Endocrine and metabolic Flashcards

Conditions and presentations

1
Q

What is the minimum HbA1c that would be diagnostic of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A

6.5%
48 mmol/mol

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2
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism

A

PTH (Elevated)
Ca2+ (Elevated)
Phosphate (Low)
Urine calcium : creatinine clearance ratio > 0.01

May be asymptomatic if mild
Recurrent abdominal pain (pancreatitis, renal colic)
Changes to emotional or cognitive state
Most cases due to solitary adenoma (80%), multifocal disease occurs in 10-15% and parathyroid carcinoma in 1% or less

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3
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

PTH (Elevated)
Ca2+ (Low or normal)
Phosphate (Elevated)
Vitamin D levels (Low)
May have few symptoms
Eventually may develop bone disease, osteitis fibrosa cystica and soft tissue calcifications
Parathyroid gland hyperplasia occurs as a result of low calcium, almost always in a setting of chronic renal failure

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4
Q

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

Ca2+ (Normal or high)
PTH (Elevated)
Phosphate levels (Decreased or Normal)
Vitamin D (Normal or decreased)
Alkaline phosphatase (Elevated) Metastatic calcification
Bone pain and / or fracture
Nephrolithiasis
Pancreatitis
Occurs as a result of ongoing hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands after correction of underlying renal disorder, hyperplasia of all 4 glands is usually the cause

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5
Q

Treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Indications for surgery
* Elevated serum Calcium > 1mg/dL above normal
* Hypercalciuria > 400mg/day
* Creatinine clearance < 30% compared with normal
———————————————————————————————-
Episode of life threatening hypercalcaemia
Nephrolithiasis
Age < 50 years
Neuromuscular symptoms
Reduction in bone mineral density of the femoral neck, lumbar spine, or distal radius of more than 2.5 standard deviations below peak bone mass (T score lower than -2.5)

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6
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism management

A

Usually managed with medical therapy.

Indications for surgery in secondary (renal) hyperparathyroidism:

  • Bone pain
  • Persistent pruritus
  • Soft tissue calcifications
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7
Q

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism management

A
  • Allow 12 months to elapse following transplant as many cases will resolve
  • The presence of an autonomously functioning parathyroid gland may require surgery.
  • If the culprit gland can be identified then it should be excised.
  • Otherwise total parathyroidectomy and re-implantation of part of the gland may be required.
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8
Q

Primary amenorrhoea

A

Failure to establish menstruation by 15 in girls

Normal secondary sexual characteristics
such as breast development
Or
Age of 13 girls with no secondary sexual characteristics

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9
Q

Secondary amenorrhoea

A

Cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with prev normal and regular menses

6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea

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10
Q

Primary causes of Amenorrhoea

A

gonadal dysgenesis (e.g. Turner’s syndrome) - the most common causes
testicular feminisation
congenital malformations of the genital tract
functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea (e.g. secondary to anorexia)
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
imperforate hymen

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11
Q

Secondary causes of amenorrhoea

A

hypothalamic amenorrhoea (e.g. secondary stress, excessive exercise)
polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
hyperprolactinaemia
premature ovarian failure
thyrotoxicosis (hypothyroidism)
Sheehan’s syndrome
Asherman’s syndrome (intrauterine adhesions)
Pregnancy

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12
Q

Investigations for amenorrhoea

A

exclude pregnancy with urinary or serum bHCG
full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests
gonadotrophins
low levels indicate a hypothalamic cause where as raised levels suggest an ovarian problem (e.g. Premature ovarian failure)
raised if gonadal dysgenesis (e.g. Turner’s syndrome)
prolactin
androgen levels
raised levels may be seen in PCOS
oestradiol

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13
Q

Management of primary amenorrhoea

A

investigate and treat any underlying cause
with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis (e.g. Turner’s syndrome) are likely to benefit from hormone replacement therapy (e.g. to prevent osteoporosis etC)

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14
Q

Secondary amenorrhoea

A

exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause (in women 40 years of age or older)
treat the underlying cause

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15
Q

What is ectopic pregnancy?

A

Implantation of a fertilized ovum outside the uterus results in an ectopic pregnancy

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16
Q

27 year old woman who presents to the emergency department with a history female with a history of 6-8 weeks amenorrhoea who presents with lower abdominal pain and later develops vaginal bleeding

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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17
Q

Ectopic pregnancy symptoms

A

lower abdominal pain
due to tubal spasm
typically the first symptom
pain is usually constant and may be unilateral.
vaginal bleeding
usually less than a normal period
may be dark brown in colour
history of recent amenorrhoea
typically 6-8 weeks from the start of last period
if longer (e.g. 10 wks) this suggest another causes e.g. inevitable abortion
peritoneal bleeding can cause shoulder tip pain and pain on defecation / urination
dizziness, fainting or syncope may be seen
symptoms of pregnancy such as breast tenderness may also be reported

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18
Q

Signs of ectopic pregnancy

A

abdominal tenderness
cervical excitation (also known as cervical motion tenderness)
adnexal mass: NICE advise NOT to examine for an adnexal mass due to an increased risk of rupturing the pregnancy. A pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is however recommended

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19
Q

Pregnancy of unknown location investigation

A

case of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 points toward a diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy

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20
Q

Osteomalacia

A

softening of the bones secondary to low vitamin D levels that in turn lead to decreased bone mineral content. If this occurs in growing children it is referred to as rickets, with the term osteomalacia preferred for adults.

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21
Q

Causes of osteomalacia

A

vitamin D deficiency
malabsorption
lack of sunlight
diet
chronic kidney disease
drug induced e.g. anticonvulsants
inherited: hypophosphatemic rickets (previously called vitamin D-resistant rickets)
liver disease: e.g. cirrhosis
coeliac disease

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22
Q

Features of Osteomalacia

A

bone pain
bone/muscle tenderness
fractures: especially femoral neck
proximal myopathy: may lead to a waddling gait

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23
Q

Investigations of osteomalacia

A

bloods
low vitamin D levels
low calcium, phosphate (in around 30%)
raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients)
x-ray
translucent bands (Looser’s zones or pseudofractures)

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24
Q

Treatment of osteomalacia

A
  • vitamin D supplementation
    A loading dose is often needed initially

calcium supplementation if dietary calcium is inadequate

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25
Q

Paget’s disease of the bone

A

primarily a disorder of osteoclasts, with excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Paget’s disease is common (UK prevalence 5%) but symptomatic in only 1 in 20 patients.

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26
Q

Which bones are commonly affected by Paget’s disease?

A

The skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities are most commonly affected.

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27
Q

Predisposing factors for Paget’s’s disease

A

increasing age
male sex
northern latitude
family history

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28
Q

Clinical features of Paget’s disease?

A

only 5% of patients are symptomatic
the stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised ALP
bone pain (e.g. pelvis, lumbar spine, femur)
classical, untreated features: bowing of tibia, bossing of skull

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29
Q

Investigations for Paget’s disease

A
  • bloods
  • other markers of bone turnover
  • X-rays
  • bone scintigraphy
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30
Q

Paget’s disease blood findings

A

raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
calcium and phosphate are typically normal. Hypercalcaemia may occasionally occur with prolonged immobilisation

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31
Q

Other markers of bone turnover in Paget’s disease

A

procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP)
serum C-telopeptide (CTx)
urinary N-telopeptide (NTx)
urinary hydroxyproline

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32
Q

X-rays Paget’s disease

A

osteolysis in early disease → mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later
skull x-ray: thickened vault, osteoporosis circumscripta

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33
Q

Bone scintigraphy Paget’s disease

A

Increased uptake is seen focally at the sites of active bone lesion

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34
Q

Management of Paget’s disease

A

indications for treatment include
bone pain
skull or long bone deformity
fracture
periarticular Paget’s
bisphosphonate (either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate)
calcitonin is less commonly used now

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35
Q

Complications of bone disease

A

deafness (cranial nerve entrapment)
bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years)
fractures
skull thickening
high-output cardiac failure

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36
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism

A

excess secretion of PTH resulting in hypercalcaemia. It is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia in outpatients and is often diagnosed following an incidental finding of an elevated serum calcium concentration.

In 85% of cases a parathyroid adenoma is responsible.

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37
Q

Causes of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

85%: solitary adenoma
10%: hyperplasia
4%: multiple adenoma
1%: carcinoma

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38
Q

Symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism

A
  • 80% of patients may asymptomatic
    polydipsia, polyuria
    depression
    anorexia, nausea, constipation
    peptic ulceration
    pancreatitis
    bone pain/fracture
    renal stones
    hypertension
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39
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism mnemonic

A

`Bones, groans, abdominal groans and psychic moans

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40
Q

Associations of primary hyperparathyroidism

A
  • hypertension
  • mutiple endocrine neoplasia: Men I and Men II
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41
Q

Treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

the definitive management is total parathyroidectomy
conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal AND the patient is > 50 years AND there is no evidence of end-organ damage
patients not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic
a calcimimetic ‘mimics’ the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor

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42
Q

Investigations of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

bloods
raised calcium, low phosphate
PTH may be raised or (inappropriately, given the raised calcium) normal
technetium-MIBI subtraction scan
x-ray findings
pepperpot skull
osteitis fibrosa cystica

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43
Q

Gynaecomastia

A

abnormal amount of breast tissue in males and is usually caused by an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea (due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue) from those of gynaecomastia

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44
Q

Causes of gynaecomastia

A

physiological: normal in puberty
syndromes with androgen deficiency: Kallman’s, Klinefelter’s
testicular failure: e.g. mumps
liver disease
testicular cancer e.g. seminoma secreting hCG
ectopic tumour secretion
hyperthyroidism
haemodialysis
drugs: see below

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45
Q

Drugs which cause gynaecomastia

A

spironolactone (most common drug cause)
cimetidine
digoxin
cannabis
finasteride
GnRH agonists e.g. goserelin, buserelin
oestrogens, anabolic steroids

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46
Q

Very rare drugs which cause gynaecomastia

A

tricyclics
isoniazid
calcium channel blockers
heroin
busulfan
methyldopa

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47
Q

Hypertension

A

a clinic reading persistently above >= 140/90 mmHg, or:
a 24 hour blood pressure average reading >= 135/85 mmHg

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48
Q

Primary hypertension

A

This is where there is no single disease causing the rise in blood pressure but rather a series of complex physiological changes which occur as we get older.

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49
Q

Secondary hypertension

A

caused by a wide variety of endocrine, renal and other causes.

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50
Q

Renal disease secondary hypertension

A

Glomerulonephritis
• Chronic pyelonephritis
• Adult polycystic kidney disease
• Renal artery stenosis

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51
Q

Endocrine disorders secondary hypertension

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism
• Phaeochromocytoma
• Cushing’s syndrome
• Liddle’s syndrome
• Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (11-beta hydroxylase deficiency)
• Acromegaly

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52
Q

Other causes of Secondary hypertension

A

Glucocorticoids
• NSAIDs
• Pregnancy
• Coarctation of the aorta
• Combined oral contraceptive pill

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53
Q

Signs and symptoms of hypertension

A

Typically asymptomatic
If above 200/120 patients may experience

headaches
visual disturbance
seizures

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54
Q

What else to check when suspecting hypertension

A

fundoscopy: to check for hypertensive retinopathy
urine dipstick: to check for renal disease, either as a cause or consequence of hypertension
ECG: to check for left ventricular hypertrophy or ischaemic heart disease

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55
Q

Investigation of 24hr blood pressure

A
  • 24 hour reasoning

-24 hour blood pressure monitoring is not available then home readings using an automated sphygmomanometer are useful.

urea and electrolytes: check for renal disease, either as a cause or consequence of hypertension
HbA1c: check for co-existing diabetes mellitus, another important risk factor for cardiovascular disease
lipids: check for hyperlipidaemia, again another important risk factor for cardiovascular disease
ECG
urine dipstick

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56
Q

Management of hypertension

A

drug therapy using antihypertensives
modification of other risk factors to reduce the overall risk of cardiovascular disease
monitoring the patient for the development of complications of hypertension

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57
Q

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

A

Inhibit the conversion angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Associated with cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia

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58
Q

Calcium channel blockers

A

Block voltage-gated calcium channels relaxing vascular smooth muscle and force of myocardial contraction

Flushing
Ankle swelling
Headache

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59
Q

Thiazide type diuretics

A

Inhibit sodium absorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule

Hyponatraemia
Hypokalaemia
Dehydration

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60
Q

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (A2RB)

A

Block effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor

Hyperkalaemia

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61
Q

Stage 1 hypertension

A

Clinic BP >= 140/90 mmHg and subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average BP >= 135/85 mmHg

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62
Q

Stage 2 hypertension

A

Clinic BP >= 160/100 mmHg and subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average BP >= 150/95 mmHg

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63
Q

Severe hypertension

A

Clinic systolic BP >= 180 mmHg, or clinic diastolic BP >= 120 mmHg

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64
Q

the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg:

A

admit for specialist assessment if:
signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema (accelerated hypertension) or
life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury
NICE also recommend referral if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected (labile or postural hypotension, headache, palpitations, pallor and diaphoresis)
if none of the above then arrange urgent investigations for end-organ damage (e.g. bloods, urine ACR, ECG)
if target organ damage is identified, consider starting antihypertensive drug treatment immediately, without waiting for the results of ABPM or HBPM.
if no target organ damage is identified, repeat clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days

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65
Q

Amubulatory blood pressure

A

at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours (for example, between 08:00 and 22:00)
use the average value of at least 14 measurements

If ABPM not tolerated, consider HBPM

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66
Q

HBPM

A

for each BP recording, two consecutive measurements need to be taken, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated
BP should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening
BP should be recorded for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days
discard the measurements taken on the first day and use the average value of all the remaining measurements

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67
Q

ABPM/HBPM >= 135/85 mmHg (i.e. stage 1 hypertension)

A

treat if < 80 years of age AND any of the following apply; target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater
in 2019, NICE made a further recommendation, suggesting that we should ‘consider antihypertensive drug treatment in addition to lifestyle advice for adults aged under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. ‘. This seems to be due to evidence that QRISK may underestimate the lifetime probability of developing cardiovascular disease

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68
Q

ABPM/HBPM >= 150/95 mmHg (i.e. stage 2 hypertension)

A

OFFER DRUG REGARDLESS OF AGE

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69
Q

Mittelschmerz

A

translates to ‘middle pain’ and refers to abdominal pain associated with ovulation. This mid-cyclical pain is experienced by 20% of women and there are several theories as to why it occurs

occurs due to a leakage of follicular fluid containing prostaglandins at the time of ovulation, which causes the pain. Another explanation is that the growth of the follicle stretches the surface of the ovary, causing pain.

