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LATG > LATG Tests > Flashcards

LATG Tests Flashcards

1
Q

Which term would you use to describe the effect of a combination of a phenothiazine tranquilizer and an anesthetic?

A

Additive

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2
Q

Which drug is often combined with benzodiazepine tranquilizers to induce a dissociative state and provide pain relief and sedation?

A

Ketamine

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3
Q

In which species does the administration of morphine frequently induce vomiting and defecation?

A

Dogs

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4
Q

What is the most common side effect of NSAIDSs?

A

Gastro irritation

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5
Q

In which species is atropine not effective to reduce salivation under anesthesia?

A

Rabbits

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6
Q

What do high concentrations of neutrophils usually indicate?

A

active baterial infection

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7
Q

In which technique is the x-ray beam rotated 360° around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?

A

Computed Tomography

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8
Q

Bioluminescent imaging requires a light signal from which molecule?

A

Luciferin

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9
Q

Which disease of rodents affects the salivary glands and the Harderian glands?

A

Sialodacryoadenitis

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10
Q

What is the definition of virulence?

A

Pathogenicity of an organism

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11
Q

What is a major advantage of flexible isolators compared to rigid isolators?

A

Less expensive to manufacture

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12
Q

What function does a transfer sleeve serve?

A

Connect the supply cylinder to isolator entry port

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13
Q

If a genetically modified mouse is dying and cannot be saved, it is important to attempt to save which of the following?

A

Gonads

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14
Q

Which of the following order of steps should be followed to produce gene-targeted animals?

A

• Injection of superovulating hormone (PMSG); injection of egg-releasing hormone (hCG); mating with stud male; harvesting of embryo

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15
Q

If a transgene is integrated in one of the chromosomes of a pair, the animal is said to be:

A

Hemizygous

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16
Q

If only one allele is mutated using CRISPR/Cas9, what is the resulting animal known as?

A

Mosaic animal

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17
Q

How do restriction enzymes cut DNA in a sample into several smaller pieces?

A

They bind at specific base pair sequences and cut the DNA at those sites

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18
Q

How has qPCR made environmental testing possible?

A

Only a tiny amount of RNA is needed for a valid measurement

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a monosaccharide

A

Sucrose

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20
Q

What breaks down dietary fiber?

A

BActeria

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21
Q

Ferrets and cats must have a diet containing which organic acid?

A

Taurine

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22
Q

Which condition can newborns with phenylketonuria (PKU) develop?

A

Mental retardation

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23
Q

Which of the following is used to represent an estimate of the reasonable level of a chemical to which a worker can be exposed without adverse effects?

A

Threshold limit value

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24
Q

Regulations and standards for USDA- regulated species are specified in which of the following?

A

Animal Welfare Act

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25
Q

What is one of the main factors that determine the number of sentinels used?

A

Expected morbidity of the agents being monitored

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26
Q

How soon after exposure should a sentinel be tested for a specific pathogen?

A

3 to 6 weeks post exposure

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27
Q

Which of the following is NOT provided by data obtained from microbial monitoring?

A

Confirmation of the validity of study results

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28
Q

Which USDA publication clarifies the intent of the Animal Welfare Act?

A

Animal care policy manual

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29
Q

PHS policy assurance is resubmitted every:

A

5 years

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30
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding actions taken after a USDA inspection?

A

Elements on an inspection report can be negotiated after the exit briefing

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31
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the general provisions of the GLP regulations?

A

Sterilization procedures

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32
Q

Which of the following is often referred to as the Worker Right-to-Know legislation?

A

OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard

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33
Q

Which statement regarding the disposal of low-level radioactive waste is FALSE?

A

The Agreement States are responsible for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste in all states.

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34
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding post-approval monitoring programs?

A

There are many state regulations with specific requirements for post-approval monitoring programs.

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35
Q

Which group does NOT generally play a role in developing the animal facility’s security plan?

A

Grants and programs

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36
Q

The secretion of antibodies occurs during which step of the acquired immune response

A

Response

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37
Q

Which cells of the immune system develop into plasma cells?

A

Bcells

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38
Q

What cells do SCID mice lack:

A

T and B cells

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39
Q

Which statement applies to chronic immune complex diseases?

A

There is an accumulation of antigen-antibody complexes in the bloodstream.

