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UKMLA Prep > GI Presentation And Condtions > Flashcards

GI Presentation And Condtions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones

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2
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms in acute pancreatitis?

A

Severe abdominal pain, elevated serum amylase/lipase, nausea/vomiting

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3
Q

What is the treatment for acute pancreatitis?

A

NPO, IV fluids, pain management, possible ERCP

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Alcohol abuse

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5
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Chronic abdominal pain, malabsorption, diabetes

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6
Q

What imaging modality is used to diagnose gallstones?

A

Abdominal ultrasound

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7
Q

What is the treatment for gallstones?

A

Cholecystectomy

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding?

A

Peptic ulcer disease

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of lower GI bleeding?

A

Diverticulosis

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10
Q

What is the treatment for peptic ulcer disease?

A

PPIs, H2 blockers, antibiotics for H. pylori

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11
Q

What is the most common cause of esophagitis?

A

GERD

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12
Q

What is the treatment for GERD?

A

PPIs, lifestyle modifications

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of lower GI obstruction?

A

Colorectal cancer

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14
Q

What is the treatment for colorectal cancer?

A

Surgery, chemotherapy, radiation

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Embolism

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16
Q

What is the treatment for acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Surgical revascularization

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic mesenteric ischemia?

A

Atherosclerosis

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18
Q

What is the treatment for chronic mesenteric ischemia?

A

Angioplasty, stenting, surgical revascularization

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children?

A

Intussusception

20
Q

What is the treatment for intussusception?

A

Air contrast enema, surgery if necessary

21
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy?

A

A condition that may occur in liver disease, associated with excess absorption of ammonia and glutamine from protein breakdown in the gut

The exact aetiology is not fully understood.

22
Q

In which liver conditions can hepatic encephalopathy be observed?

A

Acute liver failure and chronic liver disease

It is recognized that liver cirrhosis can lead to subtle symptoms before overt signs appear.

23
Q

What is ‘minimal’ or ‘covert’ hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Subtle symptoms such as mild cognitive impairment in patients with liver cirrhosis

These symptoms become more recognizable as the condition progresses.

24
Q

What is a potential precipitating factor for hepatic encephalopathy related to medical procedures?

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting (TIPSS)

TIPSS may precipitate or worsen encephalopathy.

25
List some clinical features of hepatic encephalopathy.
* Confusion * Altered GCS * Asterixis * Constructional apraxia * Triphasic slow waves on EEG * Raised ammonia level ## Footnote Asterixis is also known as 'liver flap' and is characterized by arrhythmic negative myoclonus.
26
What is the grading system for hepatic encephalopathy?
* Grade I: Irritability * Grade II: Confusion, inappropriate behaviour * Grade III: Incoherent, restless * Grade IV: Coma ## Footnote Each grade reflects the increasing severity of symptoms.
27
What are some common precipitating factors for hepatic encephalopathy?
* Infection (e.g., spontaneous bacterial peritonitis) * GI bleed * Post TIPSS * Constipation * Drugs (e.g., sedatives, diuretics) * Hypokalaemia * Renal failure * Increased dietary protein ## Footnote Increased dietary protein is considered uncommon as a precipitating factor.
28
What is the first-line treatment recommended by NICE for hepatic encephalopathy?
Lactulose ## Footnote Rifaximin may be added for secondary prophylaxis.
29
How does lactulose help in managing hepatic encephalopathy?
It promotes the excretion of ammonia and increases its metabolism by gut bacteria ## Footnote This mechanism helps reduce ammonia levels in the body.
30
What is the role of rifaximin in the management of hepatic encephalopathy?
It modulates gut flora, resulting in decreased ammonia production ## Footnote Rifaximin is used for secondary prophylaxis.
31
What are other treatment options for hepatic encephalopathy beyond lactulose and rifaximin?
* Embolisation of portosystemic shunts * Liver transplantation in selected patients ## Footnote These options may be considered based on individual patient circumstances.
32
What is disulfiram also known as?
Antabuse ## Footnote Disulfiram is used in the treatment of alcohol dependence.
33
What does disulfiram inhibit?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase ## Footnote This inhibition leads to the buildup of acetaldehyde.
34
What are the symptoms caused by the buildup of acetaldehyde after alcohol consumption while on disulfiram?
Facial flushing, nausea, vomiting ## Footnote The reaction can be life-threatening.
35
For how long do the effects of disulfiram last?
Seven days ## Footnote Disulfiram is taken once daily.
36
What is acamprosate also known as?
Campral ## Footnote Acamprosate is used in preventing alcohol relapse.
37
How many times a day is acamprosate taken?
Three times a day ## Footnote It is effective when combined with psychological support.
38
What type of medication is acamprosate described as?
'Anti-craving' medication ## Footnote Its underlying mechanism of action remains unclear.
39
What is buprenorphine classified as?
Mixed opioid agonist/antagonist ## Footnote It is an alternative to methadone.
40
What form is buprenorphine typically given in?
Sublingual tablet ## Footnote Patients often report it as less sedating.
41
What is chlordiazepoxide used for?
Alcohol detoxification ## Footnote It is a benzodiazepine used during reducing regimes.
42
What is diazepam typically used as?
Anxiolytic ## Footnote It is also used in alcohol detoxification.
43
What is dihydrocodeine primarily used for?
Analgesia ## Footnote It is not typically used to treat addiction.
44
What condition is gabapentin used to treat?
Neuropathic pain ## Footnote Gabapentin is not typically used to treat addiction.
45
What type of receptor agonist is methadone?
Opioid mu receptor agonist ## Footnote It is the most common drug for opiate replacement therapy.
46
What is naltrexone used for?
Relapse prevention in opioid-dependent patients ## Footnote Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist.
47
What type of receptor antagonist is ondansetron?
5-HT3 receptor antagonist ## Footnote It is used as an anti-emetic during detoxification.

UKMLA Prep (48 decks)

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