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70
Q

Presentation of Mittelschmerz

A

Sudden onset of pain in either iliac fossa which then manifests as a generalised pelvic pain.
Typically, the pain is not severe and varies in duration, lasting from minutes to hours.
It is self-limiting and resolves within 24 hours of onset.
Pain may switch side from month to month, depending on the site of ovulation

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71
Q

Investigation of Mittelschmerz

A

There is no specific test to confirm Mittelschmerz and it diagnosed clinically, after taking a full history and examination to exclude other conditions
No abnormal signs on abdominal or pelvic examination.

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72
Q

Management of Mittelschmerz

A

Mittelschmerz is not harmful and can be controlled with simple analgesia.

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73
Q

Dysmenorrhoea

A

excessive pain during the menstrual period. It is traditionally divided into primary and secondary dysmenorrhoea.

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74
Q

Primary dysmenorrhoea

A

underlying pelvic pathology. It affects up to 50% of menstruating women and usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche. Excessive endometrial prostaglandin production is thought to be partially responsible.

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75
Q

Features of primary dysmenorrhea

A

pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting
suprapubic cramping pains which may radiate to the back or down the thigh

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76
Q

Management of primary dysmenorrhea

A

NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women. They work by inhibiting prostaglandin production
combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line

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77
Q

Secondary dysmenorrhea

A

develops many years after the menarche and is the result of an underlying pathology. In contrast to primary dysmenorrhoea the pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period.

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78
Q

Causes of secondary dysmenorrhea

A

endometriosis
adenomyosis
pelvic inflammatory disease
intrauterine devices- copper coil
fibroids

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79
Q

Heavy bleeding management

A

management has shifted towards what the woman considers to be excessive.
Treatment based on whether woman needs contraception

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80
Q

Investigations of heavy bleeding

A

a full blood count should be performed in all women
NICE recommend arranging a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan if symptoms (for example, intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding, pelvic pain and/or pressure symptoms) suggest a structural or histological abnormality. Other indications include abnormal pelvic exam findings.

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81
Q

Heavy bleeding does not require contraception

A

either mefenamic acid 500 mg tds (particularly if there is dysmenorrhoea as well) or tranexamic acid 1 g tds. Both are started on the first day of the period
if no improvement then try other drug whilst awaiting referral

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82
Q

Require contraception heavy bleeding

A

intrauterine system (Mirena) should be considered first-line
combined oral contraceptive pill
long-acting progestogens

Norethisterone 5 mg tds can be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.

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83
Q

PCOS

A

complex condition of ovarian dysfunction thought to affect between 5-20% of women of reproductive age.

The aetiology of PCOS is not fully understood. Both hyperinsulinaemia and high levels of luteinizing hormone are seen in PCOS and there appears to be some overlap with the metabolic syndrome.

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84
Q

Features of PCOS

A

subfertility and infertility
menstrual disturbances: oligomenorrhoea and amenorrhoea
hirsutism, acne (due to hyperandrogenism)
obesity
acanthosis nigricans (due to insulin resistance)

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85
Q

Investigations of PCOS

A

pelvic ultrasound: multiple cysts on the ovaries
NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend the following baseline investigatons: FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are useful investigations
raised LH:FSH ratio is a ‘classical’ feature but is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis
prolactin may be normal or mildly elevated
testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated - however, if markedly raised consider other causes
SHBG is normal to low in women with PCOS
check for impaired glucose tolerance

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86
Q

Diagnostic criteria of PCOS

A

a formal diagnosis should only be made after performing investigations to exclude other conditions
the Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if 2 of the following 3 are present:
infrequent or no ovulation (usually manifested as infrequent or no menstruation)
clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism (such as hirsutism, acne, or elevated levels of total or free testosterone)
polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan (defined as the presence of ≥ 12 follicles (measuring 2-9 mm in diameter) in one or both ovaries and/or increased ovarian volume > 10 cm³)

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87
Q

General managment of PCOS

A

weight reduction if appropriate
if a women requires contraception then a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill may help regulate her cycle and induce a monthly bleed (see below)

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88
Q

Hirsutism and acne general management of PCOS

A

a COC pill may be used help manage hirsutism. Possible options include a third generation COC which has fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol which has an anti-androgen action. Both of these types of COC may carry an increased risk of venous thromboembolism
if doesn’t respond to COC then topical eflornithine may be tried
spironolactone, flutamide and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision

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89
Q

Infertility management of PCOS

A

weight reduction if appropriate
the management of infertility in patients with PCOS should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate as to whether metformin, clomifene or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation
a 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested clomifene was the most effective treatment. There is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence metformin is not a first line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS
metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese
gonadotrophins

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90
Q

Premenstrual syndrome

A

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) describes the emotional and physical symptoms that women may experience in the luteal phase of the normal menstrual cycle.

PMS only occurs in the presence of ovulatory menstrual cycles - it doesn’t occur prior to puberty, during pregnancy or after the menopause.

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91
Q

Emotional symptoms of PMS

A

anxiety
stress
fatigue
mood swings

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92
Q

Physical symptoms of PMS

A
  • bloating
  • breast pain
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93
Q

PMS mild symptom managment

A

apart from the usual advice on sleep, exercise, smoking and alcohol, specific advice includes regular, frequent (2-3 hourly), small, balanced meals rich in complex carbohydrates

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94
Q

Moderate symptom managment of PMS

A

new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
examples include Yasminµ (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg)

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95
Q

Several symptom managment of PMS

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
this may be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase (for example days 15-28 of the menstrual cycle, depending on its length)

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96
Q

Addisons disease

A

Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, accounting for 80% of cases. This is termed Addison’s disease and results in reduced cortisol and aldosterone being produced

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97
Q

Features of Addison’s disease

A

lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea & vomiting, weight loss, ‘salt-craving’
hyperpigmentation (especially palmar creases)

vitiligo
loss of pubic hair in women
hypotension
hypoglycaemia
hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia may be seen
crisis: collapse, shock, pyrexia

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98
Q

Hyperpigmentation in Addison’s disease

A

ACTH is derived from a larger precursor molecule called proopiomelanocortin (POMC). When POMC is cleaved to produce ACTH, other melanocyte-stimulating hormones (MSH) are also produced. These MSHs have the effect of stimulating melanocytes in the skin to produce more melanin, the pigment responsible for skin colour
primary Addison’s is associated with hyperpigmentation whereas secondary adrenal insufficiency is not

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99
Q

Primary causes of hypoadrenalism

A

tuberculosis
metastases (e.g. bronchial carcinoma)
meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome)
HIV
antiphospholipid syndrome

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100
Q

Secondary causes of hypoadrenalism

A

pituitary disorders (e.g. tumours, irradiation, infiltration)

Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy

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101
Q

Addison’s disease Associated electrolyte abnormalities are seen in around one-third of undiagnosed patients:

A

hyperkalaemia
hyponatraemia
hypoglycaemia
metabolic acidosis

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102
Q

Definite investigation for Addison’s disease

A

ACTH stimulation test (short Synacthen test).

Plasma cortisol is measured before and 30 minutes after giving Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies such as anti-21-hydroxylase may also be demonstrated.

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103
Q

If ACTH simulation is not available

A

> 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s very unlikely
< 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal
100-500 nmol/l should prompt a ACTH stimulation test to be performed

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104
Q

Management of Addison’s disease

A

glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy.

hydrocortisone: usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses. Patients typically require 20-30 mg per day, with the majority given in the first half of the day
fludrocortisone

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105
Q

Patient education on Addison’s disease

A

emphasise the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses
consider MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards
patients should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis
discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness (see below)

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106
Q

Management of intercurrent illness in Addison’s disease

A

in simple terms the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, with the fludrocortisone dose staying the same
the Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel have produced guidelines detailing particular scenarios - please see the CKS link for more details

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107
Q

Addisonian crisis causes

A

sepsis or surgery causing an acute exacerbation of chronic insufficiency (Addison’s, Hypopituitarism)
adrenal haemorrhage eg Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (fulminant meningococcemia)
steroid withdrawal

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108
Q

Management of Addisonian crisis

A

hydrocortisone 100 mg im or iv
1 litre normal saline infused over 30-60 mins or with dextrose if hypoglycaemic
continue hydrocortisone 6 hourly until the patient is stable. No fludrocortisone is required because high cortisol exerts weak mineralocorticoid action
oral replacement may begin after 24 hours and be reduced to maintenance over 3-4 days

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109
Q

DKA

A

complication of existing type 1 diabetes mellitus or be the first presentation, accounting for around 6% of cases. Rarely, under conditions of extreme stress, patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus may also develop DKA.

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110
Q

Pathophysiology of DKA

A

DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis (not proteolysis) which results in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies

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111
Q

Features of DKA

A

abdominal pain
polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration
Kussmaul respiration (deep hyperventilation)
Acetone-smelling breath (‘pear drops’ smell

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112
Q

American Diabetes Association (2009) diagnostic criteria

A

glucose > 13.8 mmol/l
pH < 7.30
serum bicarbonate <18 mmol/l
anion gap > 10
ketonaemia

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113
Q

Joint British Diabetes Societies (2013) diagnostic criteria

A

glucose > 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus
pH < 7.3
bicarbonate < 15 mmol/l
ketones > 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick

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114
Q

Management of DKA

A

-fluid replacement
- insulin
-correction of electrolytes disturbance
-long-acting insulin should be continued, short-acting insulin should be stopped

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115
Q

Fluid replacement of DKA

A

most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres
isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic

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116
Q

Insulin management of DKA

A

an intravenous infusion should be started at 0.1 unit/kg/hour
once blood glucose is < 14 mmol/l an infusion of 10% dextrose should be started at 125 mls/hr in addition to the 0.9% sodium chloride regime

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117
Q

Correction of DKA electrolyte disturbance

A

serum potassium is often high on admission despite total body potassium being low
this often falls quickly following treatment with insulin resulting in hypokalaemia
potassium may therefore need to be added to the replacement fluids
if the rate of potassium infusion is greater than 20 mmol/hour then cardiac monitoring may be required

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118
Q

DKA resolution

A

pH >7.3 and
blood ketones < 0.6 mmol/L and
bicarbonate > 15.0mmol/L

Further points include

both the ketonaemia and acidosis should have been resolved within 24 hours. If this hasn’t happened the patient requires senior review from an endocrinologist
if the above criteria are met and the patient is eating and drinking switch to subcutaneous insulin
the patient should be reviewed by the diabetes specialist nurse prior to discharge

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119
Q

Complications of DKA or the treatment

A

gastric stasis
thromboembolism
arrhythmias secondary to hyperkalaemia/iatrogenic hypokalaemia
iatrogenic due to incorrect fluid therapy: cerebral oedema hypokalaemia, hypoglycaemia
acute respiratory distress syndrome
acute kidney injury

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120
Q

Cerebral oedema, children and DKA

A

children/young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology etc. It usually occurs 4-12 hours following commencement of treatment but can present at any time. If there is any suspicion a CT head and senior review should be sought

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121
Q

Features of head and neck cancer

A

neck lump
hoarseness
persistent sore throat
persistent mouth ulcer

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122
Q

Laryngeal cancer

A

Consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for laryngeal cancer in people aged 45 and over with:
persistent unexplained hoarseness or
an unexplained lump in the neck

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123
Q

Oral cancer

A

Consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for oral cancer in people with either:
unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than 3 weeks or
a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck.
Consider an urgent referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for assessment for possible oral cancer by a dentist in people who have either:
a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or
a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia.

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124
Q

Thyroid cancer

A

Consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for thyroid cancer in people with an unexplained thyroid lump.

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125
Q

Reactive lymphadenopathy

A

By far the most common cause of neck swellings. There may be a history of local infection or a generalised viral illness

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126
Q

Lymphoma

A

Rubbery, painless lymphadenopathy
The phenomenon of pain whilst drinking alcohol is very uncommon
There may be associated night sweats and splenomegaly

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127
Q

Thyroid swelling

A

May be hypo-, eu- or hyperthyroid symptomatically
Moves upwards on swallowing

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128
Q

Thyroglossal cyst

A

More common in patients < 20 years old
Usually midline, between the isthmus of the thyroid and the hyoid bone
Moves upwards with protrusion of the tongue
May be painful if infected

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129
Q

Pharyngeal pouch

A

More common in older men
Represents a posteromedial herniation between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles
Usually not seen but if large then a midline lump in the neck that gurgles on palpation
Typical symptoms are dysphagia, regurgitation, aspiration and chronic cough

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130
Q

Cystic hygroma

A

A congenital lymphatic lesion (lymphangioma) typically found in the neck, classically on the left side
Most are evident at birth, around 90% present before 2 years of age

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131
Q

Branchial cyst

A

An oval, mobile cystic mass that develops between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the pharynx
Develop due to failure of obliteration of the second branchial cleft in embryonic development
Usually present in early adulthood

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132
Q

Cervical rib

A

More common in adult females
Around 10% develop thoracic outlet syndrome

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133
Q

Carotid aneurysm

A

Pulsatile lateral neck mass which doesn’t move on swallowing

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134
Q

Nipple discharge - physiological

A

During breast feeding

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135
Q

Galactorrhoea

A

Commonest cause may be response to emotional events, drugs such as histamine receptor antagonists are also implicated

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136
Q

Hyperprolactinaemia

A

Commonest type of pituitary tumour
Microadenomas <1cm in diameter
Macroadenomas >1cm in diameter
Pressure on optic chiasm may cause bitemporal hemianopia

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137
Q

Mammary duct ectasia

A

Dilatation breast ducts.
Most common in menopausal women
Discharge typically thick and green in colour
Most common in smokers

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138
Q

Carcinoma

A

Often blood stained
May be underlying mass or axillary lymphadenopathy

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139
Q

Intraductal papilloma

A

Commoner in younger patients
May cause blood stained discharge
There is usually no palpable lump

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140
Q

Assessment of nipple discharge

A

Examine breast and determine whether there is mass lesion present
All mass lesions should undergo Triple assessment.

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141
Q

Elements of triple assessments

A
  • bi manual assessment
  • mammogram
  • needle biopsy
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142
Q

reporting of investigations

A

1 No abnormality
2 Abnormality with benign features
3 Indeterminate probably benign
4 Indeterminate probably malignant
5 Malignant

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143
Q

Management of non-malignant nipple discharge

A

Exclude endocrine disease
Nipple cytology unhelpful
Smoking cessation advice for duct ectasia
For duct ectasia with severe symptoms, total duct excision may be warranted.