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40
Q

Many different organisms can grow in a(n) ___ agar, but differences in their reactions can be observed

A

Differential agar

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41
Q

Bacteria staining pink with Gram stain are called _________.

A

Gram negative

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42
Q

Bacteria staining Purple with cell wall Gram stain are called _________.

A

Gram positive

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43
Q

Three shapes of bacteria

A

Cocci, bacilli, spiral

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44
Q

Mosquitoes are vectors for the transmission of which of the following parasites?

A

Heartworms

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45
Q

What kind of parasites are nematodes

A

Round worms

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46
Q

What kind of parasitres are Trematodes

A

Flukes

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47
Q

What kind of parasites are cestodes

A

Flatworms

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48
Q

At necropsy, which finding is most likely in an animal infected by Mycoplasma pulmonis?

A

Scarred lungs

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49
Q

Which of the following is least likely to cause intestinal inflammation in mice or rats?

A

Mycoplasma spp.

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50
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of feline respiratory disease?

A

Dry cough

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51
Q

Which disease may result in the sudden death of large numbers of fish in the aquaria?

A

Gas bubble diease

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52
Q

Which disease found in fish can cause nonhealing granuloma ulcers on the skin in humans?

A

Mycobacteriosis

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53
Q

Mycobacteriosis in fish is thought to spread through which of the following?

A

Cannibalism of dead tank mates

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54
Q

Which method is most commonly used for the detection of pinworm species?

A

Cellophane tape test

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55
Q

Which imaging modality uses molecules that produce a certain light wavelength when exposed to ultraviolet light?

A

Fluorescence

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56
Q

The use of ivermectin should be avoided or carefully controlled in which group of animals

A

Certain dogs

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57
Q

Which factor is an advantage of barbiturate agents?

A

Time to loss of consciousness

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58
Q

What is one precaution that must be considered when using urethane as an anesthetic agent?

A

Protective equipment

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59
Q

When using rebreathing anesthesia systems, which of the following reaches the animal’s lungs?

A

A mixture of fresh and exhaled gases

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60
Q

In rebreathing systems, the exhaled gases pass through a canister that absorbs which of the following?

A

Carbon dioxide

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61
Q

What is the tidal volume for most laboratory animals?

A

15-20ml/kg

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62
Q

What does an ultrasonic Doppler flow detector measure?

A

Blood pressure

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63
Q

If results from a study can be replicated in some animal studies but not in others, the study lacks:

A

generality.

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64
Q

The confidence level is an index of:

A

Certainty

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65
Q

The probability that the difference observed in the data happened by chance and is due to normal distribution rather than to the experimental treatment is known as the:

A

P-value

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66
Q

What is a serious complication associated with the use of the anesthetic tribromoethanol

A

Intestinal ileus

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67
Q

Which measure is unnecessary when using an open-drop chamber to anesthetize an animal?

A

Ensure that enough oxygen is delivered to sustain the animal’s metabolic needs.

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68
Q

Radioactive isotopes can be attached to which molecule in positron emission tomography?

A

Glucose

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69
Q

Which tissue type is used to test for mouse parvovirus?

A

Lymph node

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70
Q

How is rumen stasis generally treated?

A

Administration of warmed saline and electrolytes

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71
Q

Which of the following is a common fungal infection in zebrafish?

A

Pseudoloma neurophilia

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72
Q

What are the three steps involved in an acquired immunity response to a foreign substance?

A

Recognition, amplification, and resolution

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73
Q

When wild type females are bred to hemizygous males, what percentage of the resulting pups can be expected to have the transgene?

A

50%

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74
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding the collection and purification of DNA?

A

Collecting DNA involves physically breaking open some cells.

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75
Q

The deficiency of which essential micromineral results in impaired glucose metabolism?

A

Chromium

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76
Q

Which of the following techniques uses a radioisotope to provide images of in vivo biological processes?

A

Positron emmision tomography (glucose)

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77
Q

Electrophoresis is a technique used to___________ the DNA fragments.

A

Separate

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78
Q

Canine parvovirus is an acute infection affecting which part of the gastrointestinal system?

A

small intestine

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79
Q

What do depressed levels of neutrophils usually indicate?

A

Active viral infection

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80
Q

What do increased levels of neutrophils usually indicate?

A

ACtive bacterial infection

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81
Q

Sentinel animals should be at least what age?

