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UKMLA Prep > Embryology > Flashcards

Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

What is derived from the 1st aortic arch?

A

Maxillary artery

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2
Q

What are the derivatives of the 2nd aortic arch?

A

Stapedial and hyoid artery

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3
Q

What does the 3rd aortic arch develop into?

A

Common carotid artery, proximal part of internal carotid artery

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4
Q

What are the derivatives of the 4th aortic arch?

A

Right: proximal part of the right subclavian
Left: aortic arch

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5
Q

What happens to the 5th aortic arch?

A

Disappears on both sides

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6
Q

What is derived from the 6th aortic arch?

A

Right: Proximal part of right pulmonary artery

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7
Q

What does the 1st pharyngeal pouch develop into?

A

Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity and mastoid antrum

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8
Q

What are the derivatives of the 2nd pharyngeal pouch?

A

Palatine tonsils

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9
Q

What develops from the dorsal wings of the 3rd pharyngeal pouch?

A

Inferior parathyroid glands

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10
Q

What develops from the ventral wings of the 3rd pharyngeal pouch?

A

Thymus

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11
Q

What do the 4th pharyngeal pouch derivatives become?

A

Superior parathyroid glands

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12
Q

What are the three germ layers in embryology?

A

Ectoderm, Mesoderm, Endoderm

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13
Q

What structures are derived from surface ectoderm?

A
  • anterior pituitary (Rathke pouch)
  • epidermis
  • lens of eye
  • mammary glands
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14
Q

What is derived from the neural tube? (7)

A
  • CNS neurons
  • astrocytes
  • oligodendrocytes
  • ependymal cells
  • posterior pituitary
  • retina
  • spinal cord
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15
Q

What structures are formed from the neural crest?

A
  • aorticopulmonary septum
  • autonomic nerves
  • cranial nerves
  • enterochromaffin cells
  • facial and skull bones
  • melanocytes
  • odontoblasts
  • parafollicular cells of the thyroid
  • Schwann cells
  • adrenal cortex
  • bones (except facial and skull)
  • connective tissue
  • muscle
  • myocardium
  • kidneys
  • ureters
  • gonads
  • serous lining of body cavities
  • spleen
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16
Q

What does the nucleus pulposus (notochord) contribute to? (6)

A
  • epithelial lining of the GI tract
  • liver
  • pancreas
  • thyroid
  • parathyroid
  • thymus
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17
Q

What is intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)?

A

Haemorrhage that occurs into the ventricular system of the brain

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18
Q

What is a common cause of IVH in premature neonates?

A

Birth trauma combined with cellular hypoxia

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19
Q

What is the primary treatment for intraventricular hemorrhage?

A

Supportive therapies

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20
Q

True or False: Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always pathological.

A

True

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21
Q

List the causes of jaundice in the first 24 hours.

A
  • rhesus haemolytic disease
  • ABO haemolytic disease
  • hereditary spherocytosis
  • glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency
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22
Q

What causes physiological jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days?

A

Combination of more red blood cells, more fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function

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23
Q

What is indicated if jaundice persists after 14 days?

A

Prolonged jaundice screen

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24
Q

What tests are included in a prolonged jaundice screen?

A
  • conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
  • direct antiglobulin test (Coombs’ test)
  • TFTs
  • FBC and blood film
  • urine for MC&S and reducing sugars
  • U&Es and LFTs
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25
Q

What are common causes of prolonged jaundice?

A
  • biliary atresia
  • hypothyroidism
  • galactosaemia
  • urinary tract infection
  • breast milk jaundice
  • prematurity
  • congenital infections (e.g., CMV, toxoplasmosis)
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26
Q

What is necrotising enterocolitis?

A

A leading cause of death among premature infants characterized by feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools

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27
Q

What does abdominal x-ray show in necrotising enterocolitis?

A
  • dilated bowel loops
  • bowel wall oedema
  • pneumatosis intestinalis
  • portal venous gas
  • pneumoperitoneum
  • air outlining the falciform ligament (football sign)
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28
Q

What is neonatal sepsis?

A

A serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood affecting babies within the first 28 days of life

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29
Q

What are the two categories of neonatal sepsis?

A
  • early-onset sepsis (EOS)
  • late-onset sepsis (LOS)
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30
Q

What is the incidence of neonatal sepsis?

A

1-5 per 1000 live births

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31
Q

What are the most common causes of neonatal sepsis?

A
  • group B streptococcus (GBS)
  • Escherichia coli
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32
Q

What are some risk factors for neonatal sepsis?

A
  • Previous GBS infection
  • Current GBS colonization
  • Premature birth
  • Low birth weight
  • Maternal chorioamnionitis
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33
Q

What are common clinical presentations of neonatal sepsis?

A
  • Respiratory distress
  • Grunting
  • Tachypnoea
  • Lethargy
  • Jaundice
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34
Q

What laboratory test is usually used to diagnose neonatal sepsis?