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144
Q

Cushing syndrome independent causes

A

iatrogenic: steroids
adrenal adenoma (5-10%)
adrenal carcinoma (rare)
Carney complex: syndrome including cardiac myxoma
micronodular adrenal dysplasia (very rare)

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145
Q

Pseudo-Cushing’s

A

mimics Cushing’s
often due to alcohol excess or severe depression
causes false positive dexamethasone suppression test or 24 hr urinary free cortisol
insulin stress test may be used to differentiate

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146
Q

ACTH dependent causes of Cushing

A

Cushing’s disease (80%): pituitary tumour secreting ACTH producing adrenal hyperplasia
ectopic ACTH production (5-10%): e.g. small cell lung cancer is the most common causes

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147
Q

Epidemiology of Cushing

A

exogenous causes of Cushing’s syndrome (e.g. glucocorticoid therapy) are far more common than endogenous ones.

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148
Q

Cushing ABG findings

A

hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis may be seen, along with impaired glucose tolerance.

Ectopic ACTH secretion (e.g. secondary to small cell lung cancer) is characteristically associated with very low potassium levels.

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149
Q

What three tests are used to confirm Cushing’s

A

overnight (low-dose) dexamethasone suppression test

24 hr urinary free cortisol

Bedtime salivary cortisol

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150
Q

overnight (low-dose) dexamethasone suppression test

A

this is the most sensitive test and is now used first-line to test for Cushing’s syndrome
patients with Cushing’s syndrome do not have their morning cortisol spike suppressed

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151
Q

24 hr urinary free cortisol

A

two measurements are required

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152
Q

Bedtime salivary cortisol

A

two measurements are required

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153
Q

Cortisol ACTH
Not suppressed Suppressed

A

Cushing’s syndrome due to other causes (e.g. adrenal adenomas)

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154
Q

Cortisol suppresses and ACTH not suppressed

A

Cushing’s disease (i.e. pituitary adenoma → ACTH secretion)

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155
Q

Cortisol and ACTH not suppressed

A

Ectopic ACTH syndrome

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156
Q

Other tests for cushings

A

CRH stimulation
if pituitary source then cortisol rises
if ectopic/adrenal then no change in cortisol

Petrosal sinus sampling of ACTH may be needed to differentiate between pituitary and ectopic ACTH secretion.

An insulin stress test is used to differentiate between true Cushing’s and pseudo-Cushing’s.

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157
Q

Managment of Cushing’s syndrome

A

Primary treatment is surgical removal of the underlying cause (e.g., adrenal tumor, pituitary adenoma).
If surgery isn’t feasible or unsuccessful, medical therapy may include adrenal enzyme inhibitors (e.g., ketoconazole, metyrapone), cortisol receptor blockers (e.g., mifepristone), or pituitary-directed drugs (e.g., pasireotide).
Close monitoring of symptoms, cortisol levels, and potential complications (e.g., osteoporosis, hypertension) is crucial.
Lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes and exercise may be recommended to manage weight gain and other associated symptoms

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158
Q

Complications of Cushing’s syndrome”

A

Hypertension
Osteoporosis
Diabetes mellitus
Muscle weakness
Skin changes
Mood disturbances
Menstrual irregularities and infertility
CVD
Increased susceptibility to infection

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159
Q

Acromegaly

A
  • Rare conditon which is caused by growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma
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160
Q

Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH) independent acromegaly

A
  • ** Pituitary adenoma: **
  • Primary pituitary hyperplasia:
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161
Q

Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH) dependent acromegaly

A
  • Hypothalamic source
  • Ectopic GHRH release
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162
Q

Pathophysiology of acromegaly

A

Excess growth hormone (GH) results in excess production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)

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163
Q

gigantism vs acromegaly

A
  • gigantism occurs before epiphyseal plate closure, leading to excessive linear growth.
  • Acromegaly occurs after plate closure, causing enlargement of bones and soft tissues.
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164
Q

Signs and symptoms of acromegaly

A
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165
Q

Investigations of acromegaly

A
  1. Bedside tests
    * urine dip
    * ecg
    * fundoscopy +perimertry

2.** Bloods**
* IGF1
* oral glucose tolerance test
* anterior pituitary profile

3.** Radiology**
* CXR (cardiomegaly)
* MRI Pituitary (adenoma)
* If considering an ectopic source, can do CTCAP

  1. Specialty tests
    * Sleep studies
    * colonoscopy
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166
Q

anterior pituitary profile- what tests

A
  • TFT
  • LH
  • FSH
  • Prolactin
  • Oestrogen
  • Testosterone
  • Cortisol
  • HBA1c
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167
Q

Acromegaly managment

A

1.Surgery
Transphenoidal (first line)/transfrontal resection of the pituitary +/-radiotherapy

  1. **Drug managment **
    * octreotide, lanreorid
    * Growth hormone antagonists (pegvisomant)
    * Dopamine agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline)
  2. follow up
    * monitor for bowel changes
    * blood tests to make sure no reoccurance
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168
Q

Complications of acromegaly

A
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169
Q

Clinical features of Addison’s disease

A
  • Hypotension
  • Fatigue and weakness
  • Gastrointestinal symptoms
  • Syncope
  • Skin pigmentation due to increased ACTH which stimulates production of alpha melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH).
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170
Q

Investigations for Addison’s disease

A
  • U+E and serum cortisol
  • ACTH
  • Renin
  • aldosterone
  • Testing for adrenal auto-antibodies
  • Chest X-ray
  • CT scan of the adrenal glands
  • MRI of the brain
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171
Q

Blood gas findings in Addison’s

A
  • hyperkalaemic
  • hyponatraemic,
  • hypoglycaemic metabolic acidosis
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172
Q

gold standard investigation to confirm the addison’s.

A

ACTH (Short Synacthen) test

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173
Q

Addison’s sick day rules?

A

Doubling the regular steroid medication dose during any intercurrent illness

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174
Q

Managment of Addison’s crisis

A
  • Aggressive fluid resuscitation
  • Administration of intravenous/IM (if no access) steroids STAT
  • Glucose administration if hypoglycaemia is present
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175
Q

What is Addison’s crisis

A

life-threatening condition that occurs when the body experiences a severe deficiency in cortisol

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176
Q

Signs and symptoms of Addison’s crisis

A

Sudden and severe weakness
Fatigue
Nausea and vomiting
Abdominal pain
Low blood pressure
Dehydration
Confusion or loss of consciousness

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177
Q

Causes of Addison’s crisis

A

Inadequate cortisol production due to adrenal gland dysfunction
Stressful events such as infections, trauma, or surgery
Sudden withdrawal of corticosteroid medications
Adrenal hemorrhage or infarction

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178
Q

Managment of Addison’s crisis

A

Immediate administration of intravenous hydrocortisone
Fluid replacement to address dehydration and low blood pressure
Correction of electrolyte imbalances, particularly sodium and potassium levels
Management of any underlying causes or triggers

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179
Q

Addison’s crisis prevention

A

Proper adherence to corticosteroid replacement therapy in individuals with Addison’s disease
Awareness of stressors that may precipitate a crisis and proactive management
Carrying medical identification indicating adrenal insufficiency status
Education of family members and caregivers regarding signs and management of Addison’s crisis

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180
Q

Complications of Addison’s disease

A
  • Addisonian crisis (life-threatening adrenal crisis)
  • Severe electrolyte imbalances
  • Cardiovascular collapse
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Side effects of long term corticosteroid use e.g. osteoporosis
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181
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

condition characterized by the reduced production or response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), resulting in excessive urination and thirst.

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182
Q

Types of DI

A
  • Cranial
  • Nephrogenic
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183
Q

cranial DI

A
  • Head trauma
  • Inflammatory conditions (e.g., sarcoidosis)
  • Cranial infections such as meningitis
  • Vascular conditions such as sickle cell disease
  • Rare genetic causes
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184
Q

Nephrogenic DI

A
  • Drugs (e.g., lithium)
  • Metabolic disturbances (e.g., hypercalcaemia, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia)
  • Chronic renal disease
  • Rare genetic causes (e.g., Wolfram’s syndrome)
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185
Q

Drugs which cause DI

A
  • Lithium:
  • Tetracyclines:
  • Antifungals: Medications like amphotericin B.
  • Antivirals:
  • Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs): Such as ibuprofen.
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186
Q

Features of DI

A

Large volumes of dilute urine (>3 litres in 24 hours and a urine osmolality of <300 mOsm/kg)
Nocturia
Excessive thirst
——————————————
In childten
Failure to thrive
Enuresis

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187
Q
A
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188
Q

DI investigations

A
  • Urea and electrolytes (sodium may be raised)
  • Blood glucose (to rule out diabetes mellitus)
  • Urine dip
  • Paired serum and urine osmolality measurements
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189
Q

Serum osmolality DI

A

serum osmolality is raised** (>295 mOsm/kg) with inappropriately dilute urine (urine osmolality < 300 mOsm/kg).**

If the diagnosis remains uncertain then water deprivation

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190
Q

Cranial DI managment

A
  • Cranial diabetes insipidus can be managed with desmopressin
  • Sodium levels should be monitored routinely due to the risk of hyponatraemia.
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191
Q

Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

A
  • Correcting any underlying metabolic abnormalities
  • discontinuing any offending drugs.
  • High dose desmopressin (meh)
  • Thiazide diuretic
  • non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug to reduce urine volume.
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192
Q

Amiodarone- induced thyroxicosis

A
  • Recognized adverse effect of the anti-arrhythmic agent.
  • Amiodarone is rich in iodine,
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193
Q

Types of amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis

A
  • AIT type 1 - direct toxic effect of amiodarone on the thyroid gland causing thyroiditis,
  • AIT type 2-amiodarone triggers underlying thyroid autoimmunity.
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194
Q

AIT side effects

A

Weight loss
Tremors
Palpitations
Nervousness
Fatigue

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195
Q
A
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196
Q

hyperprolactinemia symptoms in women

A
  • galactorrhea
  • menstruation issues
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197
Q

side effects of Amiodarone

A
  • hypothyroidism
  • hyperthyroidism/thyrotoxicosis
  • corneal deposits
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome
  • skin discoloration
  • liver failure
  • pneumonitis
  • pulmonary fibrosis.
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198
Q

Monitoring on Amiodarone

A
  • Thyroid function tests: Monitoring for hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism.
  • Liver function tests: To monitor for hepatic toxicity.
  • Pulmonary function tests and chest radiography: To monitor for pulmonary toxicity.
  • Ophthalmologic examination: To monitor for corneal deposits and optic neuropathy.
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199
Q

SULFONYLUREAS

A
  • stimulate the pancreatic beta cells, promoting the release of insulin
  • 40-80mg daily max 320mg daily.
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200
Q

Sulfonylureas side effects

A

Hypoglycemia is a significant risk with sulfonylureas.
Weight gain
Nausea
Diarrhoea
Allergic reactions

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201
Q

contradictions of Sulfoylurea

A
  • Type 1 diabetes
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis
  • Severe renal or hepatic impairment
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202
Q

THIAZOLIDINEDIONES

A
  • increasing peripheral insulin sensitivity, thus lowering blood glucose levels.
  • 15-30mg once daily Max 45mg once daily.
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203
Q

side effects of THIAZOLIDINEDIONES

A

Weight gain
Fluid retention leading to heart failure
Increased risk of fractures
Potentially an increased risk of bladder cancer.

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204
Q

THIAZOLIDINEDIONES contradicitons

A

Heart failure
Hepatic impairment
Bladder cancer or uninvestigated macroscopic haematuria

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205
Q

SGLT2 INHIBITORS

A

nhibitors increase urinary glucose excretion, thus reducing blood glucose levels.

Dose: The usual dose for dapagliflozin is 10mg once daily.

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206
Q

SGLT2 INHIBITORS side effects

A
  • Genital mycotic infections
  • Urinary tract infections
  • Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis
  • Increased risk of lower limb amputation
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207
Q

SGLT2 INHIBITORS contradictions

A

Severe renal impairment or end-stage renal disease

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208
Q

DPP4-INHIBITORS

A
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209
Q

DPP4-INHIBITORS side effects

A

Nasopharyngitis
Upper respiratory tract infection
Headache
Pancreatitis

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210
Q

DPP4-INHIBITORS contradictions

A

Sitagliptin should be used with caution in patients with a history of pancreatitis.
The dose should be adjusted in patients with renal impairment.

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211
Q

What is the primary cause of acromegaly in over 95% of cases?

A

Excess growth hormone secondary to a pituitary adenoma

A minority of cases are caused by ectopic GHRH or GH production by tumors, such as pancreatic tumors.

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212
Q

What are the characteristic features of acromegaly?

A
  • Coarse facial appearance
  • Spade-like hands
  • Increase in shoe size
  • Large tongue
  • Prognathism
  • Interdental spaces
  • Excessive sweating and oily skin
  • Features of pituitary tumor (hypopituitarism, headaches, bitemporal hemianopia)
  • Raised prolactin in 1/3 of cases leading to galactorrhoea
  • 6% of patients have MEN-1

These features arise due to the effects of excess growth hormone.

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213
Q

Which condition may result from raised prolactin levels in acromegaly?

A

Galactorrhoea

This occurs in approximately 1/3 of cases.

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214
Q

What is a common complication of acromegaly related to metabolic health?

A

Diabetes (>10%)

Diabetes is one of the significant complications associated with acromegaly.

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215
Q

List three complications of acromegaly.

A
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Colorectal cancer

These complications are important to monitor in patients with acromegaly.

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216
Q

True or False: Acromegaly can be caused by ectopic GHRH or GH production.

A

True

This is a minority of cases compared to pituitary adenoma.

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217
Q

Fill in the blank: The presence of a pituitary tumor can lead to _______ symptoms in acromegaly.

A

hypopituitarism

Hypopituitarism can occur due to the pressure effects of the tumor.

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218
Q

What appearance do patients with acromegaly typically exhibit?

A

Coarse facial appearance

This is one of the hallmark features of the condition.

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219
Q

What percentage of acromegaly patients may have MEN-1?

A

6%

MEN-1 (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1) is a genetic syndrome that can be associated with acromegaly.

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220
Q

What is the first-line treatment for acromegaly in the majority of patients?

A

Trans-sphenoidal surgery

This surgical approach is typically the preferred method for managing acromegaly caused by pituitary tumors.

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221
Q

What is indicated if a pituitary tumour is inoperable or surgery is unsuccessful?

A

Medication

Various medications may be considered to manage acromegaly when surgical options are limited.

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222
Q

What is a somatostatin analogue?

A

A medication that directly inhibits the release of growth hormone

An example is octreotide, which is effective in 50-70% of patients.

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223
Q

What is the effectiveness of octreotide in treating acromegaly?

A

50-70% of patients

Octreotide is a somatostatin analogue used to inhibit growth hormone release.

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224
Q

What is pegvisomant?

A

A GH receptor antagonist that prevents dimerization of the GH receptor

It is administered once daily via subcutaneous injection and decreases IGF-1 levels in 90% of patients to normal.

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225
Q

What percentage of patients does pegvisomant decrease IGF-1 levels to normal?

A

90%

Pegvisomant is effective in normalizing IGF-1 levels, but does not reduce tumor volume.

