Hematological Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

what is the pathophysiology of iron deficiency anemia?

A

1) low iron
2) decreased Hgb production
3) decreased oxygen delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the risk factors for iron deficiency anemia?

A

inadequate intake
excessive cows milk
premature birth
malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does cow’s milk affect iron absorption?

A

high calcium inhibits iron absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia?

A

pallor
fatigue
tachycardia
pica
spoon shaped nails (koilonychia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the management interventions for iron deficiency anemia?

A

iron-rich diet
iron supplements (ferrous sulphate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are some iron-rich foods?

A

red meat
leafy greens
beans
fortified cereal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are some considerations for iron supplementation?

A

give between meals
give with vitamin C (orange juice) for better absorption
not with cow’s milk or calcium
increase fibre and fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are some side effects of iron supplements?

A

black stool
constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the pathophysiology of SCD?

A

autosomal recessive disorder
1) RBCs become sickled
2) vasooclusion
3) ischemia
4) organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are some risk factors for SCD?

A

cold exposure
stress
hypoxia
dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are some complications of SCD?

A

vasooclusive crisis
- ischemia = severe pain
acute chest syndrome
- chest pain
- hypoxia
- fever
- resp distress
splenic sequestration crisis
stroke
hyperhemolysis
- rapid destruction of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is splenic sequestration? what can it lead to?

A

sickled RBCs get trapped in spleen
hypovolemic shock
reduced spell function = risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the management interventions for SCD?

A

hydration
oxygen
pain relief
hydroxyurea
antibiotics
blood transfusion
vaccinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is hydroxyurea?

A

increases hemoglobin in RBCs
makes RBCs larger, round and more flexible
less likely to become sickle shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why should aspirin and NSAIDs be avoided in SCD?

A

risk of kidney damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

why should cold packs be avoided in SCD?

A

vasoconstriction worsens sickling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the pathophysiology of leukaemia?

A

overproduction of immature WBCs

leads to bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of leukaemia?

A

anemia
thrombocytopenia
neutropenia
fever
fatigue
dark purple rash
bone pain
hepatosplenomegaly
swollen lymph nodes
bleeding/swollen gums
poor wound healing
abdominal fullness
unexplained bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is leukaemia diagnosed?

A

bone marrow aspiration/biopsy
peripheral blood smear
lumbar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the management interventions for leukaemia?

A

chemotherapy
cranial irradiation (rare)
blood transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is tumor lysis syndrome?

A

cancer cells break down
release substances into blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the signs of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

hyperkalemia
hyperuricemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the pathophysiology of febrile neutropenia?

A

neutropenia < 0.5 + fever > 38.3 degrees C
high risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the causes of febrile neutropenia?

A

chemotherapy
leukemia
BM disorders
infection
- bacterial
- viral
-fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of febrile neutropenia?

A

fever (earliest)
malaise
chills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the management interventions for febrile neutropenia?

A

immediate IV antibiotics (pip/tazo)
infection precautions
G-CSF to stimulate WBC production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the pathophysiology of lymphoma?

A

DNA mutation cause uncontrollable growth of lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the main difference between Hodgkin’s lymphoma and non-hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin’s: Reed-Sternberg cells
Non-Hodgkin’s: no Reed-Sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma is more common among what age group?

A

adolescents
young adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is more common among what age group?

A

children
teens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the lymph node involvement in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

painless, firm cervical lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the lymph node involvement in Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

diffuse lymph node involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

B symptoms
- fever
- night sweats
- weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the symptoms of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

more aggressive B symptoms
- fever
- night sweats
- weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how is Hodgkin’s lymphoma diagnosed?

A

biopsy of lymph nodes
presence of reed-sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how is Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma diagnosed?

A

biopsy
CT/MRI for staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

radiation
chemo (AVBD regimen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the treatment for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

aggressive chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are some signs of hematological and immune dysfunction?

A

high WBCs
- infection
- leukemia

low hemoglobin
- anemia

low hematocrit
- anemia

bleeding and bruising
- low platelets

frequent infections

pale

fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the most common childhood hematological disorder?

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is anemia?

A

decreased RBCs or hemoglobin
decreased oxygen carrying capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the causes of anemia?

A

manifestations of other disorders
- blood loss
- infection
- autoimmune disorders
- leukemia
- lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

why are premature infants at risk for anemia?

