Cerebral Dysfunction Flashcards

1
Q

what GCS core is considered coma?

A

< 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what vital signs would indicate increased ICP?

A

increased BP (late sign)
tachycardia (early)
bradycardia (late)
increased RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why would respirations be slow and deep?

A

sedatives

cerebral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

why would respirations be slow and shallow?

A

sedatives

opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what might cause hyperventilation?

A

metabolic acidosis

poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are some neurological warning signs when assessing the skin?

A

lacerations

ecchymosis

hematoma

needle marks

petechiae

bites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pinpoint pupils are a sign of __________

A

poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

early signs of increased ICP are __________

A

subtle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how do infants compensate for increased ICP?

A

skull expansion

widened sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are some signs of increased ICP?

A

bulging fontanelles

high pitched cry

irritable

poor feeding

headaches

vomiting

seizures

flexion/extension

decreased motor and sensory response

cheyne-stokes respirations

papilledema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a hallmark late sign of increased ICP?

A

bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the 5 main causes of cerebral trauma?

A

falls

MVAs

bicycle injuries

shaken baby syndrome

sports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are some signs of shaken baby syndrome?

A

retinal hemorrhage

flaccid

decreased pupil response

decreased LOC

lethargic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the GCS score for mild cerebral trauma?

A

13-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the GCS score for moderate cerebral trauma?

A

9-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the GCS score for severe cerebral trauma?

A

< 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why does cerebral trauma occur (pathophysiology)?

A

force of intracranial contents can’t be absorbed by skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what type of cerebral injury are infants especially vulnerable to?
why?

A

acceleration-deceleration injuries

large head size
lack musculoskeletal support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the 3 types of cerebral injuries?
which is the most common?

A

concussion*

contusion and laceration

skull fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a concussion?

A

altered neurological cognitive function
with or without los of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the symptoms of a concussion?

A

confusion

dizziness

disorientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how long is the recovery for a concussion?

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the treatment for concussion?

A

rest until asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a contusion and laceration?

A

bruising and tearing

coo-contra-coo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the incidence of contusions and lacerations in infancy is ________
why?

A

low incidence

soft skull and brain tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what might cause contusions and lacerations?

A

shaken baby syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what neurological impairments can shaken baby syndrome cause?

A

retinal hemorrhage

intracranial hemorrhage

seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

skull fractures are ________ in infants
why?

A

uncommon

flexible skull
would require significant force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the different types of skull fractures?

A

linear*

comminuted

depression

basilar

open

diastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is a linear fracture?

A

single fracture line

don’t cross sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is a depressed fracture?

A

bone breaks into fragments which put on brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is a comminuted fracture?

A

multiple linear fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what causes a comminuted fracture?

A

repeated, intense blows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a basilar fracture?

A

fracture line close to suture around brainstem

involves bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is an open fracture?

A

causes opening into skull and scalp or upper respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a risk associated with open fractures?

A

CNS infection

CSF leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are 4 complication of cerebral trauma?

A

epidural hemorrhage

subdural hemorrhage

cerebral edema

herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is an epidural hemorrhage?

A

bleeding between dura and skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

epidural hemorrhage is __________ in children
why?

A

less common

middle meningeal artery is not embedded in bone until 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is a subdural hemorrhage?

A

bleeding between dura ad arachnoid membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the causes of a subdural hemorrhage?

A

falls

birth trauma

violent shaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are some signs of a subdural hemorrhage?

A

irritable

vomiting

increased head circumference

bulging fontanelles

seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what complication is expected after head trauma?

A

cerebral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is cerebral herniation?

A

brain shifts within skull

increases ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the common intervention. for cerebral trauma?

A

cervical spine motion restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

scalp lacerations increase risk of _____________, and require assessment for possible ___________

A

risk of blood loss

possible shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

“under 8 __________”

A

intubate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the 2 types of posturing?

A

flexion

extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what does flexion posture indicate?

A

cerebral cortex dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what does extension posture indicate?

A

midbrain or brainstem lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what special tests are done after cerebral trauma?

A

CT scan

MRI

behavioural assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the prognosis for nervous system tumours?
why?