A

8-12 weeks

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82
Q

Stud males should be what age:

A

3-8months

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83
Q

What is the first class of immunoglobulins to be synthesized by a fetus or newborn in response to an antigen?

A

IgM

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84
Q

Most abundant immunoglobulin

A

IgG

85
Q

What is a secondary immunodeficiency disorder

A

From disease or cancer

86
Q

Light levels of __________foot-candles at _______meter(s) above the floor are adequate for most routine care procedures.

A

30,1

87
Q

What does the specific gravity of urine measure?

A

Kidneys ability to concentrate urine

88
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of tidal volume?

A

Tidal volume

89
Q

What best defines the term “variable” as used in the biomedical research field?

A

It represents anything that can affect the results of a study.

90
Q

Which of the following statements apply to the pinworm Aspiculuris tetraptera?

A

It can only be detected following necropsy

91
Q

The USDA APHIS Annual Report of Enforcement is based in part on which of the following?

A

Annual reports submitted to USDA by registered facilities

92
Q

What technique is most used to detect Helicobacter spp.?

A

PCR (polymerase chain reaction

93
Q

What best describes gamma radiation?

A

type of electromagnetic radiation.

94
Q

What can the multiplex fluorescent immunoassay detect?

A

Presence of viral antibodies

95
Q

What is a common method used to detect exposure to viral pathogens?

A

ELISA

96
Q

Levels of light photo intensity above ______ foot- candles can cause retinal damage in some albino animals.

A

75

97
Q

What must be absent from the diet of an animal to be used for fluorescent imaging?

A

cellulose?

98
Q

During magnetic resonance imaging, which ions realign with the magnetic field

A

Hydrogen

99
Q

Toxocara canis is which type of parasite?

A

ascarid

100
Q

An infection with Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is called:

A

cutaneous capillaris

101
Q

In which three species should penicillin not be used or used only for short periods of time?

A

rabbits, g pigs, gerbils

102
Q

Which enzyme works with gastric acid to break down protein in the digestive system?

A

Pepsin

103
Q

Steroids belong in which group of organic compounds?

A

Lipids

104
Q

Which reflex is maintained if ketamine is the sole anesthetic agent used?

A

Larygneal

105
Q

A drug interaction that results in reduced effect of one or both drugs is called:

A

antagonistic

106
Q

For which condition are cephalosporins often used?

A

Conditions that have shown resistance to other antibiotics

107
Q

What makes rabbits prone to blockages caused by hairballs?

A

small pyloric lumen

108
Q

What should be used to clear <i>Clostridium pilliforme</i> from equipment?

A

antisporicidal sterilant

109
Q

Guinea pigs housed on wire floors may have inflamed, swollen, and painful feet due to infection with which organism?

A

S, Aureus

110
Q

Which of the following is described as the cessation or reduction in the motility of a ruminant’s stomach due to indigestion caused by a change within the animal?

A

Rumen stasis

111
Q

Which swine disease can be prevented by vaccination?

A

staph hyicus

112
Q

What is the term for the stainless steel container in which materials and supplies are sterilized before placing in the isolator?

A

supply cylinder

113
Q

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate sterilization method for gnotobiotic systems?

A

carbon dioxide

114
Q

Which statement is true of axenic animals as compared to animals with normal microflora?

A

lower white blood cell counts

115
Q

Which statement applies to haploid cells?

A

germ cells

116
Q

In which process does a eukaryotic cell nucleus split into two identical cells, followed by the division of the parent cell into two daughter cells?

A

Mitosis

117
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding mitosis and meiosis?

A

Mitosis results in two diploid daughter cells, and meiosis results in four haploid daughter cells.

118
Q

Cloning DNA is accomplished by either polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or by using:

A

bacteria

119
Q

Which statement regarding isoflavone is FALSE?

A

Isoflavones may strengthen the immune response

120
Q

Exposure to which of the following is a potential hazard related to the use of lasers during surgery?

A

aerosols and gases

121
Q

Which type of sampling can be used in place of bedding sentinels?

A

envrionmental dust

122
Q

To be compliant with OLAW, what document should be the basis of the IACUC review of the institution’s program for the use and care of animals?

A

The guide

123
Q

Where should a laboratory animal technologist obtain specific information regarding regulations on the transport of research animals?