A

don’t get as much iron rich blood from mom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what causes micro-sized RBCs?

A

iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of anemia?

A

pallor
jaundice
swollen liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the treatments for anemia?

A

treat underlying cause
- hemorrhage = transfusion
- iron deficient = diet and supplements

IV fluids
- replace volume

oxygen
-decrease O2 demand

bed rest
- decrease oxygen demand

hand hygiene

decrease risk of falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

when should infants start breastfeeding?

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

when should premature infants start breastfeeding?

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when should cow’s milk be avoided until?

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the limit for cow’s milk per day?

A

600 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

why are adolescents at risk for iron deficiency anemia?

A

rapid growth
poor eating habits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

why are indigenous at risk for iron deficiency anemia?

A

food insecurity
poverty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the diet and supplementation requirement for iron deficiency anemia?

A

3 mg/kg body weight

54
Q

what are the causes of SCD?

A

obstruction/destruction of RBCs
vascular inflammation

55
Q

why is hydration important for SCD?

A

dehydration causes RBCs to develop sickle shape ad occlude vessels

sickle cells increase urination

56
Q

how is SCD pain managed?

A

morphine
PCA pumps

57
Q

what type of blood transfusion is used for SCD?

A

exchange

sickled RBCs removed ad replaced with normal RBCs

decreases blood viscosity

58
Q

why do we give antibiotics for SCD?

A

spleen isn’t functioning

59
Q

what kind of antibiotics dose is given for SCD?

A

low PREVENTATIVE dose to decrease risk

60
Q

what is the leading cause of death in children?

A

neoplastic disorders

61
Q

what is the most common childhood cancer?

62
Q

leukemia is more frequent in __________________

A

males > 1 year

63
Q

what is the peak age of leukaemia onset?

64
Q

leukemia has good ___________

A

survivability

65
Q

what are the 3 types of leukaemia?

A

1) acute lymphoid leukaemia (ALL)
2) acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
3) stem cell/blast cell leukaemia

66
Q

how does a peripheral blood smear test for leukaemia?

A

immature leukocytes
low blood cell counts

67
Q

how does bone marrow aspiration/biopsy test for leukaemia?

A

from iliac crest
check for blast cells

68
Q

how does lumbar puncture test for leukaemia?

A

check CNS involvement
- test CSF for blast cells

69
Q

what is important for best leukaemia prognosis?

A

start chemo right away

70
Q

what factors affect the leukaemia prognosis?

A

initial WBC count
age
cell type involved
cytogenetics (chromosomes)
immunophenotype
response to induction therapy
gender
relapse

71
Q

WBC count of _____________ improves prognosis for leukemia

72
Q

what age increases risk of worse prognosis for leukaemia?

A

< 10 years
- ALL is ok
- ANL is high risk

> 10 years
- ANL is ok
- ALL is high risk

73
Q

what is the best prognosis for leukaemia?

A

B cell ALL

74
Q

what response to induction therapy is a good sign for leukaemia prognosis?

A

want to be in remission by the end of the reduction period (1 month)

75
Q

what gender has better leukaemia prognosis?

76
Q

what would indicate dismal (poor) prognosis for leukaemia?

A

relapse after transplant

77
Q

what is acute lymphoid leukaemia (ALL)?

A

develops from immature lymphoid stem cells
B cells or T cells
more common in children
good prognosis in children

78
Q

what is acute myeloid leukaemia?

A

develops from lymphoid stem cells
more common in adults
highly variable prognosis

79
Q

what are some considerations for chemotherapy?

A

monitor for tumour lysis syndrome
prevent infection
monitor for oral mucositis

80
Q

when is radiation used for leukaemia?

A

only if CNS involvement

81
Q

what are the indications for a blood transfusion for leukaemia?

A

haemoglobin < 70 or symptomatic
platelets < 10,000

82
Q

why are blood transfusions often used to treat leukaemia?

A

chemotherapy is not selective and destroys all cell types
blood transfusion helps to replenish with normal cells

83
Q

what are the 4 phases of leukaemia therapy?

A

1) induction
2) CNS prophylaxis
3) intensification
4) maintenance

84
Q

induction phase of leukaemia therapy

A

4-6 weeks

to destroy leukaemia cells and induce remission

85
Q

CNS prophylaxis for leukaemia therapy

A

throughout all phases of treatment

leukaemia cells can hide I brain and spinal cord

intrathecal chemo or radiation (if severe)

86
Q

intensification phase of leukaemia therapy

A

4-8 months

prevent regrowth and resistant clones

higher doses of chemo

87
Q

maintenance phase of leukaemia therapy

A

2-3 years

destroy remaining undetectable leukemia cells

low dose chemo (oral with some IV)

88
Q

what are neutrophils?