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226
Q

Why is surgery still needed after pegvisomant treatment?

A

It doesn’t reduce tumour volume

Surgery may still be necessary if there is a mass effect from the tumor.

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227
Q

What is the role of dopamine agonists in acromegaly treatment?

A

They are the first effective medical treatment for acromegaly

An example is bromocriptine, but their use is now largely superseded by somatostatin analogues.

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228
Q

True or False: Dopamine agonists are effective in the majority of patients with acromegaly.

A

False

Dopamine agonists are effective only in a minority of patients.

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229
Q

When is external irradiation used in acromegaly management?

A

For older patients or following failed surgical/medical treatment

This approach is considered when other treatment options have not been successful.

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230
Q

What is Bartter’s syndrome?

A

An inherited cause of severe hypokalaemia due to defective chloride absorption at the NKCC2 in the ascending loop of Henle

Usually autosomal recessive

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231
Q

What is the genetic inheritance pattern of Bartter’s syndrome?

A

Usually autosomal recessive

This means that two copies of the mutated gene are required for the syndrome to manifest

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232
Q

What is the primary physiological defect in Bartter’s syndrome?

A

Defective chloride absorption at the NKCC2 in the ascending loop of Henle

This leads to severe hypokalaemia

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233
Q

How does Bartter’s syndrome differ from other causes of hypokalaemia?

A

It is associated with normotension

Other causes like Conn’s, Cushing’s, and Liddle’s syndrome are associated with hypertension

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234
Q

What is the effect of loop diuretics on NKCC2?

A

They inhibit NKCC2

Bartter’s syndrome can be thought of as similar to taking large doses of furosemide

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235
Q

At what age does Bartter’s syndrome usually present?

A

Usually presents in childhood

Symptoms can include failure to thrive

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236
Q

List three clinical features of Bartter’s syndrome.

A
  • Failure to thrive
  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Normotension
  • Weakness

These features can vary in presentation

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237
Q

True or False: Bartter’s syndrome is associated with hypertension.

A

False

It is associated with normotension

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238
Q

What does congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) refer to?

A

A group of autosomal recessive disorders that impair adrenal steroid biosynthesis

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239
Q

What is the primary consequence of cortisol production deficiency in CAH?

A

Compensatory overproduction of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) by the anterior pituitary

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240
Q

What effect do elevated ACTH levels have in CAH?

A

Increase the production of adrenal androgens

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241
Q

What can excessive adrenal androgens result in for female infants?

A

Virilization and ambiguous genitalia

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242
Q

What is the most common cause of CAH?

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency (90%)

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243
Q

What is impaired in 21-hydroxylase deficiency?

A

Conversion of 17-hydroxyprogesterone to 11-deoxycortisol

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244
Q

What are the consequences of 21-hydroxylase deficiency?

A

Cortisol deficiency and excess androgen production

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245
Q

What is the second most common cause of CAH?

A

11-beta hydroxylase deficiency (5%)

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246
Q

What is a clinical consequence of 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency?

A

Hypertension due to excess deoxycorticosterone

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247
Q

What is the rarest form of CAH?

A

17-hydroxylase deficiency

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248
Q

What does 17-hydroxylase deficiency lead to?

A

Mineralocorticoid excess with low androgen and estrogen levels

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249
Q

How do the symptoms of CAH vary?

A

Depending on the specific enzyme deficiency and the severity of the disorder

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250
Q

What is a common clinical presentation in female infants with CAH?

A

Ambiguous genitalia due to excessive androgen exposure in utero

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251
Q

How do male infants typically present at birth with CAH?

A

Appear normal, which can delay diagnosis

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252
Q

What is the effect of androgen exposure in utero on male infants?

A

Male infants appear normal at birth, which can delay diagnosis

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253
Q

What is a salt-wasting crisis in the context of CAH?

A

A severe form occurring in about 75% of cases with 21-hydroxylase deficiency, characterized by dehydration, hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances

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254
Q

What are the potential consequences of a salt-wasting crisis if not treated promptly?

A

It can be life-threatening

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255
Q

What is precocious puberty and how is it related to CAH?

A

Excess androgens can lead to early development of secondary sexual characteristics in both males and females

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256
Q

What fertility issues may adults with untreated CAH experience?

A

Infertility due to hormonal imbalances

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257
Q

What growth abnormalities are associated with children who have CAH?

A

Accelerated growth rates initially but may have a shorter adult stature due to early epiphyseal closure

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258
Q

What is the screening method for diagnosing CAH in newborns?

A

Looking for elevated levels of serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17OHP)

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259
Q

Is newborn screening for CAH done in the UK?

A

No, it is not yet done in the UK

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260
Q

What is ACTH stimulation testing used for in diagnosing CAH?

A

To evaluate the adrenal gland’s response to ACTH, with abnormal increases in 17OHP indicating CAH

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261
Q

What is the primary management strategy for CAH?

A

Glucocorticoid replacement to reduce ACTH levels and minimize adrenal androgen production

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262
Q

In cases of mineralocorticoid deficiency, what medication is prescribed?

A

Fludrocortisone

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263
Q

Fill in the blank: CAH can lead to _______ in both males and females due to excess androgens.

A

precocious puberty

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264
Q

True or False: Children with CAH typically have normal growth patterns throughout their development.

A

False

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265
Q

What is a feature of 21-hydroxylase deficiency?

A

Virilisation of female genitalia

This condition leads to the development of male characteristics in genetically female infants.

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266
Q

What percentage of patients with 21-hydroxylase deficiency experience a salt-losing crisis?

A

60-70%

A salt-losing crisis typically occurs at 1-3 weeks of age in affected infants.

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267
Q

What is a feature of 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency?

A

Hypertension

This condition can lead to high blood pressure due to adrenal hormone imbalances.

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268
Q

What are two features of 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency?

A
  • Virilisation of female genitalia
  • Hypokalaemia

Hypokalaemia refers to low potassium levels in the blood.

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269
Q

What is a feature of 17-hydroxylase deficiency in females?

A

Non-virilising

This means that females do not develop male characteristics.

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270
Q

What is a feature of 17-hydroxylase deficiency in boys?

A

Inter-sex

This condition can result in ambiguous genitalia in male infants.

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271
Q

What is a common feature of both 21-hydroxylase and 11-beta hydroxylase deficiencies?

A

Virilisation of female genitalia

Both conditions lead to the development of male characteristics in genetically female infants.

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272
Q

Fill in the blank: A feature of 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency is _______.

A

Hypertension

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273
Q

What is congenital hypothyroidism?

A

A condition affecting around 1 in 4000 babies that, if not diagnosed and treated within the first four weeks, causes irreversible cognitive impairment

Congenital hypothyroidism is a serious condition that can have lasting effects on a child’s development.

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274
Q

What are the features of congenital hypothyroidism?

A

• Prolonged neonatal jaundice
• Delayed mental & physical milestones
• Short stature
• Puffy face
• Macroglossia
• Hypotonia

These features can help in early identification of the condition.

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275
Q

At what age are children screened for congenital hypothyroidism?

A

5-7 days

Screening is typically done using the heel prick test.

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276
Q

True or False: Congenital hypothyroidism can be treated effectively if diagnosed after four weeks.

A

False

Diagnosis and treatment must occur within the first four weeks to prevent irreversible cognitive impairment.

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277
Q

Fill in the blank: Congenital hypothyroidism affects approximately 1 in ______ babies.

A

4000

This statistic highlights the rarity of the condition.

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278
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for type 2 diabetes mellitus in symptomatic patients?

A

• Fasting glucose ≥ 7.0 mmol/l
• Random glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)

Symptoms may include polyuria and polydipsia.

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279
Q

What additional requirement must be met for diagnosing type 2 diabetes in asymptomatic patients?

A

The criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

This ensures the accuracy of the diagnosis.

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280
Q

What is the HbA1c threshold for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?

A

HbA1c ≥ 48 mmol/mol (6.5%)

Values below this do not exclude diabetes.

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281
Q

Under what circumstances should the HbA1c test be repeated to confirm diabetes diagnosis?

A

In patients without symptoms.

This helps ensure the reliability of the diagnosis.

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282
Q

What conditions may lead to misleading HbA1c results?

A

• Increased red cell turnover
• Haemoglobinopathies
• Haemolytic anaemia
• Untreated iron deficiency anaemia
• Suspected gestational diabetes
• Children
• HIV
• Chronic kidney disease
• Medications causing hyperglycaemia (e.g., corticosteroids)

These conditions can affect the accuracy of HbA1c measurements.

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283
Q

What is considered normal glycaemic control for HbA1c?

A

HbA1c <= 41 mmol/mol (5.9%)

Values above this indicate prediabetes or diabetes.

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284
Q

What HbA1c range indicates prediabetes?

A

HbA1c 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%)

Fasting glucose levels can also indicate prediabetes.

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285
Q

Fill in the blank: In diabetes mellitus, fasting glucose is ≥ _______.

A

7.0 mmol/l

This is a key diagnostic threshold.

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286
Q

True or False: A random glucose test of 10.0 mmol/l can diagnose type 2 diabetes.

A

False

The threshold for random glucose is ≥ 11.1 mmol/l.

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287
Q

What is the diagnostic threshold for diabetes based on fasting glucose?

A

Fasting glucose ≥ 7.0 mmol/l

This is a critical value for diagnosis.

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288
Q

What are the two types of impaired glucose conditions?

A

• Impaired fasting glucose
• Impaired glucose tolerance

These conditions are precursors to diabetes.

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289
Q

What fasting glucose level indicates impaired fasting glucose (IFG)?

A

A fasting glucose greater than or equal to 6.1 but less than 7.0 mmol/l

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290
Q

Define impaired glucose tolerance (IGT).

A

Fasting plasma glucose less than 7.0 mmol/l and OGTT 2-hour value greater than or equal to 7.8 mmol/l but less than 11.1 mmol/l

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291
Q

What action should be taken for people with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) according to Diabetes UK?

A

Offer an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes

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292
Q

What OGTT result indicates that a person does not have diabetes but has impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)?

A

A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l

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293
Q

What fasting glucose level indicates impaired fasting glucose (IFG)?

A

A fasting glucose greater than or equal to 6.1 but less than 7.0 mmol/l

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294
Q

Define impaired glucose tolerance (IGT).

A

Fasting plasma glucose less than 7.0 mmol/l and OGTT 2-hour value greater than or equal to 7.8 mmol/l but less than 11.1 mmol/l

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295
Q

What action should be taken for people with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) according to Diabetes UK?

A

Offer an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes

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296
Q

What OGTT result indicates that a person does not have diabetes but has impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)?

A

A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l

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297
Q

What are the 4 main ways to check blood glucose?

A
  • Finger-prick bedside glucose monitor
  • One-off blood glucose (fasting or non-fasting)
  • HbA1c (measures average glucose over 2-3 months)
  • Glucose tolerance test (fasting glucose followed by 75g glucose load and a second reading after 2 hours)
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298
Q

What fasting glucose level indicates diabetes in symptomatic patients?

A

Greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l

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299
Q

What random glucose level indicates diabetes in symptomatic patients?

A

Greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)

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300
Q

What is required for diagnosing diabetes in asymptomatic patients?

A

Criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions

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301
Q

What HbA1c level is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus according to WHO?

A

Greater than or equal to 6.5% (48 mmol/mol)

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302
Q

True or False: An HbA1c value of less than 6.5% excludes diabetes.

A

False

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303
Q

What must be done to confirm a diabetes diagnosis in asymptomatic patients with HbA1c?

A

The test must be repeated

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304
Q

What can cause misleading HbA1c results?

A

Increased red cell turnover

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305
Q

Fill in the blank: A glucose tolerance test involves a fasting blood glucose followed by a _______ glucose load.

A

75g

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306
Q

What are the 4 main ways to check blood glucose?

A
  • Finger-prick bedside glucose monitor
  • One-off blood glucose (fasting or non-fasting)
  • HbA1c (measures average glucose over 2-3 months)
  • Glucose tolerance test (fasting glucose followed by 75g glucose load and a second reading after 2 hours)
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2
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307
Q

What fasting glucose level indicates diabetes in symptomatic patients?

A

Greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l

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308
Q

What random glucose level indicates diabetes in symptomatic patients?

A

Greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)

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309
Q

What is required for diagnosing diabetes in asymptomatic patients?

A

Criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions

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310
Q

What HbA1c level is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus according to WHO?

A

Greater than or equal to 6.5% (48 mmol/mol)

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311
Q

True or False: An HbA1c value of less than 6.5% excludes diabetes.

A

False

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312
Q

What must be done to confirm a diabetes diagnosis in asymptomatic patients with HbA1c?

A

The test must be repeated

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313
Q

What can cause misleading HbA1c results?

A

Increased red cell turnover

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314
Q

Fill in the blank: A glucose tolerance test involves a fasting blood glucose followed by a _______ glucose load.

A

75g

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315
Q

What is Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM)?

A

An autoimmune disorder where the insulin-producing beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas are destroyed by the immune system

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316
Q

What results from the destruction of beta cells in T1DM?

A

An absolute deficiency of insulin resulting in raised glucose levels

317
Q

When do patients typically develop Type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

In childhood/early adult life

318
Q

What is a common presentation of T1DM?

A

Patients may present unwell, possibly in diabetic ketoacidosis

319
Q

What is Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)?

A

The most common cause of diabetes in the developed world caused by a relative deficiency of insulin due to an excess of adipose tissue

320
Q

What leads to the development of T2DM?

A

Not enough insulin to ‘go around’ all the excess fatty tissue, leading to blood glucose creeping up

321
Q

What is prediabetes?

A

A term for patients who don’t yet meet the criteria for a formal diagnosis of T2DM but are likely to develop the condition over the next few years

322
Q

What interventions are recommended for patients with prediabetes?

A

Closer monitoring and lifestyle interventions such as weight loss

323
Q

What is gestational diabetes?

A

A condition where some pregnant women develop raised glucose levels during pregnancy

324
Q

Why is it important to detect gestational diabetes?

A

Untreated gestational diabetes may lead to complications

325
Q

What is Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM)?

A

An autoimmune disorder where the insulin-producing beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas are destroyed by the immune system

326
Q

What results from the destruction of beta cells in T1DM?

A

An absolute deficiency of insulin resulting in raised glucose levels

327
Q

When do patients typically develop Type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

In childhood/early adult life

328
Q

What is a common presentation of T1DM?

A

Patients may present unwell, possibly in diabetic ketoacidosis

329
Q

What is Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)?

A

The most common cause of diabetes in the developed world caused by a relative deficiency of insulin due to an excess of adipose tissue

330
Q

What leads to the development of T2DM?

A

Not enough insulin to ‘go around’ all the excess fatty tissue, leading to blood glucose creeping up

331
Q

What is prediabetes?

