain valid for the period specified in the BDS which shall not exceed ___ from the date of the opening of bids.

A

120 CDs

314
Q

Amount of bid security for form of bid security: Cash or cashier’s/manager’s check issued by a Universal or Commercial Bank

A

2%

315
Q

Amount of bid security for form of bid security: Bank draft/guarantee or irrevocable letter of credit issued by a Universal or Commercial Bank

A

2%

316
Q

Amount of bid security for form of bid security: Surety bond callable upon demand issued by a surety or insurance company duly certified by the Insurance Commission as authorized to issue such security

A

5%

317
Q

The Bid Securing Declaration is an undertaking which states that the bidder shall enter into contract with the Procuring Entity and furnish the performance security required within ___ from receipt of the Notice of Award, and commits to pay the corresponding amount as fine

A

10 CDs

318
Q

The entire evaluation process, including the submission of the results thereof to the HoPE for approval, shall be completed in ___ after the deadline for receipt of bids.

A

21 CDs

319
Q

The HoPE shall approve or disapprove the recommendations of the BAC regarding the HRB within ___ after receipt of the results of the evaluation from the BAC

A

2 CDs

320
Q

The bidding results shall be posted in the PhilGEPS and the website of the Procuring Entity, if available, for a period of ___

A

7 CDs

321
Q

Once the contract has been awarded, no replacement shall be allowed until after ___ of the personnel’s man-months have been served

A

50%

322
Q

Within a non-extendible period of ___ from receipt by the Consultant of the notice from the BAC that it submitted the Highest Rated Bid, the Consultant shall submit its latest income and business tax returns filed and paid through the BIR Electronic Filing and Payment System (EFPS) and other appropriate licenses and permits required by law and stated in the BDS

A

5 CDs

323
Q

Within a period not exceeding ___ from the determination by the BAC of the HRRB and the recommendation to award the contract, the HoPE or his duly authorized representative shall approve or disapprove the said recommendation

A

15 CDs

324
Q

The Procuring Entity shall notify the successful Consultant in writing that its bid has been accepted, through a Notice of Award duly received by the Consultant personally or by registered mail or electronically, receipt of which must be confirmed in writing within ___ by the Consultant with the HRRB and submitted personally or sent by registered mail or electronically to the Procuring Entity

A

2 CDs

325
Q

Submission of the following documents within ___ from receipt of the Notice of Award: JVA, and if foregin consultant, PhilGEPS Registration Number and SEC Certificate of Registration

A

10 CDs

326
Q

Within ___ from receipt of the Notice of Award, the successful Bidder shall post the required performance security and sign and date the contract and return it to the Procuring Entity

A

10 CDs

327
Q

Amount of performance security for form of performance security: Cash or cashier’s/manager’s check issued by a Universal or Commercial Bank

A

5%

328
Q

Amount of performance security for form of performance security: Bank draft/guarantee or irrevocable letter of credit issued by a Universal or Commercial Bank

A

5%

329
Q

Amount of performance security for form of performance security: Surety bond callable upon demand issued by a surety or insurance company duly certified by the Insurance Commission as authorized to issue such security

A

30%

330
Q

Within ___ from the date of approval of the contract by the appropriate government approving authority, the Procuring Entity shall issue the Notice to Proceed together with copies of the approved contract to the successful Consultant.

A

7 CDs

331
Q

Kind of evaluation procedure: Technical and Financial Scores are combined to determine the winner. ABC is stated and Financial Proposal above this amount are rejected except in the case of WB, no ABC or cost estimate is included in the Bidding Documents except for an estimate of the staff months required to complete the Project

A

Quality Cost Based Evaluation/Selection (QCBE/QCBS)

332
Q

Kind of evaluation procedure: The Consultant achieving the highest Technical Score has its Financial Proposal opened and is invited to negotiate a contract based on its Technical and Financial Proposals irrespective of the amount of the Financial Proposal. No other Financial Proposals are opened

A

Quality Based Selection (QBS)

333
Q

Kind of evaluation procedure: The Consultant achieving the highest Technical Score has its Financial Proposal opened and provided that it is within the ABC or cost estimate, which is disclosed in the Bidding Documents, is invited to negotiate a contract

A

Quality Based Evaluation (QBE)

334
Q

Kind of evaluation procedure: The Consultant achieving the highest Technical Score has its Financial Proposal opened and provided that it is within the ABC or cost estimate, which is disclosed in the Bidding Documents, is invited to negotiate a contract

A

Selection Under a Fixed Budget

335
Q

Kind of evaluation procedure: All Consultants passing a minimum Technical Score have their Financial Proposals opened. The Consultant with the least cost is invited to negotiate a contract

A

Least Cost Selection

336
Q

Only a maximum of ___ of the Consulting Services may be subcontracted

A

20%

337
Q

If the evaluation procedure is Quality Based: The BAC shall, within ___, notify and invite the consultant with the Highest Rated Bid for the opening of financial proposal for the purpose of conducting negotiations with the said consultant.

