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Repro > Lab Final > Flashcards

Lab Final Flashcards

1
Q

Reproductive technologies

A

Semen sexing
IVP of embryos
Transgenic animal production
Gene mapping
Marker assisted selection

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2
Q

Transgenic animal production examples

A

Micro injection
Blastocyst injection
Nuclear transfer

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3
Q

Propagate superior livestock animals

A

Cloning

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4
Q

Remove or add a gene to improve a breed of livestock

A

Transgenics

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5
Q

Select animals for specific traits very early in life

A

Coat color in cattle

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6
Q

Production of proteins which are essential to human life

A

Milk
Blood
Urine

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7
Q

Alter specific genes in specific locations to attain a desirable result

A

Transgenics

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8
Q

What chromosome gives off more light emission because it has more dye and more DNA

A

X chromosome

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9
Q

What chromosome has an extra short arm

A

X chromosome

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10
Q

What determines sex

A

Sperm

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11
Q

What excites vital dye in semen sexing

A

Laser

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12
Q

Why does the X chromosome have more dna

A

Extra short arm

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13
Q

Sperm run through system ______

A

Individually

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14
Q

Sperm is given a charge based on

A

Light intensity

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15
Q

Pass magnetic field in semen sexing

A

Sorting

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16
Q

Dead or damaged sperm not selected

A

Purifying samples

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17
Q

System that has a 95% or better success sorting

A

Flow cytometric analysis of sperm

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18
Q

Ovaries isolate

A

Oocytes

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19
Q

Step 1 of in vitro fertilization

A

Synchronization of recipients with donor

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20
Q

Step 2 of in vitro fertilization

A

Superovulation of donor

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21
Q

Multiple treatments of porcine FSH promotes more

A

Follicle development

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22
Q

8 CLs mean the donor is

A

Super ovulated

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23
Q

Step 3 or in vitro fertilization

A

Inseminate donor with semen from genetically superior bull

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24
Q

Work AI rod through the ______ by ______ ________

A

Cervix
Rectal palpation

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25
Q

Once rod is beyond the cervix in the uterine body then you

A

Deposit semen

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26
Q

Step 4 of in vitro fertilization

A

Recovery and identification of viable embryos

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27
Q

Collect/flush the embryos in the

A

Uterine horn

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28
Q

Step 5 of in vitro fertilization

A

Transfer of viable embryos into synchronized recipients

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29
Q

Cattle: Want the recipient to be a day _____, a day ______, or

A

Ahead
Behind
Exact synchrony with donor

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30
Q

Pig: want recipients to have _____ ______ or be a little _______

A

Exact synchrony
Behind

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31
Q

Cow transfer of viable embryos into synchronized recipients days

A

5, 6, or 7

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32
Q

Pig transfer of viable embryos into synchronized recipients days

A

5 or 6

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33
Q

Long ultrasound probe inserted into reproductive tract through vulva into vagina

A

Transvaginal aspiration

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34
Q

Always better to transfer ______ than to freeze

A

Immediately

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35
Q

Provides suction and holds embryo in place

A

Holding pipette

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36
Q

Snap on end-injection needle —> into pro nucleus

A

Glass pipette

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37
Q

Embryos are not designed to be centrifuged at ____ speeds

A

High

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38
Q

Efficiency of trans gene integration following micro injection

A

10% success rate mouse embryos
Livestock even less efficient

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39
Q

Blastocyst injection of embryonic stem cells occurs at a much ____ stage in development

A

Later

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40
Q

What houses the developing fetus during gestation

A

Placenta

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41
Q

Cells can either be ______ ____ ____ or _______

A

Inner cell mass
Trophoblast

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42
Q

Fluid-filled area

A

Blastocoel

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43
Q

Forms embryo

A

Inner cell mass

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44
Q

Forms placenta

A

Trophoblast

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45
Q

Day 6-7 embryo development

A

Compact morula

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46
Q

Day 7-8 embryo development

A

Early blastocyst

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47
Q

Day 7-9 embryo development

A

Blastocyst

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48
Q

Day 8-10 embryo development

A

Expanded blastocyst

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49
Q

Day 9-11 embryo development

A

Hatching blastocyst

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50
Q

Trophoblast cells die off means a

A

Pure population of inner cell mass cells (embryonic stem cells)