A

A term for patients who don’t yet meet the criteria for a formal diagnosis of T2DM but are likely to develop the condition over the next few years

332
Q

What interventions are recommended for patients with prediabetes?

A

Closer monitoring and lifestyle interventions such as weight loss

333
Q

What is gestational diabetes?

A

A condition where some pregnant women develop raised glucose levels during pregnancy

334
Q

Why is it important to detect gestational diabetes?

A

Untreated gestational diabetes may lead to complications

335
Q

What does MODY stand for?

A

Maturity onset diabetes of the young

336
Q

What type of disorders does MODY represent?

A

Inherited genetic disorders affecting the production of insulin

337
Q

What are common symptoms of MODY?

A

Asymptomatic hyperglycaemia with progression to more severe complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis

338
Q

What is LADA?

A

Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults

339
Q

How do the majority of patients with autoimmune-related diabetes present?

A

Younger in life

340
Q

What is a common misdiagnosis for patients with LADA?

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)

341
Q

What can cause diabetes to develop aside from genetic factors?

A

Any pathological process which damages the insulin-producing cells of the pancreas

342
Q

Name two examples of conditions that may lead to diabetes.

A
  • Chronic pancreatitis
  • Haemochromatosis
343
Q

What type of drugs may cause raised glucose levels?

A

Glucocorticoids

344
Q

True or False: LADA is commonly diagnosed in older adults.

A

False

345
Q

Fill in the blank: MODY results in younger patients developing symptoms similar to those with _______.

A

T2DM

346
Q

What does MODY stand for?

A

Maturity onset diabetes of the young

347
Q

What type of disorders does MODY represent?

A

Inherited genetic disorders affecting the production of insulin

348
Q

What are common symptoms of MODY?

A

Asymptomatic hyperglycaemia with progression to more severe complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis

349
Q

What is LADA?

A

Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults

350
Q

How do the majority of patients with autoimmune-related diabetes present?

A

Younger in life

351
Q

What is a common misdiagnosis for patients with LADA?

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)

352
Q

What can cause diabetes to develop aside from genetic factors?

A

Any pathological process which damages the insulin-producing cells of the pancreas

353
Q

Name two examples of conditions that may lead to diabetes.

A
  • Chronic pancreatitis
  • Haemochromatosis
354
Q

What type of drugs may cause raised glucose levels?

A

Glucocorticoids

355
Q

True or False: LADA is commonly diagnosed in older adults.

A

False

356
Q

Fill in the blank: MODY results in younger patients developing symptoms similar to those with _______.

A

T2DM

357
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of insulin?

A

Direct replacement for endogenous insulin

358
Q

What is the primary route of administration for insulin?

A

Subcutaneous

359
Q

What are the main side effects of insulin?

A
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Weight gain
  • Lipodystrophy
360
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of Metformin?

A
  • Increases insulin sensitivity
  • Decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
361
Q

What is the route of administration for Metformin?

A

Oral

362
Q

What are the main side effects of Metformin?

A
  • Gastrointestinal upset
  • Lactic acidosis
363
Q

Fill in the blank: The main side effect of insulin is _______.

A

Hypoglycaemia

364
Q

Fill in the blank: Metformin is administered via _______.

A

Oral

365
Q

True or False: Insulin decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis.

A

False

366
Q

True or False: Lactic acidosis is a side effect of Metformin.

A

True

367
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of insulin?

A

Direct replacement for endogenous insulin

368
Q

What is the primary route of administration for insulin?

A

Subcutaneous

369
Q

What are the main side effects of insulin?

A
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Weight gain
  • Lipodystrophy
370
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of Metformin?

A
  • Increases insulin sensitivity
  • Decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
371
Q

What is the route of administration for Metformin?

A

Oral

372
Q

What are the main side effects of Metformin?

A
  • Gastrointestinal upset
  • Lactic acidosis
373
Q

Fill in the blank: The main side effect of insulin is _______.

A

Hypoglycaemia

374
Q

Fill in the blank: Metformin is administered via _______.

A

Oral

375
Q

True or False: Insulin decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis.

A

False

376
Q

True or False: Lactic acidosis is a side effect of Metformin.

A

True

377
Q

What do sulfonylureas do?

A

Stimulate pancreatic beta cells to secrete insulin

378
Q

What is the primary action of thiazolidinediones?

A

Activate PPAR-gamma receptor in adipocytes to promote adipogenesis and fatty acid uptake

379
Q

What is the mechanism of action for DPP-4 inhibitors?

A

Increases incretin levels which inhibit glucagon secretion

380
Q

What do SGLT-2 inhibitors do?

A

Inhibits reabsorption of glucose in the kidney

381
Q

What is the function of GLP-1 agonists?

A

Incretin mimetic which inhibits glucagon secretion

382
Q

What is the administration route for sulfonylureas?

A

Oral

383
Q

What is the administration route for thiazolidinediones?

A

Oral

384
Q

What is the administration route for DPP-4 inhibitors?

A

Oral

385
Q

What is the administration route for SGLT-2 inhibitors?

A

Oral

386
Q

What is the administration route for GLP-1 agonists?

A

Subcutaneous

387
Q

What is a common side effect of sulfonylureas?

A

Hypoglycaemia

388
Q

What is a common side effect of thiazolidinediones?

A

Weight gain

389
Q

What is a potential side effect of DPP-4 inhibitors?

A

Hyponatraemia

390
Q

What is a side effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors?

A

Urinary tract infection

391
Q

What is a common side effect of GLP-1 agonists?

A

Nausea and vomiting

392
Q

What risk is associated with the use of thiazolidinediones?

A

Fluid retention

393
Q

What increased risk is associated with GLP-1 agonists?

A

Increased risk of pancreatitis

394
Q

True or False: NICE provides guidelines on how drug therapy should be used in T2DM.

A

True

395
Q

What is the primary goal of managing diabetes mellitus?

A

The principle of managing diabetes mellitus includes:
* Drug therapy to normalise blood glucose levels
* Monitoring for and treating any complications related to diabetes
* Modifying any other risk factors for other conditions such as cardiovascular disease

These principles ensure comprehensive care for diabetes patients.

396
Q

What is required for patients with Type 1 diabetes to control blood sugar levels?

A

Patients with Type 1 diabetes always require insulin to control blood sugar levels due to an absolute deficiency of insulin.

There is no pancreatic tissue left to stimulate with drugs.

397
Q

What are the different types of insulin based on?

A

Different types of insulin are available according to their duration of action.

This affects how quickly and how long insulin works in the body.

398
Q

How is Type 2 diabetes primarily managed?

A

The majority of patients with Type 2 diabetes are controlled using oral medication.

This includes lifestyle modifications alongside medication.

399
Q

What is the first-line drug for the vast majority of Type 2 diabetes patients?

A

The first-line drug for the vast majority of patients with Type 2 diabetes is metformin.

Metformin helps to lower blood sugar levels and improve insulin sensitivity.

400
Q

Name some second-line drugs for Type 2 diabetes management.

A

Second-line drugs include:
* Sulfonylureas
* Gliptins
* Pioglitazone

These are used when metformin alone is insufficient.

401
Q

What happens if oral medication is not sufficiently controlling blood glucose in Type 2 diabetes?

A

If oral medication is not controlling the blood glucose to a sufficient degree, then insulin is used.

This indicates a progression in treatment strategies for diabetes management.

402
Q

What is diabetic foot disease?

A

An important complication of diabetes mellitus that should be screened for regularly

NICE produced guidelines relating to diabetic foot disease in 2015.

403
Q

What are the two main factors that lead to diabetic foot disease?

A
  • Neuropathy
  • Peripheral arterial disease
404
Q

What is one consequence of neuropathy in diabetic foot disease?

A

Loss of protective sensation

Example: not noticing a stone in the shoe

405
Q

What is Charcot’s arthropathy?

A

A condition that can occur due to neuropathy in diabetic foot disease

406
Q

What are some presentations of diabetic foot disease related to neuropathy?

A
  • Loss of sensation
407
Q

What are some presentations of diabetic foot disease related to ischaemia?

A
  • Absent foot pulses
  • Reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI)
  • Intermittent claudication
408
Q

What are some complications of diabetic foot disease?

A
  • Calluses
  • Ulceration
  • Charcot’s arthropathy
  • Cellulitis
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Gangrene
409
Q

How often should patients with diabetes be screened for diabetic foot disease?

A

At least annually

410
Q

What is one method for screening ischaemia in diabetic foot disease?

A

Palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterior tibial artery pulse

411
Q

What tool is used to screen for neuropathy in diabetic foot disease?

A

A 10 g monofilament

412
Q

What does NICE recommend for patients with diabetes regarding diabetic foot disease?

A

To risk stratify patients

413
Q

What defines low risk in diabetic foot assessment?

A

No risk factors except callus

This includes no deformity or previous ulceration.

414
Q

What are the characteristics of moderate risk in diabetic foot assessment?

A

• Deformity or previous ulceration
• Neuropathy
• Non-critical limb ischaemia
• Neuropathy and non-critical limb ischaemia together

Patients with moderate risk should be monitored regularly.

415
Q

What factors indicate high risk in diabetic foot assessment?

A

• Previous amputation
• On renal replacement therapy
• Neuropathy in combination with callus and/or deformity
• Non-critical limb ischaemia in combination with callus and/or deformity

High-risk patients require regular follow-up.

416
Q

What is the follow-up recommendation for patients at moderate or high risk?

A

Regular follow-up by the local diabetic foot centre

This applies to any problems other than simple calluses.

417
Q

True or False: Simple calluses are considered a risk factor in diabetic foot assessment.

A

False

Simple calluses alone do not classify a patient as at risk.

418
Q

Fill in the blank: Patients with _______ should be followed up regularly by the local diabetic foot centre.

A

moderate or high risk

This includes those with any problems other than simple calluses.

419
Q

What is androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

An X-linked recessive condition resulting in end-organ resistance to testosterone, causing genotypically male children (46XY) to have a female phenotype.

Affected individuals have a rudimentary vagina and testes but no uterus.

420
Q

What karyotype is associated with androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

46 XY

421
Q

What is the defect in androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Defect in androgen receptor

422
Q

What are the hormone levels in individuals with androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Elevated testosterone, oestrogen, and LH levels

423
Q

What is 5-a reductase deficiency?

A

An autosomal recessive condition resulting in the inability of males to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

This condition leads to ambiguous genitalia in the newborn period.

424
Q

What karyotype is associated with 5-a reductase deficiency?

A

46 XY

425
Q

What common condition is associated with 5-a reductase deficiency in newborns?

A

Ambiguous genitalia

426
Q

What is a common feature seen in individuals with 5-a reductase deficiency?

A

Hypospadias

427
Q

What happens at puberty for individuals with 5-a reductase deficiency?

A

Virilization occurs

428
Q

In 5-a reductase deficiency, what is the status of the external genitalia?

A

External genitalia are female or ambiguous

429
Q

What is male pseudohermaphroditism?

A

A condition where individuals have testes but external genitalia are female or ambiguous, which may be secondary to androgen insensitivity syndrome.

This term encompasses various conditions, including androgen insensitivity and 5-a reductase deficiency.

430
Q

What is female pseudohermaphroditism?

A

An individual has ovaries but external genitalia that are male (virilized) or ambiguous

May be secondary to congenital adrenal hyperplasia

431
Q

What is the chromosomal makeup associated with female pseudohermaphroditism?

A

46 XX

432
Q

What is true hermaphroditism?

A

A condition where both ovarian and testicular tissue are present

Very rare

433
Q

What are the possible chromosomal makeups for true hermaphroditism?

A

46 XX or 47 XXY

434
Q

True or False: Female pseudohermaphroditism can occur in individuals with 47 XXY chromosomes.

A

False

435
Q

What is female pseudohermaphroditism?

A

An individual has ovaries but external genitalia that are male (virilized) or ambiguous

May be secondary to congenital adrenal hyperplasia

436
Q

What is the chromosomal makeup associated with female pseudohermaphroditism?

A

46 XX

437
Q

What is true hermaphroditism?

A

A condition where both ovarian and testicular tissue are present

Very rare

438
Q

What are the possible chromosomal makeups for true hermaphroditism?

A

46 XX or 47 XXY

439
Q

True or False: Female pseudohermaphroditism can occur in individuals with 47 XXY chromosomes.

A

False

440
Q

What is Kallman’s syndrome?

A

A cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait.

441
Q

What causes Kallman’s syndrome?

A

Failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus

442
Q

What is a key clinical clue for Kallman’s syndrome?

A

Lack of smell (anosmia) in a boy with delayed puberty

443
Q

List the features of Kallman’s syndrome.

A
  • Delayed puberty
  • Hypogonadism
  • Cryptorchidism
  • Anosmia
  • Low sex hormone levels
  • Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels
  • Typically normal or above average height
444
Q

What additional defects may be seen in some patients with Kallman’s syndrome?

A

Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects

445
Q

What is Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

An X-linked recessive condition due to end-organ resistance to testosterone

446
Q

What is the phenotype of genotypically male children (46XY) with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Female phenotype

447
Q

What is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome?

A

Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

448
Q

What is Kallman’s syndrome?

A

A cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait.

449
Q

What causes Kallman’s syndrome?

A

Failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus

450
Q

What is a key clinical clue for Kallman’s syndrome?

A

Lack of smell (anosmia) in a boy with delayed puberty

451
Q

List the features of Kallman’s syndrome.

A
  • Delayed puberty
  • Hypogonadism
  • Cryptorchidism
  • Anosmia
  • Low sex hormone levels
  • Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels
  • Typically normal or above average height
452
Q

What additional defects may be seen in some patients with Kallman’s syndrome?

A

Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects

453
Q

What is Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

An X-linked recessive condition due to end-organ resistance to testosterone

454
Q

What is the phenotype of genotypically male children (46XY) with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Female phenotype

455
Q

What is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome?

A

Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

456
Q

What is androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

An X-linked recessive condition due to end-organ resistance to testosterone causing genotypically male children (46XY) to have a female phenotype

Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is also known as testicular feminisation syndrome.

457
Q

What are the key features of complete androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

• Primary amenorrhoea
• Undescended testes causing groin swellings
• Breast development may occur as a result of conversion of testosterone to oestradiol

458
Q

How is androgen insensitivity syndrome diagnosed?

A

Buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal 46XY genotype

459
Q

What is the management approach for androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

• Counselling - raise child as female
• Bilateral orchidectomy
• Oestrogen therapy

460
Q

True or False: Androgen insensitivity syndrome can lead to testicular cancer due to undescended testes.

A

True

461
Q

Fill in the blank: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is also known as _______.

A

testicular feminisation syndrome

462
Q

What is Gitelman’s syndrome?

A

A defect in the thiazide-sensitive Na+ Cl- transporter in the distal convoluted tubule.