A

3 CDs

338
Q

If the evaluation procedure is Quality-Cost Based: The financial and technical proposals shall be given corresponding weights with the financial proposal given a minimum weight of ___ up to a maximum of ___

A

Minimum of 15%, maximum of 40%

339
Q

SCC

A

Special Conditions of Contract

340
Q

A Party affected by an event of force majeure shall notify the other Party of such event as soon as possible, and in any event not later than ___ following the occurrence of such event, providing evidence of the nature and cause of such event, and shall similarly give notice of the restoration of normal conditions as soon as possible

A

15 CDs

341
Q

The Procuring Entity shall, by written notice of suspension to the Consultant, suspend all payments to the Consultant and shall request the Consultant to remedy such failure within a period not exceeding ___ after receipt by the Consultant of such notice of suspension

A

30 CDs

342
Q

The Consultant may suspend the Services if the Procuring Entity fails to perform any of its obligations which are critical to the delivery of the Consultant’s services such as, non-payment of any money due the Consultant within ___ after receiving notice from the Consultant that such payment is overdue.

A

45 days

343
Q

The Procuring Entity shall terminate the contract if the Consultant is unable to deliver or perform a material portion of the Outputs and Deliverables for a period of ___ after the Consultant’s receipt of the notice from the Procuring Entity stating that the circumstance of force majeure is deemed to have ceased

A

60 CDs

344
Q

In case of termination, written notice shall be understood to mean ___ for short term contracts, i.e., four (4) months or less, and ___ for long term contracts

A

15 CDs, 30 CDs

345
Q

The Consultant must serve a written notice to the Procuring Entity of its intention to terminate this Contract at least ___ before its intended termination. This Contract is deemed terminated if no action has been taken by the Procuring Entity with regard to such written notice within ___ after the receipt thereof by the Procuring Entity.

A

30 CDs

346
Q

Termination by the Consultant: The Procuring Entity is in material breach of its obligations pursuant to this Contract and has not remedied the same within ___ following its receipt of the Consultant’s notice specifying such breach

A

60 CDs

347
Q

Termination by the Consultant: The Procuring Entity fails to pay any money due to the Consultant pursuant to this Contract and not subject to dispute within ___ after receiving written notice from the Consultant that such payment is overdue

A

84 CDs

348
Q

Within a period of ___ from receipt of the Notice of Termination, the Consultant shall submit to the HoPE a verified position paper stating why this Contract should not be terminated

A

7 CDs

349
Q

Within a non-extendable period of ___ from receipt of the verified position paper, the HoPE shall decide whether or not to terminate this Contract.

A

10 CDs

350
Q

Key Personnel and Subconsultants: If the Procuring Entity does not object in writing; or if it objects in writing but fails to state the reasons for such objection, within ___ from the date of receipt of such biographical data, the Key Personnel concerned shall be deemed to have been approved by the Procuring Entity

A

21 CDs

351
Q

Key Personnel: Adjustments with respect to the estimated periods of engagement of Key Personnel may be made by the Consultant by prior written notice to the Procuring Entity, provided that such adjustments shall not alter the originally estimated period of engagement of any individual by more than ___

A

10%

352
Q

In case of a reduction of the contract value, the Procuring Entity shall allow a proportional reduction in the original performance security, provided that any such reduction is more than ___ and that the aggregate of such reductions is not more than ___ of the original performance security

A

10%, 50%

353
Q

The Services shall be deemed completed and finally accepted by the Procuring Entity and the final report and final statement shall be deemed approved by the Procuring Entity as satisfactory ___ after receipt of the final report and final statement by the Procuring Entity

A

90 CDs

354
Q

Liquidated damages for delay: maxmimum dedcution

A

10% of contract price

355
Q

Multiple Nuclei Model: isolated square in the middle of the other two isolated squares

A

Commuter belt

356
Q

NFCC

A

Net Financial Contracting Capacity

357
Q

A natural or juridical person, qualified by appropriate education, training and relevant experience to render any or all of the types and fields of consulting services

A

Consultant

358
Q

Types of consulting services: These services consist of the review and the provision of advice on particular projects or problems. They also include such services as appearances before commissions, boards or other judicial bodies to give evidence or otherwise submit professional opinions.