A

Blood culture

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35
Q

What is the first-line treatment for suspected neonatal sepsis?

A

Intravenous benzylpenicillin with gentamicin

36
Q

What is the embryological origin of the pancreas?

A

Foregut

37
Q

What does the ventral pancreatic bud develop into?

A
  • uncinate process
  • main pancreatic duct
  • pancreatic head
38
Q

What does the dorsal pancreatic bud develop into?

A
  • body
  • tail
  • accessory pancreatic duct
  • pancreatic head
39
Q

What is annular pancreas?

A

Abnormal development resulting in the duodenum being surrounded by a ring of pancreatic tissue

40
Q

What is pancreatic divisum?

A

Ventral and dorsal pancreatic ducts fail to fuse together

41
Q

What is surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD)?

A

A condition in premature infants caused by insufficient surfactant production

42
Q

What is the characteristic chest x-ray finding in SDLD?

A

‘Ground-glass’ appearance with an indistinct heart border

43
Q

What is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in the newborn period?

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)

44
Q

What is the management for transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

Observation and supportive care

45
Q

What are the stages of kidney development in embryology?

A
  • Pronephros
  • Mesonephros
  • Metanephros
46
Q

What does the ureteric bud develop into?

A
  • ureter
  • renal pelvis
  • collecting ducts
  • calyces
47
Q

What does the metanephrogenic blastema develop into?

A

Glomerulus and renal tubules up to and including the distal convoluted tubule

48
Q

What does the mesonephric duct develop into in males?

A
  • Sertoli cells
  • Seminal vesicles
  • Epididymis
  • Ejaculatory duct
  • Ductus deferens
49
Q

What does the paramesonephric duct develop into in females?

A
  • fallopian tube
  • uterus
  • upper third of the vagina
50
Q

What are the derivatives of the genital tubercle in males?

A

Glans penis

51
Q

What do the labioscrotal swellings develop into in females?

A

Labia majora

52
Q

What is derived from the truncus arteriosus?

A

Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches.

53
Q

What cardiac structures are derived from the bulbis cordis?

A

Right ventricle and smooth parts of left ventricle

54
Q

What do the primitive atria develop into?

A

Trabeculated parts of the left and right atria

55
Q

What is the major derivative of the primitive ventricle?

A

Majority of left ventricle

56
Q

What does the left horn of the sinus venosus become?

A

Coronary sinus

57
Q

What does the right horn of the sinus venosus develop into?

A

Smooth part of the right atrium

58
Q

The right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein form which structure?

A

Superior vena cava

59
Q

What is the embryonic origin of the fossa ovalis?

A

Foramen ovale

60
Q

What do the umbilical arteries become after birth?

A

Medial umbilical ligaments

61
Q

What is the derivative of the umbilical vein?

A

Ligamentum teres hepatis (inside falciform ligament)

62
Q

What does the ductus arteriosus develop into?

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

63
Q

What is formed from the ductus venosus?

A

Ligamentum venosum

64
Q

What does the allantois become?

A

Urachus

65
Q

What embryological layer corresponds to the mouth to the proximal half of duodenum?

A

Foregut

66
Q

What is the blood supply for the midgut?

A

Superior mesenteric artery

67
Q

The hindgut extends from the descending colon to what structure?

A

Rectum

68
Q

What structures are derived from the telencephalon?

A

Cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, basal ganglia

69
Q

What does the diencephalon develop into?

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, third ventricle

70
Q

What structures are formed from the mesencephalon?

A

Midbrain, cerebral aqueduct

71
Q

What is derived from the metencephalon?

A

Pons, cerebellum, superior part of fourth ventricle

72
Q

What does the myelencephalon develop into?

A

Medulla, inferior part of fourth ventricle

73
Q

What do the alar plates give rise to?

A

Sensory neurons

74
Q

What structures are derived from the basal plates?

A

Motor neurons

75
Q

True or False: Absence of the vas deferens may be unilateral or bilateral.

A

True

76
Q

What gene mutations are responsible for 40% of cystic fibrosis cases?

A

CFTR gene mutations

77
Q

What condition may cause non-CF cases of vas absence?

A

Unilateral renal agenesis

78
Q

What is a possible solution for assisted conception in cases of vas absence?

A

Sperm harvesting

79
Q

Where are the testicles located until the end of fetal life?

A

Abdominal cavity

80
Q

What structure is attached to the inferior aspect of the testis?

A

Gubernaculum testis

81
Q

As the fetus grows, what happens to the gubernaculum?

A

Becomes progressively shorter

82
Q

By the third month of fetal life, where are the testes located?

A

Iliac fossae

83
Q

By the seventh month of fetal life, where do the testes lie?

A

Level of the deep inguinal ring

84
Q

What may happen if the processus vaginalis does not close after birth?

A

Indirect hernias

85
Q

What may result from part closure of the processus vaginalis?

A

Development of cysts on the cord

UKMLA Prep (41 decks)

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