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51
Q

Embryonic stem cells can utilize

A

Gene targeting

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52
Q

Can add a gene, replace a gene, or remove a gene in a very specific location

A

Gene targeting

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53
Q

Gene targeting needs _____ of embryonic stem cells

A

Millions

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54
Q

Gene is swapped with genetic alteration

A

Homologous recombination

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55
Q

Select cells to isolate only those that were able to take out that genetic alteration

A

Selection of transformed embryonic stem cells

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56
Q

Cells taken up foreign DNA acquire

A

Antibody resistance

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57
Q

Select colonies of cells with identical genetic alterations

A

Isolation of transformed embryonic stem cells

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58
Q

Millions/billions of cells that can freeze down to liquid nitrogen

A

Expand transformed embryonic stem cells

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59
Q

Comprised of 2 completely different breeds
Not crossbred

A

Chimera

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60
Q

Sheep/goat chimera is a

A

Geep

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61
Q

Genetic alteration disadvantage

A

2 generations needed to get genetically engineered animal

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62
Q

Generic alteration advantage

A

Can target genetic alterations before the animal is made

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63
Q

Clone donor cells examples

A

Ear punch
Liver
Embryonic stem cells

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64
Q

1st cloned sheep using somatic cells

A

Dolly

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65
Q

What somatic cells were used to clone dolly

A

Mammary gland cells

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66
Q

Best candidate for transferring organs into humans

A

Pigs

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67
Q

1st cloned cat

A

Carbon copy

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68
Q

Cloning advantage

A

Can make a genetically engineered animal in one generation

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69
Q

Cloning disadvantage

A

Not super efficient
Expensive

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70
Q

UNL genetically engineered pigs contained what protein

A

Green fluorescent

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71
Q

Approaching cow for rectal palpation procedure

A
  1. Grasp tail firmly lift to one side
  2. Put on lubricated glove or sleeve
  3. Insert closed hand into rectum halfway to elbow
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72
Q

Heat checking: gilts exposed to boar exposure for __ to ____ minutes

A

15 to 20 minutes

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73
Q

The gilt being mounted by other gilts is

A

In heat

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74
Q

In heat gilt characteristics

A

Frozen, immobile, stands solid
Ears pinned back
Allows to sit on back
Red, swollen Vulva

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75
Q

How do you mark gilts in heat

A

Heat chemical symbol on back

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76
Q

Heat checking scoring system: dashed line

A

Didn’t show any signs of heat

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77
Q

Heat checking scoring system: 2++

A

Vulva is super swollen

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78
Q

Heat checking scoring system

A

-, 2-, 2, 2+, 2++

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79
Q

Triangle is what symbol

A

Chemical heat symbol

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80
Q

Gilts average ____ days of estrus cycles

A

21

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81
Q

Gilt AI tip is in what shape

A

Shape of boar penis

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82
Q

How do you insert an AI rod into a gilt

A

Upward motion, turn counter-clockwise

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83
Q

Estrous synchronization advantages

A

Decrease labor and calving period
Reduce calving season
More uniform weaning weights

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84
Q

Agonists for steroid hormone progesterone

A

Progestogens

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85
Q

Mimics luteal phase by having a light level of

A

Progesterone

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86
Q

Ways to administer progesterone

A

Injection
Feed
Implant
CIDR

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87
Q

CIDR application process

A
  1. Insert CIDR loading device into the vagina
  2. X-ray of CIDR loading device in vagina
  3. Release CIDR apparatus
  4. Leave a little bit of a tag to remove CIDR when necessary
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88
Q

Protocol of eazi-breed CIDR (beef cow)

A

Day 1: insert CIDR with CIDIROL capsule
Day 6: inject PG
Day 7: remove CIDR
Day 8: inject 2mL CIDIROL
Day 9-11: detect estrus

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89
Q

Synchro Mate B protocol (beef cattle)

A

Day 1: implant and inject SMB
Day 9: remove implant 48hr calf separation
Day 11-12: detect estrus