A

Advisory and Review Services

359
Q

Types of consulting services: These are the studies which normally precede decisions to go (or not to go) forward with specific projects

  • By establishing investment priorities and sector policies
  • Determining the basic features and the feasibility of individual projects
  • Proposing changes in governmental policies, operations and institutions
A

Pre-Investment or Feasibility Studies

360
Q

Types of consulting services:

  • Establishes the general size and scope of the project and its location on the site
  • The preparation of detailed plans, designs,and tender documents required for invitations of bids for construction works and equipment
  • Assistance and advice in securing bids and making recommendations on the award of construction contracts, and in preparing formal contract documents
A

Design

361
Q

Types of consulting services:

  • Inspection and expediting of the work;
  • Issuance of instructions for correcting on the work;
  • Review and recommendation for approval of progress and final billings of the contractor; and
  • Provision of record or as-built drawings of the completed projects.
A

Construction supervision

362
Q

Types of consulting services:

  • Sector policy and regional development studies;
  • Planning, feasibility, market, economic, financial, technical, operations and sociological studies;
  • Project management
  • General management consultancy
A

Management and related services

363
Q

Types of consulting services:

  • Institution building
  • Design and execution of training programs
  • Tasks relating to economic and financial studies
A

Technical services or special studies

364
Q

Contingency amount must not exceed ___ of the contract

A

5%

365
Q

Domestic preference: The lowest Foregin Bid shall be increased by ___

A

15%

366
Q

Kind/s of procured services: Lowest Calculated and Responsive Bid

A

Goods and Infrastructure Services

367
Q

Kind/s of procured services: Highest Calculated and Responsive Bid

A

Consultancy services

368
Q

The ABC may be adjusted, provided it is not more than ___ of the ABC for the last failed bidding, and the required approval for the increase have been obtained

A

20%

369
Q

Method of procurement that involves direct invitation to bid by the procuring entity from a set of pre-selected suppliers or consultants with known experience and proven capability relative to the requirements of a particular contact

A

Limited source bidding or selective bidding

370
Q

Method of procurement that does not require elaborate Bidding Documents because the supplier is simply asked to submit a price quotation or a pro-forma invoice together with the conditions of sale, which offer may be accepted immediately or after some negotiations

A

Direct contracting or single source procurement

371
Q

Method of procurement that involves direct Procurement of Goods from the previous winning bidder, whenever there is a need to replenish Goods procured under a contract previously awarded through Competitive Bidding

A

Repeat order

372
Q

Method of procurement whereby the Procuring Entity simply requests for the submission of price quotations for readily available off-the-shelf Goods or ordinary/regular equipment to be procured directly from suppliers of known qualification

A

Shopping

373
Q

Method of Procurement that may be resorted under the extraordinary circumstances, whereby the Procuring Entity directly negotiates a contract with a technically, legally, and financially capable supplier, contractor or consultant

A

Negotiated procurement

374
Q

Method of procurement that involves direct invitation to bid by the procuring entity from a set of pre-selected suppliers or consultants with known experience and proven capability relative to the requirements of a particular contact

A

Limited source bidding or selective bidding

375
Q

Method of procurement that does not require elaborate Bidding Documents because the supplier is simply asked to submit a price quotation or a pro-forma invoice together with the conditions of sale, which offer may be accepted immediately or after some negotiations

A

Direct contracting or single source procurement

376
Q

Method of procurement that involves direct Procurement of Goods from the previous winning bidder, whenever there is a need to replenish Goods procured under a contract previously awarded through Competitive Bidding

A

Repeat order

377
Q

Method of procurement whereby the Procuring Entity simply requests for the submission of price quotations for readily available off-the-shelf Goods or ordinary/regular equipment to be procured directly from suppliers of known qualification

A

Shopping

378
Q

Method of Procurement that may be resorted under the extraordinary circumstances, whereby the Procuring Entity directly negotiates a contract with a technically, legally, and financially capable supplier, contractor or consultant

A

Negotiated procurement

379
Q

Repeat order is only valid ___ after Notice to Proceed from the last order and should not be ___ quantity of original contract

A

6 months; more than 25%

380
Q

Shopping is for unforeseen contingency that is ___

A

Less than 50,000

381
Q

Protest fee is ___ of ABC

A

1%

382
Q

GPPB

A

Government Procurement Policy Board

383
Q

Government Procurement Policy Board chair and alt chair

A

Chair: DBM Secretary

Alt chair: NEDA Director-General

JEPBE (17 decks)

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