Gitelman’s syndrome is characterized by metabolic abnormalities, including hypomagnesaemia and hypokalaemia.

463
Q

Which electrolyte imbalances are associated with Gitelman’s syndrome?

A
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Hypomagnesaemia
  • Hypocalciuria
  • Metabolic alkalosis

These imbalances result from the defect in the Na+ Cl- transporter.

464
Q

What is a feature of hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state?

A

Normotension

This condition is characterized by elevated blood glucose levels without significant ketoacidosis.

465
Q

True or False: Hypercalcaemia can have multiple causes.

A

True

Causes of hypercalcaemia include primary hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, and vitamin D intoxication.

466
Q

What are the features of hypoglycaemia?

A
  • Sweating
  • Hunger
  • Palpitations
  • Confusion

Hypoglycaemia symptoms can vary and may include neuroglycopenic symptoms as well.

467
Q

What is a common feature of Graves’ disease?

A
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Goiter
  • Eye changes (exophthalmos)

Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that leads to excessive thyroid hormone production.

468
Q

Fill in the blank: Gitelman’s syndrome is characterized by _______.

A

[hypokalaemia]

Hypokalaemia is a defining feature of Gitelman’s syndrome due to the renal losses.

469
Q

What is the primary defect in Gitelman’s syndrome?

A

Thiazide-sensitive Na+ Cl- transporter in the distal convoluted tubule.

This defect leads to electrolyte imbalances and metabolic issues.

470
Q

What is the relationship between metabolic alkalosis and Gitelman’s syndrome?

A

It is a result of the renal loss of potassium and hydrogen ions.

Metabolic alkalosis occurs due to the body’s compensatory mechanisms in response to hypokalaemia.

471
Q

What are glucagonomas?

A

Glucagonomas are small tumours, almost always found in the pancreas, and frequently malignant.

472
Q

From which cells do glucagonomas arise?

A

They arise from the alpha cells of the pancreas.

473
Q

What are the common presentations of glucagonoma?

A

They present with diabetes mellitus, venous thrombo-embolism, and the classical rash of necrolytic migratory erythema - a red, blistering rash.

474
Q

What serum level of glucagon suggests a diagnosis of glucagonoma?

A

A serum level of glucagon > 1000pg/ml usually suggests the diagnosis.

475
Q

What imaging technique is required for diagnosing glucagonoma?

A

Imaging with CT scanning is also required.

476
Q

What are the treatment options for glucagonoma?

A

Treatment options include surgical resection and octreotide.

477
Q

What is Graves’ disease?

A

An autoimmune thyroid disease where the body produces IgG antibodies to the TSH receptor

It is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis.

478
Q

What age group is typically affected by Graves’ disease?

A

Women aged 30-50 years

479
Q

What are the typical features of thyrotoxicosis?

A

Increased metabolism, weight loss, heat intolerance, palpitations, and anxiety

Specific features may vary among patients.

480
Q

What are the eye signs associated with Graves’ disease?

A

Exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia

Eye signs occur in 30% of patients.

481
Q

What is pretibial myxoedema?

A

A skin condition seen in Graves’ disease characterized by swelling on the shins

482
Q

What is thyroid acropachy?

A

A triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation

483
Q

What percentage of patients with Graves’ disease have TSH receptor stimulating antibodies?

A

90%

484
Q

What percentage of patients with Graves’ disease have anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies?

A

75%

485
Q

What does thyroid scintigraphy show in Graves’ disease?

A

Diffuse, homogenous, increased uptake of radioactive iodine

486
Q

True or False: Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hypothyroidism.

A

False

487
Q

Fill in the blank: Graves’ disease is characterized by the production of _______ antibodies to the TSH receptor.

A

[IgG]

488
Q

What is Graves’ disease?

A

An autoimmune thyroid disease where the body produces IgG antibodies to the TSH receptor

It is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis.

489
Q

What age group is typically affected by Graves’ disease?

A

Women aged 30-50 years

490
Q

What are the typical features of thyrotoxicosis?

A

Increased metabolism, weight loss, heat intolerance, palpitations, and anxiety

Specific features may vary among patients.

491
Q

What are the eye signs associated with Graves’ disease?

A

Exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia

Eye signs occur in 30% of patients.

492
Q

What is pretibial myxoedema?

A

A skin condition seen in Graves’ disease characterized by swelling on the shins

493
Q

What is thyroid acropachy?

A

A triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation

494
Q

What percentage of patients with Graves’ disease have TSH receptor stimulating antibodies?

A

90%

495
Q

What percentage of patients with Graves’ disease have anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies?

A

75%

496
Q

What does thyroid scintigraphy show in Graves’ disease?

A

Diffuse, homogenous, increased uptake of radioactive iodine

497
Q

True or False: Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hypothyroidism.

A

False

498
Q

Fill in the blank: Graves’ disease is characterized by the production of _______ antibodies to the TSH receptor.

A

[IgG]

499
Q

What are the three types of growth?

A
  • Infancy (birth to 2-years-old)
  • Childhood (3 to 11-years-old)
  • Puberty (12 to 18-years-old)
500
Q

What is the most important factor affecting fetal growth?

A

Environmental factors, such as maternal nutrition and uterine capacity

501
Q

What are the factors that affect fetal growth?

A
  • Environmental
  • Placental
  • Hormonal
  • Genetic (predominately maternal)
502
Q

What drives growth in infancy?

A

Nutrition and insulin

503
Q

How does poorly controlled maternal diabetes affect fetal growth?

A

It leads to high fetal insulin production, resulting in hypoglycaemia and macrosomia

504
Q

In infancy, what is the role of growth hormone?

A

Growth isn’t affected by growth hormone due to low receptor amounts

505
Q

What drives growth during childhood?

A

Growth hormone and thyroxine

506
Q

What hormones are primarily responsible for growth during puberty?

A

Growth hormone and sex steroids

507
Q

What is the significance of high amounts of growth hormone during puberty?

A

It is important for growth spurts

508
Q

What is the most important determinant of final adult height?

A

Genetic factors

509
Q

Fill in the blank: In infancy, growth is driven by _______.

A

[Nutrition and insulin]

510
Q

True or False: Growth during infancy is significantly affected by thyroid hormones.

A

False

511
Q

What is the age range for childhood growth?

A

3 to 11-years-old

512
Q

What are the effects of hypopituitarism on growth in infancy?

A

There is no effect on growth

513
Q

What are the three types of growth?

A
  • Infancy (birth to 2-years-old)
  • Childhood (3 to 11-years-old)
  • Puberty (12 to 18-years-old)
514
Q

What is the most important factor affecting fetal growth?

A

Environmental factors, such as maternal nutrition and uterine capacity

515
Q

What are the factors that affect fetal growth?

A
  • Environmental
  • Placental
  • Hormonal
  • Genetic (predominately maternal)
516
Q

What drives growth in infancy?

A

Nutrition and insulin

517
Q

How does poorly controlled maternal diabetes affect fetal growth?

A

It leads to high fetal insulin production, resulting in hypoglycaemia and macrosomia

518
Q

In infancy, what is the role of growth hormone?

A

Growth isn’t affected by growth hormone due to low receptor amounts

519
Q

What drives growth during childhood?

A

Growth hormone and thyroxine

520
Q

What hormones are primarily responsible for growth during puberty?

A

Growth hormone and sex steroids

521
Q

What is the significance of high amounts of growth hormone during puberty?

A

It is important for growth spurts

522
Q

What is the most important determinant of final adult height?

A

Genetic factors

523
Q

Fill in the blank: In infancy, growth is driven by _______.

A

[Nutrition and insulin]

524
Q

True or False: Growth during infancy is significantly affected by thyroid hormones.

A

False

525
Q

What is the age range for childhood growth?

A

3 to 11-years-old

526
Q

What are the effects of hypopituitarism on growth in infancy?

A

There is no effect on growth

527
Q

What is the most common drug cause of gynaecomastia?

A

Spironolactone

Spironolactone is a diuretic that can cause breast tissue enlargement in males.

528
Q

List three common drugs that can cause gynaecomastia.

A
  • Spironolactone
  • Cimetidine
  • Digoxin

These drugs are known to have hormonal effects that may lead to breast tissue development.

529
Q

True or False: Cannabis is a drug that can cause gynaecomastia.

A

True

Cannabis has been associated with hormonal changes that may contribute to gynaecomastia.

530
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ is a GnRH agonist that can cause gynaecomastia.

A

Goserelin

Goserelin is used in hormone-sensitive conditions and can lead to changes in estrogen levels.

531
Q

Name two very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia.

A
  • Tricyclics
  • Isoniazid

These drugs are less commonly associated with the development of gynaecomastia compared to others.

532
Q

What type of medications are known to cause gynaecomastia aside from hormonal treatments?

A
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Heroin
  • Busulfan
  • Methyldopa

These medications have been reported to cause gynaecomastia, although they are considered very rare causes.

533
Q

What are the effects of estrogens and anabolic steroids on gynaecomastia?

A

They can cause gynaecomastia

Both estrogens and anabolic steroids can increase breast tissue due to their hormonal effects.

534
Q

List two drug classes that can lead to gynaecomastia.

A
  • Hormonal agents
  • Psychotropic medications

Hormonal agents directly affect estrogen levels, while psychotropic medications can have indirect effects.

535
Q

What is the most common drug cause of gynaecomastia?

A

Spironolactone

Spironolactone is a diuretic that can cause breast tissue enlargement in males.

536
Q

List three common drugs that can cause gynaecomastia.

A
  • Spironolactone
  • Cimetidine
  • Digoxin

These drugs are known to have hormonal effects that may lead to breast tissue development.

537
Q

True or False: Cannabis is a drug that can cause gynaecomastia.

A

True

Cannabis has been associated with hormonal changes that may contribute to gynaecomastia.

538
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ is a GnRH agonist that can cause gynaecomastia.

A

Goserelin

Goserelin is used in hormone-sensitive conditions and can lead to changes in estrogen levels.

539
Q

Name two very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia.

A
  • Tricyclics
  • Isoniazid

These drugs are less commonly associated with the development of gynaecomastia compared to others.

540
Q

What type of medications are known to cause gynaecomastia aside from hormonal treatments?

A
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Heroin
  • Busulfan
  • Methyldopa

These medications have been reported to cause gynaecomastia, although they are considered very rare causes.

541
Q

What are the effects of estrogens and anabolic steroids on gynaecomastia?

A

They can cause gynaecomastia

Both estrogens and anabolic steroids can increase breast tissue due to their hormonal effects.

542
Q

List two drug classes that can lead to gynaecomastia.

A
  • Hormonal agents
  • Psychotropic medications

Hormonal agents directly affect estrogen levels, while psychotropic medications can have indirect effects.

543
Q

What is gynaecomastia?

A

An abnormal amount of breast tissue in males, usually caused by an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio.

It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia.

544
Q

What are the physiological causes of gynaecomastia?

A

Normal in puberty.

Gynaecomastia can be a common occurrence during puberty due to hormonal changes.

545
Q

Name a syndrome associated with androgen deficiency that can cause gynaecomastia.

A

Kallmann’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome.

These syndromes are characterized by various hormonal imbalances.

546
Q

What testicular condition can lead to gynaecomastia?

A

Testicular failure, e.g., mumps.

Mumps can lead to orchitis, affecting testicular function.

547
Q

How can liver disease contribute to gynaecomastia?

A

Liver disease can disrupt hormone metabolism, leading to an increased oestrogen level.

Liver dysfunction affects the clearance of hormones.

548
Q

What type of cancer can cause gynaecomastia?

A

Testicular cancer, e.g., seminoma secreting hCG.

Certain testicular tumors can secrete hormones that increase oestrogen levels.

549
Q

What is ectopic tumour secretion?

A

Hormonal secretion from tumours located outside the usual endocrine glands, which can lead to gynaecomastia.

Ectopic secretion can mimic normal hormone levels.

550
Q

Name a metabolic condition that can lead to gynaecomastia.

A

Hyperthyroidism.

Increased thyroid hormone levels can alter the balance of sex hormones.

551
Q

What is the effect of haemodialysis on gynaecomastia?

A

Haemodialysis can lead to hormonal imbalances that may result in gynaecomastia.

The process can affect kidney function and hormone excretion.

552
Q

What is the most common drug cause of gynaecomastia?

A

Spironolactone.

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can increase oestrogen levels.

553
Q

List two other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia.

A
  • Cimetidine
  • Digoxin

Both medications have been associated with hormonal changes leading to gynaecomastia.

554
Q

What recreational drug is known to cause gynaecomastia?

A

Cannabis.

Cannabis use can lead to hormonal imbalances affecting breast tissue.

555
Q

What medication used for hair loss can cause gynaecomastia?

A

Finasteride.

Finasteride affects hormone levels and can lead to breast tissue development.

556
Q

What type of agonists can lead to gynaecomastia?

A

GnRH agonists, e.g., goserelin, buserelin.

These drugs influence the hormonal axis, potentially increasing oestrogen levels.

557
Q

Fill in the blank: Gynaecomastia can also be caused by _______.

A

Oestrogens, anabolic steroids.

Exogenous hormones can disrupt the natural balance of sex hormones.

558
Q

What is gynaecomastia?

A

An abnormal amount of breast tissue in males, usually caused by an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio.

It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia.

559
Q

What are the physiological causes of gynaecomastia?

A

Normal in puberty.

Gynaecomastia can be a common occurrence during puberty due to hormonal changes.

560
Q

Name a syndrome associated with androgen deficiency that can cause gynaecomastia.

A

Kallmann’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome.

These syndromes are characterized by various hormonal imbalances.

561
Q

What testicular condition can lead to gynaecomastia?

A

Testicular failure, e.g., mumps.

Mumps can lead to orchitis, affecting testicular function.

562
Q

How can liver disease contribute to gynaecomastia?

A

Liver disease can disrupt hormone metabolism, leading to an increased oestrogen level.

Liver dysfunction affects the clearance of hormones.

563
Q

What type of cancer can cause gynaecomastia?

A

Testicular cancer, e.g., seminoma secreting hCG.

Certain testicular tumors can secrete hormones that increase oestrogen levels.

564
Q

What is ectopic tumour secretion?

A

Hormonal secretion from tumours located outside the usual endocrine glands, which can lead to gynaecomastia.

Ectopic secretion can mimic normal hormone levels.

565
Q

Name a metabolic condition that can lead to gynaecomastia.

A

Hyperthyroidism.

Increased thyroid hormone levels can alter the balance of sex hormones.

566
Q

What is the effect of haemodialysis on gynaecomastia?

A

Haemodialysis can lead to hormonal imbalances that may result in gynaecomastia.

The process can affect kidney function and hormone excretion.

567
Q

What is the most common drug cause of gynaecomastia?

A

Spironolactone.

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can increase oestrogen levels.