A

The regulatory documents

124
Q

Which agency is responsible for issuing permits for importing or exporting wild species?

A

US fish and wildlife services

125
Q

What should be the IACUC’s first step in responding to a report of noncompliance?

A

Identify the underlying causes.

126
Q

Which document states that an animal facility must develop a disaster plan?

A

The guide

127
Q

When charging for services by time and materials, how are total labor costs calculated?

A

An hourly rate is multiplied by the number of service hours provided over a period of time.

128
Q

In case phone lines and cell towers are down, which of the following may be needed?

A

prearranged meeting site

129
Q

Which parasiticide is used to treat pinworms in rodents?

A

fenbendazole

130
Q

Which type of bedding is required in GLP studies?

A

certified

131
Q

Serology is testing of serum for the presence or absence of:

A

antibodies

132
Q

Which of the following represents a difference between the Animal Welfare Act and the PHS Policy?

A

PHS Policy covers mice, rats, and birds.

133
Q

Which disease in fish is caused by a protozoan species?

A

Ich

134
Q

Gentamicin and kanamycin are examples of which type of antibiotics?

A

aminoglycosides

135
Q

Gentamicin and kanamycin are examples of which type of antibiotics?

A

aminoglycosides

136
Q

Which procedure determines the level of mRNA transcripts in a sample?

A

quant rt-pcr

137
Q

Which organization accredits research institutions with high-quality programs that meet federal laws and guidelines?

A

AAALAC

138
Q

Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

A

linoleic acid

139
Q

Which micromineral is an important component of Vitamin B12?

A

cobalt

140
Q

Which micromineral is an important component of Vitamin B12?

A

cobalt

141
Q

Why are foundation colonies generally maintained in the defined flora state instead of in the axenic state?

A

litter size optimize

142
Q

Which statement best describes diploid cells?

A

chomes. exsist in pairs

143
Q

How many days does it generally take for an animal to develop an immune response to an agent?

A

10-14

144
Q

Which organization has developed standards and guidelines to help prevent the transmission of zoonoses through importation of animals?

A

The World Organization for Animal Health

145
Q

Which statement best describes the intent of the “mirror principle”?

A

Your employees will generally react toward you the way you act toward them.

146
Q

If it becomes necessary for the supervisor to get involved in a conflict between two employees, a good approach is to:

A

have them describe in writing specific actions they find objectionable.

147
Q

What purpose do subsidies serve?

A

To reduce costs to run the facility

148
Q

Among the following facilities, which one is generally thought to be at the lowest risk of being targeted by animal rights activists?

A

Facility housing only fish and amphibians

149
Q

Which task can wait until after staff are allowed to return to the facility?

A

Assessing the disaster plan

150
Q

How often should a research facility using regulated species update their USDA registration?

A

3 years

151
Q

Who makes unannounced facility inspections at least once a year?

A

Veterinary medical officers from APHIS

152
Q

Which agency is responsible for issuing permits for importing or exporting wild species?

A

US fish and wildlife services FWS

153
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding post-approval monitoring programs?

A

There are many state regulations with specific requirements for post-approval monitoring programs.

154
Q

As a radioactive substance decays, the energy and particles that are emitted are referred to by which term?

A

radiation

155
Q

Which type of radiation is electromagnetic radiation generated non-radioactively?

A

Xrays

156
Q

What is a method by which an animal can be given passive immunity?

A

giving the animal preformed antibodies

157
Q

In AIDS, the HIV virus destroys which of the cells involved in the immune response?

A

Th cells and macrophages

158
Q

The major histocompatibility complex proteins (MHC) are found on the surface of which cells?

A

t cells

159
Q

What best describes a transgenic animal?

A

An animal whose chromosomes contain DNA from an external source

160
Q

What is a transgene?

A

The fragment of DNA that is introduced into the nucleus of a cell

161
Q

If fertilized eggs are required, along with egg donor females, which animals are required?

A

stud males

162
Q

Which of the following is NOT a dietary macromineral?

A

copper

163
Q

Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

A

linoleic acid

164
Q

Which carbohydrate classification is also known as starch?

A

Polysaccharide

165
Q

Insufficient dietary fiber in rabbits can cause which of the following?

A

Trichobezoars

166
Q

Which species are carriers of <i>B. bronchiseptica</i> and so should not be housed in the same areas as guinea pigs?