90
Q

Danny is from

A

Eastern colorado

91
Q

Danny has ___ pet cows

A

23

92
Q

Danny’s birthday is

A

February 28th

93
Q

Dr.white has ____ replacement heifers

A

900

94
Q

MGA + lutalyse for synchronization protocol 1

A

Day 1: feed MGA
Day 14: MGA removed
Day 14-17: estrus, do not breed
Day 18: lutalyse injection, breed

95
Q

MGA + lutalyse for synchronization protocol 2

A

Day 1: feed MGA
Day 8: inject lutalyse
Day 9: MGA is removed
Day 11-13: estrus detection, breed

96
Q

Progesterone plateaus once a ____ ___ is formed

A

Mature CL

97
Q

_____ occurs to start next estrus cycle

A

Luteolysis

98
Q

Lutalyse protocol: 2-injection method

A

Day 1: inject lutalyse
Day 11-14: heat check and breed
Day 15: inject lutalyse

99
Q

Lutalyse protocol: 1-method injection

A

Day 1: inject lutalyse
Day 11-14: heat check and breed

100
Q

Lutalyse protocol: 1-injection + heat detection

A

Day 1-5: heat check
Day 6: inject lutalyse
After: heat check and breed

101
Q

Older CL have a

A

Larger mass

102
Q

Smaller CL respond

A

Quicker

103
Q

Which reacts sooner: heifers or cows

A

Heifers

104
Q

What can cause an abortion

A

PGF2aplha

105
Q

What cattle respond poorly to the two injection system of PGF2alpha

A

Brahman

106
Q

What is used mostly in problem breeding cows (dairy cows)

A

Cystorelin

107
Q

Synchronizing of estrus and ovulation in cows steps

A
  1. PGF2alpha - cow ovulates
  2. PGF2alpha - new follicular phase
  3. GnRH
  4. PGF2alpha
  5. GnRH
  6. Insemination: 30-40% conception
108
Q

Synchro-mate B protocol (sheep)

A

Day 1: insert norgestomet implant
Day 13: remove implant
Day 15: detect estrus

109
Q

Easy-breed CIDR protocol (sheep)

A

Day 1: insert CIDR
Day 12: remove CIDR
Day 14: detect estrus

110
Q

What animal can be effectively synchronized with P.G. 600

A

Prepubertal gilts

111
Q

A.I. cow steps

A
  1. Make sure you can put a finger on cervix
  2. Put rod in vagina in upward motion and level
  3. Go through rings and expel semen in uterine horns
112
Q

A.I. mare steps

A
  1. Use finger to feel opening of cervix
  2. Insert rod through cervix
  3. expel semen in uterine body
113
Q

A.I. dog steps

A
  1. Insert AI rod fairly close to cervix
  2. Expel semen - enters uterine body
114
Q

Bull semen evaluation calculation

A

100(50)N*1000
100 = dilution factor
50 = hemacytometer factor
N = # of sperm counted in hemacytometer
1000 = multiplication factor to represent 1 mL

115
Q

Boar semen evaluation calculation

A

1050N*1000

116
Q

Total number of sperm/ejaculate equation

A

Total # sperm/ejaculate = sperm concentration * total volume

117
Q

Mechanism of action for stimulating the ejaculation process steps

A
  1. Intromission
  2. Sensory stimulation of glans penis
  3. Sudden and powerful contraction of urethralis, bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles
  4. Expulsion of semen
118
Q