568
Q

List two other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia.

A
  • Cimetidine
  • Digoxin

Both medications have been associated with hormonal changes leading to gynaecomastia.

569
Q

What recreational drug is known to cause gynaecomastia?

A

Cannabis.

Cannabis use can lead to hormonal imbalances affecting breast tissue.

570
Q

What medication used for hair loss can cause gynaecomastia?

A

Finasteride.

Finasteride affects hormone levels and can lead to breast tissue development.

571
Q

What type of agonists can lead to gynaecomastia?

A

GnRH agonists, e.g., goserelin, buserelin.

These drugs influence the hormonal axis, potentially increasing oestrogen levels.

572
Q

Fill in the blank: Gynaecomastia can also be caused by _______.

A

Oestrogens, anabolic steroids.

Exogenous hormones can disrupt the natural balance of sex hormones.

573
Q

What is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

An autoimmune disorder of the thyroid gland typically associated with hypothyroidism.

It may have a transient thyrotoxicosis in the acute phase.

574
Q

How much more common is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis in women compared to men?

A

10 times more common

This prevalence highlights the gender disparity in autoimmune disorders.

575
Q

What are the key features of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A
  • Features of hypothyroidism
  • Firm, non-tender goitre
  • Presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies

These features are critical for diagnosis.

576
Q

What other autoimmune conditions are associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A
  • Coeliac disease
  • Type 1 diabetes mellitus
  • Vitiligo

The association with other autoimmune diseases is significant for patient management.

577
Q

What type of lymphoma is associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

MALT lymphoma

MALT lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.

578
Q

What is the primary cause of hypothyroidism related to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Other causes include iodine deficiency and subacute thyroiditis.

579
Q

Fill in the blank: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is typically associated with _______.

A

hypothyroidism

580
Q

True or False: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can cause transient thyrotoxicosis.

A

True

581
Q

What is the characteristic texture of the goitre in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Firm and non-tender

The goitre may vary in size and tenderness depending on the phase of the disease.

582
Q

What antibodies are commonly found in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A
  • Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO)
  • Anti-thyroglobulin (Tg)

The presence of these antibodies is crucial for diagnosis.

583
Q

What is the commonest cause of hypercalcaemia in hospitalised patients?

A

Malignancy

Malignancy may involve processes such as PTHrP secretion from tumors and bone metastases.

584
Q

What are two processes by which malignancy can cause hypercalcaemia?

A
  • PTHrP from the tumour (e.g., squamous cell lung cancer)
  • Bone metastases
585
Q

What is the role of myeloma in hypercalcaemia?

A

Increased osteoclastic bone resorption due to local cytokines

Cytokines such as IL-1 and tumour necrosis factor are released by myeloma cells.

586
Q

What is the key investigation for patients with hypercalcaemia?

A

Measuring parathyroid hormone levels

587
Q

Name two granulomatous diseases that can lead to hypercalcaemia.

A
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Tuberculosis
588
Q

What is a possible cause of hypercalcaemia related to vitamin D?

A

Vitamin D intoxication

589
Q

Fill in the blank: Milk-______ syndrome can cause hypercalcaemia.

A

alkali

590
Q

What types of drugs can contribute to hypercalcaemia?

A
  • Thiazides
  • Calcium-containing antacids
591
Q

What condition is usually normal but may cause hypercalcaemia with prolonged immobilisation?

A

Paget’s disease of the bone

592
Q

True or False: Hypercalcaemia can be caused by thyrotoxicosis.

A

True

593
Q

What are some causes of hypercalcaemia listed in the document?

A
  • Malignancy
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Vitamin D intoxication
  • Thyrotoxicosis
  • Milk-alkali syndrome
  • Thiazides
  • Calcium-containing antacids
  • Paget’s disease of the bone
594
Q

What is sick euthyroid syndrome also referred to as?

A

Non-thyroidal illness

This term reflects the condition’s association with systemic illness rather than primary thyroid disease.

595
Q

In sick euthyroid syndrome, what is often said about the levels of TSH, thyroxine, and T3?

A

Everything is low

This statement is a simplification; in many cases, TSH remains within the normal range despite low levels of thyroxine and T3.

596
Q

What is the typical TSH level in sick euthyroid syndrome?

A

Within the normal range

This is considered inappropriately normal given the low levels of thyroxine and T3.

597
Q

What happens to the changes in hormone levels upon recovery from the systemic illness in sick euthyroid syndrome?

A

Changes are reversible

This characteristic underscores that no treatment is usually needed.

598
Q

Is treatment usually needed for sick euthyroid syndrome?

A

No

Treatment is typically unnecessary as the condition resolves with recovery from the underlying systemic illness.

599
Q

What does Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome describe?

A

Adrenal gland failure secondary to a previous adrenal haemorrhage caused by severe bacterial infection

This syndrome is associated with severe infections leading to adrenal insufficiency.

600
Q

What is the most common cause of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Other causes include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli, and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

601
Q

List some features of hypoadrenalism associated with Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.

A
  • Lethargy
  • Weakness
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea & vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Hyperpigmentation (especially palmar creases)
  • Vitiligo
  • Loss of pubic hair in women

These symptoms reflect the adrenal insufficiency present in the syndrome.

602
Q

What crisis symptoms are associated with Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A
  • Collapse
  • Shock
  • Pyrexia

These crisis symptoms indicate severe adrenal crisis due to the syndrome.

603
Q

What does Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome describe?

A

Adrenal gland failure secondary to a previous adrenal haemorrhage caused by severe bacterial infection

This syndrome is associated with severe infections leading to adrenal insufficiency.

604
Q

What is the most common cause of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Other causes include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli, and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

605
Q

List some features of hypoadrenalism associated with Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.

A
  • Lethargy
  • Weakness
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea & vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Hyperpigmentation (especially palmar creases)
  • Vitiligo
  • Loss of pubic hair in women

These symptoms reflect the adrenal insufficiency present in the syndrome.

606
Q

What crisis symptoms are associated with Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A
  • Collapse
  • Shock
  • Pyrexia

These crisis symptoms indicate severe adrenal crisis due to the syndrome.

607
Q

What is the purpose of the water deprivation test?

A

To evaluate patients who have polydipsia

Polydipsia is excessive thirst, which often leads to increased fluid intake.

608
Q

What is the first step in conducting a water deprivation test?

A

Prevent the patient from drinking water

This is essential to assess the body’s ability to concentrate urine under conditions of dehydration.

609
Q

What should the patient do after being instructed not to drink water during the test?

A

Empty their bladder

This allows for accurate measurement of urine osmolality.

610
Q

How frequently should urine and plasma osmolalities be measured during the water deprivation test?

A

Hourly

This regular monitoring helps track changes in osmolality as dehydration progresses.

611
Q

What is the expected starting plasma osmolarity in a normal individual?

A

Normal

Normal plasma osmolarity typically ranges between 275 and 295 mOsm/kg.

612
Q

What urine osmolarity indicates normal kidney function after water deprivation?

A

> 600

This suggests that the kidneys are able to concentrate urine effectively.

613
Q

What urine osmolarity is observed in psychogenic polydipsia?

A

> 400

In psychogenic polydipsia, the body still retains some ability to concentrate urine despite excessive fluid intake.

614
Q

What is the urine osmolarity result for cranial diabetes insipidus after the water deprivation test?

A

> 600

This indicates that the kidneys can concentrate urine when stimulated with DDAVP (desmopressin).

615
Q

What urine osmolarity is characteristic of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

< 300

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus occurs when the kidneys are unable to respond to antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

616
Q

True or False: In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, urine osmolarity can exceed 600 mOsm/kg.

A

False

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, resulting in low urine osmolarity.

617
Q

What accounts for around 50-60% of cases of thyrotoxicosis?

A

Graves’ disease

Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that leads to hyperthyroidism.

618
Q

List three causes of thyrotoxicosis.

A
  • Toxic nodular goitre
  • Acute phase of subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis
  • Acute phase of post-partum thyroiditis
619
Q

True or False: Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should receive iodinated contrast medium.

A

False

Administration of iodinated contrast can lead to hyperthyroidism in these patients.

620
Q

What occurs as a result of administering iodinated contrast to patients with existing thyrotoxicosis?

A

Hyperthyroidism developing over 2-12 weeks

This is due to a large iodine load to the thyroid.

621
Q

What are the typical laboratory findings in thyrotoxicosis?

A
  • TSH down
  • T4 and T3 up
  • Thyroid autoantibodies
622
Q

Fill in the blank: The acute phase of _______ thyroiditis may lead to thyrotoxicosis.

A

Post-partum

623
Q

What type of thyroiditis can present with an initial thyrotoxic phase?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis typically leads to hypothyroidism but may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.

624
Q

What is a common complication of amiodarone therapy related to the thyroid?

A

Thyrotoxicosis

Amiodarone can cause thyroid dysfunction due to its high iodine content.

625
Q

What is the effect of iodine deficiency on thyroid function?

A

It is better

Iodine deficiency can lead to hypothyroidism, but the body often compensates initially.

626
Q

What is the definition of hyperthyroidism?

A

A condition where the thyroid gland produces excess thyroid hormones

Hyperthyroidism can lead to symptoms such as weight loss, heat intolerance, and increased heart rate.

627
Q

What is the major hormone active in target cells produced by the thyroid gland?

A

Triiodothyronine (T3)

T3 is the most biologically active form of thyroid hormone.

628
Q

Which thyroid hormone is the most prevalent form in plasma but less biologically active than T3?

A

Thyroxine (T4)

T4 is converted to T3 in target tissues.

629
Q

What is the function of calcitonin?

A

Lowers plasma calcium

Calcitonin is secreted by parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland.

630
Q

What is the process by which thyroid hormones are synthesized?

A

Thyroid actively concentrates iodide to twenty-five times the plasma concentration

This process is crucial for the production of T3 and T4.

631
Q

What stimulates the secretion of thyroid hormones?

A

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

TSH is released from the anterior pituitary gland.

632
Q

How long are the normal reserves of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland?

A

Approximately 3 months

This reserve allows for consistent hormone levels in the body.

633
Q

In Graves’ disease, what do patients develop antibodies against?

A

TSH receptors on the thyroid gland

This leads to chronic stimulation of the thyroid gland.

634
Q

What is typically observed in individuals with Graves’ disease regarding thyroid hormones and TSH levels?

A

Raised thyroid hormones and low TSH

This pattern is due to the negative feedback mechanism.

635
Q

What should be checked in individuals presenting with hyperthyroidism?

A

Thyroid receptor autoantibodies

These are present in up to 85% of cases of Graves’ disease.

636
Q

Fill in the blank: Iodide is oxidized by _______ in the follicular cells to atomic iodine.

A

peroxidase

This is a crucial step in the synthesis of thyroid hormones.

637
Q

What are the two main types of thyroid hormones synthesized from iodinated tyrosine residues?

A

T3 and T4

These hormones are formed through the coupling of iodinated tyrosine residues.

638
Q

What is an insulinoma?

A

An insulinoma is a neuroendocrine tumour deriving mainly from pancreatic Islets of Langerhans cells.

It is the most common pancreatic endocrine tumour.

639
Q

What percentage of insulinomas are malignant?

A

10% malignant

Additionally, 10% are multiple insulinomas.

640
Q

What condition is often associated with multiple insulinomas?

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1)

50% of patients with multiple tumours have MEN-1.

641
Q

What are common features of hypoglycemia in insulinoma patients?

A

Symptoms typically occur early in the morning or just before a meal, including:
* diplopia
* weakness

Rapid weight gain may also be seen.

642
Q

What laboratory findings are associated with insulinoma?

A

High insulin, raised proinsulin:insulin ratio, and high C-peptide

These findings are indicative of insulinoma.

643
Q

What is the primary diagnostic method for insulinoma?

A

Supervised, prolonged fasting (up to 72 hours)

CT pancreas may also be used.

644
Q

What is the main management strategy for insulinomas?

A

Surgery

Diazoxide and somatostatin are alternatives for patients not candidates for surgery.

645
Q

Fill in the blank: The most common pancreatic endocrine tumour is _______.

A

[insulinoma]

646
Q

What is hypospadias characterized by?

A
  • A ventral urethral meatus
  • A hooded prepuce
  • Chordee (ventral curvature of the penis) in more severe forms
  • The urethral meatus may open more proximally in more severe variants

75% of the openings are distally located.

647
Q

What is the most common occurrence of hypospadias?

A

Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder

Associated conditions include cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia.

648
Q

What should be done once hypospadias has been identified?

A

Infants should be referred to specialist services.

649
Q

At what age is corrective surgery for hypospadias typically performed?

A

Around 12 months of age.

650
Q

Why is it essential that a child is not circumcised prior to hypospadias surgery?

A

The foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure.

651
Q

In boys with very distal disease, what may be needed?

A

No treatment may be needed.

652
Q

What is the primary cause of primary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Decrease PTH secretion

Commonly secondary to thyroid surgery.

653
Q

What are the main symptoms of hypoparathyroidism secondary to hypocalcaemia?

A
  • Tetany: muscle twitching, cramping and spasm
  • Chvostek’s sign: facial muscle twitching when tapping over the parotid
  • Chronic symptoms: depression, cataracts
  • ECG changes: prolonged QT interval
654
Q

What is Chvostek’s sign?

A

Tapping over the parotid causes facial muscles to twitch

655
Q

What is the relationship between hypoparathyroidism and calcium levels?

A

Low calcium levels lead to symptoms of hypoparathyroidism

656
Q

What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

Target cells being insensitive to PTH

Associated with short stature and shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals.

657
Q

How do cAMP and phosphate levels change in hypoparathyroidism following PTH infusion?

A

Both cAMP and phosphate levels increase

658
Q

What happens to cAMP and phosphate levels in pseudohypoparathyroidism type I after PTH infusion?

A

Neither cAMP nor phosphate levels are increased

659
Q

In pseudohypoparathyroidism type II, how do cAMP levels respond to PTH infusion?

A

Only cAMP levels rise

660
Q

What is pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

Similar phenotype to pseudohypoparathyroidism but with normal biochemistry

661
Q

What is the effect of inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic on the brachial artery in relation to tetany?

A

Causes carpal spasm

662
Q

True or False: Primary hypoparathyroidism is classified as being secondary to surgery in most medical textbooks.

A

True

663
Q

What is the primary cause of primary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Decrease PTH secretion

Commonly secondary to thyroid surgery.

664
Q

What are the main symptoms of hypoparathyroidism secondary to hypocalcaemia?

A
  • Tetany: muscle twitching, cramping and spasm
  • Chvostek’s sign: facial muscle twitching when tapping over the parotid
  • Chronic symptoms: depression, cataracts
  • ECG changes: prolonged QT interval
665
Q

What is Chvostek’s sign?