A

poor

difficult to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are the 2 types of nervous system tumours?

A

brain tumor

neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the clinical signs of a nervous system tumor?

A

same as increased ICP

can be vague

getting their history is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what tests should be done for nervous system tumours?

A

CT scan

MRI

lumbar puncture

EEG

56
Q

what are the intervention for nervous system tumours?

A

surgery

radiation

chemotherapy

57
Q

what is the most optimal treatment for nervous system tumours?

58
Q

what is the purpose of a lumbar puncture for a nervous system tumor?

A

to measure ICP and rule out meningitis

59
Q

radiotherapy is not done in children ________________

A

les than 3 years

60
Q

what is Cushing’s Triad?

A

hallmark sign of increased ICP

bradycardia
hypertension
irregular respirations

61
Q

what is meningitis?

A

inflammation of meninges and CSF

62
Q

the incidence of meningitis has decreased since ___________ was introduced?

A

Hib vaccine

63
Q

what are the 6 causes of meningitis?

which is the most common?

A

H. influenzae
S. aureus
N. meningitides
S. pneumoniae
GBS*
E. coli

64
Q

what is N. meningitidis?

A

meningococcus

65
Q

what is the only form of meningitis transmitted by droplet?

A

N. meningitidis

66
Q

what is the mot common way of acquiring meningitis?

A

vascular dissemination from elsewhere in the body

67
Q

what is the onset of meningitis clinical manifestations?

A

very sudden

68
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of meningitis?

A

fever
chills
headache
N/V
seizures
irritable
delirium
photophobia
nuchal rigidity
bulging fontanelles
poor feeding

69
Q

how is meningitis diagnosed?

A

lumbar puncture
blood culture
urine culture
gram stain
culture+sensitivity
proteins
glucose
blood cell count

70
Q

what is the purpose of a lumbar puncture?

A

to measure pressure in CSF

71
Q

how does crying affect cerebral ICP?
how is this prevented?

A

increases

sedatives
- fentanyl
- midazolam

72
Q

how does meningitis affect WBC count?

73
Q

how are glucose levels affected by meningitis?

A

bacterial: decreased
viral: normal

74
Q

how are protein levels affected by meningitis?

75
Q

what are some contraindications for a lumbar puncture?

A

recent seizure

decreased LOC

pupil changes

respiratory changes

76
Q

if increased ICP is found when assessing for meningitis, what test is recommended?
why?

A

CT scan

bulging fontanelles
papilledema

77
Q

what is the management for bacterial meningitis?

A

IV antibiotics

isolation

fluid restriction

ventilation and perfusion

hemodynamic stability

prevent shock

control seizures

control body temperature

78
Q

what is nonbacterial meningitis?

A

aseptic

caused by viruses

less severe

79
Q

what are the viral causes of nonbacterial meningitis?

which is the most common?

A

HSV

adenovirus

HIV

enterovirus*

80
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of nonbacterial meningitis?

A

similar to bacterial meningitis

headache
fever
photophobia
nuchal rigidity

81
Q

what diseases is nonbacterial meningitis often associated with?

A

mumps

measles

herpes

leukemia

82
Q

how is nonbacterial meningitis diagnosed?

A

clinically based on symptoms

83
Q

how is nonbacterial meningitis treated?

A

based on symptoms

84
Q

what is encephalitis?

A

inflammation of brain

85
Q

causes of encephalitis are mostly _____________

86
Q

what are the 2 causes of encephalitis?

A

virus invades CNS

post infectious involvement after viral disease

87
Q

how is encephalitis diagnosed?

A

based on. clinical findings

88
Q

what are some complications associated with encephalitis?

A

cerebral edema
fluid and electrolyte imbalances
status epilepticus
cardiac or resp arrest

89
Q

how is encephalitis managed?

A

supportive unless caused by HSV

nutrition
hydration
anntimicrobials

90
Q

what antimicrobials are used to treat encephalitis?

A

bacterial: vancomycin
viral: acyclovir

91
Q

what is Reye’s syndrome?

A

toxic encephalopathy with other organ involvement

92
Q

what are the causes of Reye’s syndrome?