A

type of white blood cell (leukocyte)

89
Q

hospitalization protocol for febrile neutropenia

A

minimum of 48 hours regardless

if no fever for 48h = discharged

after 48h, must go 24h without fever

90
Q

what is the protocol for antibiotics for febrile neutropenia?

A

put on pip/tazo immediately

if blood culture positive = 10-14 days of antibiotics

if fever continues beyond 14 days = not bacterial, probably fungal

91
Q

when is a child most at risk with leukaemia?

A

when they first start treatment

7-10 days after (very low WBCs)

“nadir phase”

92
Q

Symptoms of anemia

A

Fatigue
Pale
Dizzy
Heart murmur
Tachycardia
Pica

93
Q

Causes of anemia

A

Iron deficiency
Blood loss
Premature

94
Q

Anemia prevention

A

Delayed cord clamping
Iron fortified cereal
Supplements
Diet
Avoid breast milk

95
Q

When should iron fortified cereal be introduced?

96
Q

Macrocytic anemia

A

Large, immature RBCs
Iron, B12 and folate deficiency

97
Q

Normocytic anemia

A

Normal RBCs

Blood loss
Infection
Meds

98
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

Small RBCs

Iron deficiency
Medication

99
Q

Reticulocytes

A

Immature RBCs

100
Q

High reticulocytes

A

Hemolytic anemia

101
Q

Low reticulocytes

A

BM dysfunction

102
Q

Anemia treatment

A

Blood transfusion
Nutrition
IV fluids
O2 therapy
Bed rest

103
Q

Recommended limit for cow’s milk

A

600 mL/day

104
Q

Iron supplement dose

A

3 mg/kg per day

105
Q

Aplastic anemia

A

Decreased blood cell production in bone marrow

106
Q

Pancytopenia

A

All blood cells low

107
Q

Leukopenia

108
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Low platelets

109
Q

Hypoplastic anemia

A

Decreased EPO
Decreased RBCs
Normal WBCs and platelets

110
Q

How is aplastic anemia diagnosed?

A

CBC
Bone marrow aspirate
Biopsy

111
Q

How is aplastic anemia treated?

A

BM transplant
Immunosuppression

112
Q

Leukaemia

A

Cancer of WBCs

113
Q

Lymphoblasts

A

Immature WBCs

114
Q

How do malignant lymphoblasts affect the immune system?

A

Decrease function and production of normal cells

115
Q

How does acute leukaemia present on blood work?

A

Low WBCs
Actually more WBCs but less functional

116
Q

Why do we do a lumbar puncture for leukaemia?

A

To determine CNS involvement

117
Q

Is ALL better in younger or older?

118
Q

Is AML better in younger or older?

119
Q

When does leukaemia treatment start?

A

Right after diagnosis

120
Q

How long is a patient cytotoxic after chemo?

121
Q

What is the nadir phase?

A

Neutropenia response to chemo
Most neutropenic 7-10 days after chemo
Most at risk of infection

122
Q

Management for febrile neutropenia

A

ER immediately
Admitted
Blood and urine cultures
Start IV antibiotics (pip/tazo)
Minimum 48 hrs in hospital
Must have negative cultures and afebrile for 24 hrs

123
Q

What happens if a febrile neutropenia patient has positive cultures?

A

Keep on IV antibiotics for 10-14 days

124
Q

What is the work up for a febrile neutropenia patient who is still having fevers?

A

Cultures q24hrs

Start looking for a fungal infection

125
Q

What are the cytotoxic precautions?

A

Nitrile gloves
Double flush toilets and close lid
Cytotoxic for 7 days

126
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Malignant tumour of lymph nodes and lymph tissue

127
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Cancer of lymph tissue
Lymph nodes
Liver
Spleen
Bone marrow

Reed stenberg cells

128
Q

Non Hodgkins Lymphoma

A

Cancer of lymph tissue

No reed-stenberg cells

B or T cells

129
Q

How is lymphoma treated?

A

Chemo
Radiation (sometimes)
Bone marrow aspirate or biopsy

130
Q

What drug is often used to treat B cell Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?