A

Tapping over the parotid causes facial muscles to twitch

666
Q

What is the relationship between hypoparathyroidism and calcium levels?

A

Low calcium levels lead to symptoms of hypoparathyroidism

667
Q

What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

Target cells being insensitive to PTH

Associated with short stature and shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals.

668
Q

How do cAMP and phosphate levels change in hypoparathyroidism following PTH infusion?

A

Both cAMP and phosphate levels increase

669
Q

What happens to cAMP and phosphate levels in pseudohypoparathyroidism type I after PTH infusion?

A

Neither cAMP nor phosphate levels are increased

670
Q

In pseudohypoparathyroidism type II, how do cAMP levels respond to PTH infusion?

A

Only cAMP levels rise

671
Q

What is pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

Similar phenotype to pseudohypoparathyroidism but with normal biochemistry

672
Q

What is the effect of inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic on the brachial artery in relation to tetany?

A

Causes carpal spasm

673
Q

True or False: Primary hypoparathyroidism is classified as being secondary to surgery in most medical textbooks.

A

True

674
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder

675
Q

What are the three main types of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)?

A

MEN type I, MEN type IIa, MEN type IIb

676
Q

What are the three P’s associated with MEN type I?

A
  • Parathyroid
  • Pituitary
  • Pancreas
677
Q

What is the most common presentation of MEN type I?

A

Hypercalcaemia

678
Q

What percentage of patients with MEN type I have parathyroid hyperplasia?

A

95%

679
Q

What is a common pancreatic tumor associated with MEN type I?

A

Insulinoma, gastrinoma

680
Q

What is the primary genetic mutation associated with MEN type I?

A

MEN1 gene

681
Q

What are the two P’s associated with MEN type IIa?

A
  • Parathyroid
  • Phaeochromocytoma
682
Q

What percentage of patients with MEN type IIa have medullary thyroid cancer?

A

70%

683
Q

What is the primary genetic mutation associated with MEN type IIa?

A

RET oncogene

684
Q

What are the features of MEN type IIb?

A
  • Medullary thyroid cancer
  • Phaeochromocytoma
  • Marfanoid body habitus
  • Neuromas
685
Q

What is the percentage of patients with MEN type IIb that have medullary thyroid cancer?

A

100%

686
Q

What is the primary genetic mutation associated with MEN type IIb?

A

RET oncogene

687
Q

What is a common complication of gastrinoma in MEN type I?

A

Recurrent peptic ulceration

688
Q

Fill in the blank: MEN type I is characterized by three P’s: Parathyroid, Pituitary, and _______.

A

Pancreas

689
Q

True or False: MEN type IIa is associated with a higher incidence of parathyroid disease than MEN type IIb.

A

True

690
Q

What are the pancreatic tumors commonly associated with MEN type I?

A
  • Gastrinoma
  • Insulinoma
691
Q

What is neuroblastoma?

A

A type of cancer that arises from neural crest tissue, primarily affecting children

Neuroblastoma is one of the top five causes of cancer in children, accounting for around 7-8% of childhood malignancies.

692
Q

What is the most common site for neuroblastoma tumors?

A

Adrenal medulla

Neuroblastoma can also arise from the sympathetic nervous system.

693
Q

What is the median age of onset for neuroblastoma?

A

Around 20 months

694
Q

List some common features of neuroblastoma.

A
  • Abdominal mass
  • Pallor
  • Weight loss
  • Bone pain
  • Limp
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Paraplegia
  • Proptosis
695
Q

What investigations are used for diagnosing neuroblastoma?

A
  • Biopsy
  • Raised urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
  • Raised homovanillic acid (HVA)
  • Calcification on abdominal x-ray
696
Q

True or False: Neuroblastoma is a common malignancy in adults.

A

False

697
Q

Fill in the blank: Neuroblastoma accounts for around _______ of childhood malignancies.

A

7-8%

698
Q

What is the formula for calculating BMI?

A

BMI = weight (kg) / height (m) squared

699
Q

What BMI range is classified as underweight?

A

< 18.49

700
Q

What BMI range is classified as normal weight?

A

18.5 - 25

701
Q

What BMI range is classified as overweight?

A

25 - 30

702
Q

What BMI range is classified as Obese class 1?

A

30 - 35

703
Q

What BMI range is classified as Obese class 2?

A

35 - 40

704
Q

What BMI range is classified as Obese class 3?

A

> 40

705
Q

What is the first step in the management of obesity?

A

Conservative: diet, exercise

706
Q

What is a medical management option for obesity?

A

Orlistat

707
Q

What is Orlistat’s mechanism of action?

A

Pancreatic lipase inhibitor

708
Q

What are some adverse effects of Orlistat?

A
  • Faecal urgency/incontinence
  • Flatulence
709
Q

What is the lower dose version of Orlistat available without prescription?

A

‘Alli’

710
Q

According to NICE, when should Orlistat be prescribed?

A
  • BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors
  • BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more
  • Continued weight loss e.g. 5% at 3 months
711
Q

How long is Orlistat normally used for?

A

< 1 year

712
Q

What type of drug is Liraglutide?

A

A glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) mimetic

713
Q

What is the administration route for Liraglutide?

A

Once daily subcutaneous injection

714
Q

What condition is Liraglutide primarily used to manage?

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)

715
Q

What effect did Liraglutide have when used for managing T2DM?

A

Caused weight loss in a significant proportion

716
Q

What is the current NICE criteria for Liraglutide use in obesity?

A

Person has a BMI of at least 35 kg/m^2

717
Q

What hormone is produced by adipose tissue and plays a key role in the regulation of body weight?

A

Leptin

Leptin acts on satiety centres in the hypothalamus and decreases appetite.

718
Q

What effect does increased adipose tissue have on leptin levels?

A

Increases leptin levels

More adipose tissue, as seen in obesity, results in higher levels of leptin.

719
Q

What hormones are stimulated by leptin?

A

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH)

Leptin stimulates their release to help regulate appetite.

720
Q

What hormone is released when leptin levels are low?

A

Neuropeptide Y (NPY)

Low levels of leptin trigger the release of NPY, which stimulates appetite.

721
Q

What is the primary function of ghrelin?

A

Stimulates hunger

Ghrelin is known as the hunger hormone.

722
Q

Where is ghrelin primarily produced?

A

P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas

These locations are crucial for ghrelin secretion.

723
Q

How do ghrelin levels change in relation to meal times?

A

Increase before meals and decrease after meals

This pattern helps regulate hunger and satiety.

724
Q

True or False: Leptin induces hunger.

A

False

Leptin induces satiety, while ghrelin stimulates hunger.

725
Q

What hormone is produced by adipose tissue and plays a key role in the regulation of body weight?

A

Leptin

Leptin acts on satiety centres in the hypothalamus and decreases appetite.

726
Q

What effect does increased adipose tissue have on leptin levels?

A

Increases leptin levels

More adipose tissue, as seen in obesity, results in higher levels of leptin.

727
Q

What hormones are stimulated by leptin?

A

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH)

Leptin stimulates their release to help regulate appetite.

728
Q

What hormone is released when leptin levels are low?

A

Neuropeptide Y (NPY)

Low levels of leptin trigger the release of NPY, which stimulates appetite.

729
Q

What is the primary function of ghrelin?

A

Stimulates hunger

Ghrelin is known as the hunger hormone.

730
Q

Where is ghrelin primarily produced?

A

P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas

These locations are crucial for ghrelin secretion.

731
Q

How do ghrelin levels change in relation to meal times?

A

Increase before meals and decrease after meals

This pattern helps regulate hunger and satiety.

732
Q

True or False: Leptin induces hunger.

A

False

Leptin induces satiety, while ghrelin stimulates hunger.

733
Q

What is phaeochromocytoma?

A

A rare catecholamine secreting tumour

734
Q

What percentage of phaeochromocytomas are familial?

A

About 10%

735
Q

Which syndromes may be associated with phaeochromocytoma?

A
  • MEN type II
  • Neurofibromatosis
  • Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
736
Q

What percentage of phaeochromocytomas are bilateral?

A

10%

737
Q

What percentage of phaeochromocytomas are malignant?

A

10%

738
Q

What is the most common site for extra-adrenal phaeochromocytomas?

A

Organ of Zuckerkandl, adjacent to the bifurcation of the aorta

739
Q

What are typical features of phaeochromocytoma?

A
  • Hypertension (around 90% of cases, may be sustained)
  • Headaches
  • Palpitations
  • Sweating
  • Anxiety
740
Q

What test has a sensitivity of 97% for diagnosing phaeochromocytoma?

A

24 hr urinary collection of metanephrines

741
Q

What test has been replaced by the 24 hr urinary collection of metanephrines?

A

24 hr urinary collection of catecholamines

742
Q

What is the definitive management for phaeochromocytoma?

A

Surgery

743
Q

What medical management should stabilize a patient before surgery?

A
  • Alpha-blocker (e.g. phenoxybenzamine)
  • Beta-blocker (e.g. propranolol)
744
Q

True or False: Hypertension is present in around 90% of phaeochromocytoma cases.

A

True

745
Q

What is phaeochromocytoma?

A

A rare catecholamine secreting tumour

746
Q

What percentage of phaeochromocytomas are familial?

A

About 10%

747
Q

Which syndromes may be associated with phaeochromocytoma?

A
  • MEN type II
  • Neurofibromatosis
  • Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
748
Q

What percentage of phaeochromocytomas are bilateral?

A

10%

749
Q

What percentage of phaeochromocytomas are malignant?

A

10%

750
Q

What is the most common site for extra-adrenal phaeochromocytomas?

A

Organ of Zuckerkandl, adjacent to the bifurcation of the aorta

751
Q

What are typical features of phaeochromocytoma?

A
  • Hypertension (around 90% of cases, may be sustained)
  • Headaches
  • Palpitations
  • Sweating
  • Anxiety
752
Q

What test has a sensitivity of 97% for diagnosing phaeochromocytoma?

A

24 hr urinary collection of metanephrines

753
Q

What test has been replaced by the 24 hr urinary collection of metanephrines?

A

24 hr urinary collection of catecholamines

754
Q

What is the definitive management for phaeochromocytoma?

A

Surgery

755
Q

What medical management should stabilize a patient before surgery?

A
  • Alpha-blocker (e.g. phenoxybenzamine)
  • Beta-blocker (e.g. propranolol)
756
Q

True or False: Hypertension is present in around 90% of phaeochromocytoma cases.

A

True

757
Q

What is Diabetes Insipidus (DI)?

A

A condition characterised by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or insensitivity to ADH

758
Q

What are the two types of Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Cranial DI and Nephrogenic DI

759
Q

What are common causes of cranial Diabetes Insipidus?

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Post head injury
  • Pituitary surgery
  • Craniopharyngiomas
  • Infiltrative diseases (e.g., histiocytosis X, sarcoidosis)
  • DIDMOAD syndrome
  • Haemochromatosis
760
Q

What genetic factors can cause nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus?

A
  • Vasopressin receptor mutation
  • Mutation in aquaporin 2 channel
761
Q

What are the main features of Diabetes Insipidus?

A
  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
762
Q

What laboratory findings are typical in Diabetes Insipidus?

A

High plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality

763
Q

What urine osmolality value excludes diabetes insipidus?

A

A urine osmolality of >700 mOsm/kg

764
Q

What is the water deprivation test used for?

A

To evaluate patients who have polydipsia

765
Q

What are the main management strategies for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A
  • Thiazides
  • Low salt/protein diet
766
Q

What is the primary treatment for central diabetes insipidus?

A

Desmopressin

767
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A

A complication of diabetes characterized by uncontrolled lipolysis leading to ketone body formation

768
Q

What are common precipitating factors for DKA?

A
  • Infection
  • Missed insulin doses
  • Myocardial infarction
769
Q

What are the key diagnostic criteria for DKA according to the American Diabetes Association?

A
  • Glucose > 13.8 mmol/l
  • pH < 7.30
  • Serum bicarbonate < 18 mmol/l
  • Anion gap > 10
  • Ketonaemia
770
Q

What are the main principles of DKA management?

A
  • Fluid replacement
  • Insulin therapy
  • Correction of electrolyte disturbances
771
Q

What is the typical fluid replacement protocol in DKA?

A

0.9% sodium chloride solution given in progressively decreasing volumes over several hours

772
Q

What defines resolution of DKA?

A
  • pH > 7.3
  • Blood ketones < 0.6 mmol/L
  • Bicarbonate > 15.0 mmol/L
773
Q

What are common complications of DKA?

A
  • Gastric stasis
  • Thromboembolism
  • Arrhythmias
  • Cerebral oedema
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome
  • Acute kidney injury
774
Q

What is Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State (HHS)?

A

A medical emergency characterized by severe hyperglycaemia and dehydration, typically in elderly patients with type 2 diabetes

775
Q

What are the pathophysiological changes in HHS?

A

Hyperglycaemia leads to increased serum osmolality and osmotic diuresis resulting in severe volume depletion

776
Q

What are the typical clinical features of HHS?

A
  • Clinical signs of dehydration
  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
  • Lethargy
  • Altered level of consciousness
777
Q

What laboratory findings are indicative of HHS?

A
  • Marked hyperglycaemia (>30 mmol/L)
  • Significantly raised serum osmolarity (> 320 mosmol/kg)
  • No significant hyperketonaemia (<3 mmol/L)
  • No significant acidosis (bicarbonate > 15 mmol/l or pH > 7.3)
778
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia in outpatients?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

779
Q

What are the causes of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • Solitary adenoma (85%)
  • Hyperplasia (10%)
  • Multiple adenoma (4%)
  • Carcinoma (1%)
780
Q

What mnemonic can help remember the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

‘Bones, stones, abdominal groans and psychic moans’

781
Q

What are the key investigations for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • Raised calcium
  • Low phosphate
  • PTH may be raised or normal
  • Technetium-MIBI subtraction scan
  • X-ray findings (e.g., pepperpot skull)
782
Q

What is the definitive treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Total parathyroidectomy

783
Q

What is the water deprivation test result for normal individuals?

A

Starting plasma osmolality normal, final urine osmolality normal

784
Q

What are some features of chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Oedema
  • Polyuria
  • Lethargy
  • Pruritus
  • Anorexia
  • Insomnia
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Hypertension
785
Q

What is the typical sensory loss distribution in diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

A

‘Glove and stocking’ distribution

786
Q

What is the first-line treatment for diabetic neuropathy?

A
  • Amitriptyline
  • Duloxetine
  • Gabapentin
  • Pregabalin
787
Q

What are the symptoms of gastroparesis in diabetic autonomic neuropathy?

A
  • Erratic blood glucose control
  • Bloating
  • Vomiting
788
Q

What is a common gastrointestinal issue associated with diabetic autonomic neuropathy?

A

Chronic diarrhoea

789
Q

What does the term ‘gastroparesis’ refer to?

A

Delayed gastric emptying