A

viral illness
aspirin

93
Q

what viruses cause Reye’s syndrome?

A

influenza

varicella

94
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of Reye’s syndrome?

A

fever
vomiting
impaired consciousness
livery dysfunction

95
Q

how is Reye’s syndrome diagnosed?

A

liver biopsy
neurological signs

96
Q

what is the most common podiatry neurological disorder?

97
Q

what is the most common type of seizures in children?

98
Q

what are the causes of acute symptomatic seizures?

A

head trauma

meningitis

99
Q

what are the causes of remote symptomatic seizures?

A

previous brain injury
encephalitis
stroke

100
Q

what are cryptogenic seizures?

A

no clear cause

101
Q

what are idiopathic seizures?

A

genetic origin

102
Q

what are some other causes of seizures?

A

Electrolyte imbalances
Infection
Hypoglycemia
Drugs
Brain tumor
Brain bleed

103
Q

what are the 3 types of seizures?

A

focal (partial)
generalized
epileptic spasms

104
Q

what are focal (partial) seizures?

A

local onset
involve small part of brain

105
Q

what are generalized seizures?

A

tonic/clonic
involve both hemispheres
no local onset
impaired awareness
bilateral motor involvement

106
Q

what are epileptic spasms?

A

neck, true and extremities spasm

107
Q

what is epilepsy?

A

2+ unprovoked seizures more than 24 hours apart

108
Q

what is the cause of epilepsy?

109
Q

what are absence seizures?

A

brief loss of consciousness
“day dreaming”
can still walk
no change in muscle tone

110
Q

what causes febrile seizures?

A

febrile illness
not a CNS infection

111
Q

what is the age of onset for febrile seizures?

A

3 months - 6 years

112
Q

what is the duration of febrile seizures?

A

15 minutes

113
Q

what is the goal of treatment for seizures?

A

determine and treat cause

114
Q

how are seizures treated?

A

medications
diet
vagus nerve stimulation
surgery

115
Q

what medications are used to treat seizures?

A

anti epileptics
- keppra

116
Q

how should antiepileptic drugs be stopped? why?

A

slowly wean off
rip of inducing seizures

117
Q

what diet is recommended for seizures?

A

keto
- high fat
- low carb

118
Q

what is vagus nerve stimulation for seizures?

A

implantable device

if medication is ineffective

119
Q

what is status epileptics?

A

frequent seizures or seizures lastig 5-30 minutes

120
Q

how is status epileptics treated?

A

support airway and breathing
IV antiepileptics

121
Q

what IV anti epileptics are used to treat status epilepticus?

A

Lorazepam (ativan)*
Midazolam
Diazepam

122
Q

what is hydrocephalus?

A

imbalance between production and absorption of CSF

123
Q

why are the 2 type of hydrocephalus?

A
  1. communicating
  2. noncommunicating
124
Q

what is communicating hydrocephalus?

A

impaired absorption of CSF in subarachnoid space

125
Q

what is noncommunicating hydrocephalus?

A

obstructed flow of CSF

126
Q

how does hydrocephalus preset in early infancy?

A

increased head circumference

127
Q

what are the causes of hydrocephalus?

A

Developmental abnormalities
Neoplasms
Infections
Trauma

128
Q

hydrocephalus is often associated with ____________

A

myelomeningocele

129
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of hydrocephalus?

A

Head enlargement
Increased ICP symptoms

130
Q

How is hydrocephalus diagnosed?

A

Based on head circumference
Fetal ultrasound
CT
MRI

131
Q

how is hydrocephalus treated?

A

remove obstruction
OR
ventriculoperitoneal shunt

132
Q

what is a ventriculoperitoeal shunt?

A

drains CSF from ventricles to peritoneum

133
Q

what is a complication of ventriculoperitoneal shunts?

A

shunt infection

134
Q

when is there greatest risk for a shunt infection?

A

1-2 months after

135
Q

what are the signs of a shunt infection?

A

signs of increased ICP

136
Q

what are the causes of a shunt infection?

A

Septicemia
Bacterial endocarditis
Wound infection
Shunt nephritis
Meningitis

137
Q

how is a shunt infection treated?

A

remove shunt
antibiotics