A

Rabbits

167
Q

Which of the following clinical signs in NOT associated with Aleutian disease in ferrets?

A

ocular discharge

168
Q

What treatment is recommended for dogs diagnosed with canine parvovirus?

A

Intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and analgesics

169
Q

What causes most of the illness of pasteurellosis in ruminants?

A

bacterial endotoxin

170
Q

What is the most common disease of freshwater fish maintained in aquaria in institutional settings?

A

Microsporidiosis

171
Q

Which swine disease can be prevented by vaccination?

A

PRRSV

172
Q

Which disease found in fish can cause nonhealing granuloma ulcers on the skin in humans?

A

mycobacteriosis

173
Q

Which disease in fish can be successfully treated with repeated dilute formalin baths?

A

ich

174
Q

A goat that is staggering and kicking their belly most likely has which condition?

A

grain overload

175
Q

Which is a clinical sign of coccidiosis?

A

Altered liver function

176
Q

At necropsy, which finding is most likely in an animal infected by <i>Mycoplasma pulmonis</i>?

A

Scarred lungs

177
Q

<i>Helicobacter</i> spp. are most commonly diagnosed with which technique

A

PCR

178
Q

Which mouse viral infection is considered the most widespread in facilities in the United States and Canada?

A

Mouse norovirus

179
Q

Which tissue type is used to test for mouse parvovirus?

A

lymph node

180
Q

Which method is most commonly used for the detection of pinworm species?

A

cellophane tape test

181
Q

Which of the following is an example of a contrast medium?

A

Gadolinium

182
Q

In which technique is the x-ray beam rotated 360° around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?

A

Computed tomography

183
Q

Who is typically responsible for space management in a facility?

A

The manager in collaboration with the veterinarians and senior scientific staff

184
Q

Which management function most directly affects accomplishment of the mission of the institution and animal care program?

A

goal setting

185
Q

Under which circumstance does cost containment need to be considered

A

When year-to-date expenses exceed what was budgeted

186
Q

What purpose do subsidies serve?

A

To reduce costs to run the facility

187
Q

When charging for services by time and materials, how are total labor costs calculated?

A

An hourly rate is multiplied by the number of service hours provided over a period of time.

188
Q

Which USDA publication clarifies the intent of the Animal Welfare Act?

A

Animal Care Policy Manual

189
Q

Which statement best describes AAALAC’s program status evaluation?

A

It is a confidential peer review process

190
Q

Which of the following is/are part of the IACUC inspection criteria?

A

All records required by the AWA and PHS must be available for review.

191
Q

What is the most important component of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) right-to-know program?

A

Employee training and information program

192
Q

Which documents are available through FOIA and E-FOIA?

A

USDA inspection reports and PHS letters of assurance

193
Q

What does southern blot detect

A

DNA

194
Q

What does northern blot detect

A

RNA

195
Q

What does western blot detect

A

Protein

196
Q

A ___________ is a flexible plastic tube used to add material to or remove material from the
isolator.

A

transfer sleeve

197
Q

What does the specific gravity of urine reflect?

A

kidney’s ability to concentrate or dilute urine

198
Q

Which of the following laboratory animals has been used as an animal model for the overt form of leprosy?

A

armadillo Dasypus novemcinctus

199
Q

What is the genus and species of the gray short tailed opossum?

A

Mondelphis domestica

200
Q

Mice and rats are related and belong to which suborder?

A

myomorpha

201
Q

is the most commonly used phenothiazine tranquilizer.

A

acepromazine, acetylpromazine

202
Q

What are two alternatives methods that can be used to reduce or eliminate the noise that typically is used in traditional fire alarms?

A

Low frequency sounds or long wavelength red flashing lights

203
Q

Biochemical markers used to monitor genetic integrity include:

A

proteins

204
Q

What is a main factor for determining the number animals used as sentinels?

A

expected morbidity of the agents being monitored

205
Q

Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta and offers protection to the newborn during the first few weeks of life?

A

IgG

206
Q

What best defines the term antibody titer?

A

A measurement of the amount of antibody present

207
Q

Fusing a plasma cell with a tumor cell gives creates ________ that are used to produce__________.

A

hybridomas; monoclonal antibodies

208
Q

Which scenario applies to the production of chimeras?

A

Embryos are harvested at the blastocyst stage

LATG (18 decks)

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