Infection

Question 1

What is the most common cause of encephalitis

Answer 1

Herpes simplex virus

Question 2

Melanoma ABCDE

Answer 2

• Asymmetry
• irregular Borders
• Colour variegation
• Diameter >6mm
• Elevation/evolution of a skin lesion.

Question 3

Fitzpatrick skin scale

Answer 3

• 7 scales of skin

Question 4

What is the most common type of melanoma that has a long radial phase?

Answer 4

Superficial spreading melanoma (Pagetoid)

Question 5

Which melanoma type has a very long radial phase and exists as lentigo maligna before it starts invading the basement membrane?

Answer 5

Lentigo maligna melanoma (Hutchinson’s melanotic freckle)

Question 6

What is the most aggressive type of melanoma that has no radial phase?

Answer 6

Nodular melanoma (ab initio)

Question 7

Which melanoma type has a short radial phase, occurs more frequently in patients with darker skin tones, and involves the palms or soles?

Answer 7

Acral lentiginous melanoma

Question 8

What type of melanoma grows under the nail?

Answer 8

Subungual melanoma

Question 9

What type of melanoma lacks pigmentation?

Answer 9

Amelanotic melanoma

Question 10

Max amount of units of alcohol per week

Answer 10

14 units

Question 11

How to calculate units of alcohol

Answer 11

Units = strength (ABV) x volume (ml) ÷ 1000

Question 12

Medical managment of smoking cessation- NRT

Answer 12

• NRT (patches and oral for 8 weeks)
• Start on quit day
• Should not be used with varenicline or bupropion
• contra-indicated in severe cardiovascular disease
• SIDE EFFECTS: nausea, dizziness, vivid dreams and palpitations.

Question 13

Bupropion

Answer 13

• originally an anti-depressant
  *inhibits reuptake of dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin in the brain. Helps with cessation
• start 7-14 days before quit date

Question 14

Contradiction of Bupropion

Answer 14

• Epilepsy (decreases seizure threshold)
• Eating disorders and bipolar disorder
• CNS tumours
• Those experiencing current benzodiazepine or alcohol withdrawal
• Pregnancy and breast-feeding

Question 15

Varenicline (Champix)

Answer 15

• partial nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonist.
• 7-14 days before the quit date; needs to be titred
• contradicted in pregnancy

Question 16

Who can use POP

Answer 16

• women who smoke >15 cigarettes a day
• over 35 years old
• migraines with auras
• breast-feeding women

Question 17

Asthma exaccebation signs and symptoms

Answer 17

• Tachypnoea
• Increased work of breathing
• Hyperinflated chest
• Expiratory polyphonic wheeze throughout the lung fields
• Decreased air entry (if severe)

Question 18

Death verification procedure

Answer 18

• Confirming the patients identity
• Checking for any obvious signs of life
• Checking response to verbal and painful stimuli
• Assessing pupils - they should be fixed and dilated
• Feeling a central pulse
• Listening for heart sounds and respiratory sounds for a total of 5 minutes.

Question 19

LUTI managment

Answer 19

• 3 days oral nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim
• conservative measures (e.g fluids)

Question 20

UTI in Men managment

Answer 20

• trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 7 days
• Refer to urology if repeating symptoms

Question 21

UTI during Pregnancy (with no haematuria) managment

Answer 21

• nitrofurantoin (but avoid at term), for 7 days.
• 2nd line: amoxicillin/cefelexin for 7 days.

Question 22

Managment of pylonephritis

Answer 22

• hospital admission
• IV broad-spectrum cephalosporin, a quinolone, or gentamicin

Question 24

Stem cell factor

Answer 24

Pluripotent cells

Question 25

IL-3

Answer 25

CFU-GEMM

Question 26

G-CSF

Answer 26

Granulocyte precursor

Question 27

M-CSF

Answer 27

Monocyte precursor

Question 28

IL-5

Answer 28

Eosinophil progenitors

Question 29

Erythropoietin

Answer 29

Erythrocytes progenitors

Question 30

Thrombopoietin

Answer 30

Megakaryocyte progenitor

Question 31

IL6

Answer 31

B cell precursor

Question 32

IL 2

Answer 32

T cell precursor

Question 33

IL-1 and TNF

Answer 33

Stormal cells

Question 34

Spleen blood supply

Answer 34

Splenic artery

Question 35

Spleen blood drainage

Answer 35

Splenic veins - SMV to portal vein

Question 36

Structures anterior to the spleen

Answer 36

• stomach
• tail of pancreas
• left colic flexors

Question 37

Medial to spleen

Answer 37

Left kidney

Question 38

Posterior to spleen

Answer 38

Diaphragm
Ribs 9-11

Question 39

Felty’s triad.

Answer 39

Rheumatoid arthritis (usually severe, longstanding RA).
Splenomegaly.
Neutropenia (low white blood cell count, specifically neutrophils).

Question 40

Felty’s triad.

Answer 40

Rheumatoid arthritis (usually severe, longstanding RA).
Splenomegaly.
Neutropenia (low white blood cell count, specifically neutrophils).