Sensory stimulation of glans penis signals

A

Temperature
Pressure

119
Q

Bull type of copulatory

A

Short

120
Q

Bull ejaculation time

A

A few seconds

121
Q

Bull volume of ejaculate

A

Fairly small

122
Q

Bull concentration of sperm within ejaculate

A

Fairly high

123
Q

Stallion type of copulator

A

Intermediate

124
Q

Stallion mating time

A

30 seconds to 1 minute

125
Q

Stallion volume of ejaculate

A

Much higher than bull

126
Q

Stallion concentration of sperm

A

A little lower than bull

127
Q

Boar type of copulator

A

Sustained

128
Q

Boar mating time

A

5 minutes to 20 minutes

129
Q

Boar volume of ejaculate

A

Significantly higher than bull and stallion

130
Q

Boar sperm concentration

A

A lot lower than bull and stallion

131
Q

3 muscles primarily associated with ejaculation

A

Ischiocavernosus
Bulbospongiosus
Urethralis

132
Q

What are toxic to sperm

A

Powder and latex

133
Q

What kind of glove is needed to collect semen from boars

A

Powder-free vinyl glove

134
Q

Collecting semen from boars: use a

A

Phantom mount/dummy
Tease with female in estrus

135
Q

Collecting semen from stallion

A

Artificial vagina integrated into a phantom mount

136
Q

Phantom mount for a bull

A

Cowhide over it
Portable

137
Q

Usually treated with hormones to mimic female in estrus and allow bull to mount

A

Jump steer

138
Q

Head of sperm abnormalities

A

Crater defect
Tapered heads
Ruffled acrosome
Knobbed acrosome

139
Q

What is the best fertility indicator

A

Motility

140
Q

Tail abnormalities

A

Coiled tail
Double mid piece
Folded tail
Detached head

141
Q

Sperm mature as they move through the

A

Epididymis

142
Q

To tell if sperm is mature what is the key indicator

A

Cytoplasm droplet is as far as it moves from head of sperm then it is shed

143
Q

Want to see less than __% of ejaculate consisting of abnormalities

A

20

144
Q

Undifferentiated cells that replenish or repopulate either a specific tissue or organ or multiple tissues and organs

A

Stem cells

145
Q

Hierarchy of stem cells

A

Totipotent
Pluripotent
Blood stem cells, muscle, nerve, bone, other tissues

146
Q

The ability of a single cell to differentiate and develop into a complete organism

A

Totipotency

147
Q

The ability of a single cell to differentiate into more than one cell type or tissue

A

Pluripotency

148
Q

What opened doors for stem cell research

A

Dolly the sheep clone

149
Q

Day 0-2 early embryonic development

A

Location: oviduct
Development: one cell

150
Q

Day 1-3 early embryonic development

A

Location: oviduct
Development: 2 cell

151
Q

Day 2-3 early embryonic development

A

Location: oviduct or uterus
Development: 4 cell

152
Q

Day 3-5 early embryonic development

A

Location: uterus
Development: 8 cell

153
Q

Day 4-5 early embryonic development

A

Location: uterus
Development: 16 cell

154
Q

Day 5-8 early embryonic development

A

Location: uterus
Development: morula

155
Q

Day 6-7 embryonic development

A

Compact morula

156
Q

Day 7-8 embryonic development

A

Early blastocyst

157
Q

Day 7-9 embryonic development

A

Blastocyst

158
Q

Day 8-10 embryonic development

A

Expanded blastocyst

159
Q

Day 9-11 embryonic development

A

Hatching blastocyst

160
Q

Embryonic stem cells grow in

A

Colonies

161
Q

Mono layer of cells that line the bottom of the culture plate

A

Fiberblast cells

162
Q

Provide nutrients to the media that are required for the embryonic stem cells

A

Fiberblast cells

163
Q

Efficiency of embryonic stem cell- like culture formation from porcine embryos

A

Less than 1% to develop embryonic stem cell

164
Q

Form blood and immune cells
Responsible for constant renewal of blood
Isolated from blood or bone marrow

A

Hematopoietic stem cells

165
Q

Hematopoietic stem cell characteristics

A

Can renew themselves
Can differentiate into a variety of cell types
Can move out of bone marrow into circulating blood

166
Q

Rich in stem cells
Immunologically naive
Perfect match for donor
Life saving benefits for siblings
Differentiate into a variety of cell types

A

Umbilical cord stem cells

167
Q

Umbilical cord stem cells are isolated from

A

Umbilical cord blood

168
Q

AI gilts every __ hours while in heat

A

12

169
Q

Injectable anesthetic cocktail

A

TARK

170
Q

How is TARK administered into the ear vein

A

23 gauge butterfly cannula

171
Q

What tubes are placed into the nares of the pig

A

Endonassal

172
Q

What scrub is used to prepare surgical site

A

Betadine

173
Q

Cleanse surgical site with

A

70% alcohol

174
Q

What is removed from incubator and poured into syringe

A

BECM flushing media

175
Q

What anesthesia is the pig maintained with

A

Isoflurane inhalation

176
Q

What part of the scapal do you use

A

Curve part

177
Q

__ inch skin incision is made on abdomen between _______ and last pair of _____

A

3
Umbilicus
Teats

178
Q

Insertion of flushing cannula into _______ of the oviduct

A

Infundibulum

179
Q

The cannula is held into a ___ mL ruble that will collect the flushing media and the embryos

A

50

180
Q

____ -end needle administering media into the oviduct

A

Blunt

181
Q

First __ mL will collect embryos

A

5

182
Q

_____ appearance indicates rupture of CLs at ovulation and release of eggs

A

Bloody

183
Q

Closing body wall use a ________ needle

A

Non-traumatic

184
Q

Each suture is

A

Double knotted

185
Q

Suturing skin stitch

A

Continuous

186
Q

Suturing skin needle

A

Cutting edge

187
Q

Body wall needle

A

Large curved

188
Q

Indicator of pregnancy

A

Feel over pelvis to find cervix
Placenta of fetus feels like a bag of walnuts
Feel fetus

189
Q

Day 21 embryo of calf

A

Heart begins to beat
Lungs, liver and pancreas begin to develop

190
Q

Elongation of pig blastocytes shape at day 10

A

Spherical embryo

191
Q

Elongation of pig blastocytes shape at day 11

A

Oval shaped embryo

192
Q

Elongation of pig blastocytes shape day 11.5

A

Tubular shaped embryo

193
Q

Elongation of pig blastocytes shape day 11.75

A

Elongated filamentous thread

194
Q

Highest growth rate an individual will have their entire lifespan between day ___ and ___

A

10-12

195
Q

Origin: Early entodermal layer

A

Yolk sac

196
Q

Function: vestigial

A

Yolk sac

197
Q

Origin: Cavitation From inner cell mass

A

Amnion

198
Q

Function: Encloses fetus in a fluid-filled cavity

A

Amnion

199
Q

Origin: Diverticulum of hindgut

A

Allantois

200
Q

Function: Blood vessels connect fetal with placental circulation

A

Allantois

201
Q

Origin: Trophoblastic capsule of blastocyst

A

Chorion

202
Q

Function: Encloses embryo and other fetal membranes

A

Chorion

203
Q

Origin: Amnion wraps about the yolk stalk

A

Umbilical cord

204
Q

Function: Encloses Allantoic vessels
Acts as the vascular link between mother and fetus

A

Umbilical cord

205
Q

Animals with a diffuse placenta

A

Pig
Horse
Lemur

206
Q

Placenta where villi are spread evenly across the surface of the chorion
Velvety appearance

A

Diffuse

207
Q

Animals with a cotyledonary placenta

A

Cow
Ewe
Deer

208
Q

Placenta with villi grouped in rosettes and have circular structures on surface of chorion

A

Cotyledonary

209
Q

Animals with a zonary placenta

A

Dog
Cat

210
Q

Placenta where the villi are in a band-like appearance distribution

A

Zonary placenta

211
Q

Animals with a discoid placenta

A

Rabbit
Rodents
Bats
Insectivores
Human

212
Q

Placenta where one or two areas where villi are distributed and limited to disc-shaped areas

A

Discoid

213
Q

Fetus becomes _____ when the water breaks

A

Hypoxic - starving for oxygen

214
Q

Directly surrounds fetus
Inner-most layer

A

Amnion

215
Q

Placentome consists of

A

Maternal caruncle
Fetal colyledon

216
Q

Outermost water sac

A

Chorio-allantois

217
Q

Innermost water sac

A

Amnio-allantois

218
Q

Marker of length of placenta in pigs

A

Necrotic tip

219
Q

When villi don’t shrink during birth it can cause

A

Retained placenta

220
Q

What are used to help with retained placentas

A

Antibiotics and oxytocin

221
Q

TARK meaning

A

Telezol
atropine
rompun
ketamine

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