Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

what is the capacity of a neonate’s stomach?

A

10-20 mL

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2
Q

the neonate stomach can tolerate very small amounts of ___________

A

colostrum

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3
Q

what is the capacity of an infant’s stomach?

A

30-300 mL

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4
Q

why doesn’t reflux hurt infants?

A

low levels of HCl in gastric acid

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5
Q

food remains in an infant’s stomach for ______________. Therefore, they eat ____________.

A

short period

eat more frequently

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6
Q

breast milk is digested __________

A

quickly

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7
Q

iron is digested _____________

A

slowly

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8
Q

how are daily fluid requirements calculated?

A

first 10 kg = 100 mL/kg
second 10 kg = +50 mL/kg
> 20 kg = +20 mL/kg

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9
Q

how are hourly fluid requirements calculated?

A

first 10 kg x 4 mL/kg
second 10 kg x +2 mL/kg
> 20 kg x +1 mL/kg

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10
Q

infants are at very high risk for ___________

A

dehydration

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11
Q

what are some signs of dehydration?

A

decreased output
tachycardia
decreased BP
increased RR
headache
thirst
decreased LOC
concentrated urine
< 6 wet diapers/day
8+ hours between voids
dry mucous membranes
sunken eyes
sunken fontanelles
decreased skin turgor
loss of appetite
high pitched cry

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12
Q

what an early sign of dehydration?

A

tachycardia

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13
Q

what is a late sign of dehydration? why is it late?

A

hypotension

good at compensating

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14
Q

what is considered low urine output?

A

< 1 mL/kg/hr

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15
Q

what is the treatment for dehydration?

A

mild = oral fluids

severe = IV bolus of NS

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16
Q

how much IV fluid (NS) should be given for severe dehydration?

A

10-20 mL/kg

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17
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of GI dysfunction?

A

growth failure
regurgitation/spitting up
nausea/vomiting
constipation
diarrhea
abnormal bowel sounds
abdominal distension
abdominal pain
GI bleeding
jaundice
dysphagia
fever
weight loss

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18
Q

what are some signs of growth failure?

A

weight < 3rd percentile

BMI < 5th percentile

growth pattern decreased from baseline

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19
Q

what are some signs of constipation?

A

bloody stool
abdominal pain

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20
Q

what might cause abnormal bowel sounds?

A

inflammation

obstruction

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21
Q

what might cause abdominal distension?

A

delayed gastric emptying
accumulation of gas/stool
inflammation
obstruction

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22
Q

what are the 3 types of GI bleeds?

A

hematemesis
hematochezia
melena

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23
Q

what is hematemesis?

A

bright red
bleeding in upper GI

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24
Q

what is hematochezia?

A

bright red
bleeding in lower GI

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25
Q

what is melena?

A

dark tarry stool
bleeding in upper GI

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26
Q

jaundice is a sign of ____________

A

liver dysfunction

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27
Q

what are some characteristics of failure thrive?

A

weight < 2nd percentile

decreased velocity of weight gain

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28
Q

what is the Z score for failure to thrive?

A

-2 = weight < 2nd percentile

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29
Q

what are some causes of failure to thrive?

A

inadequate caloric intake

poor absorption

increased metabolism

decreased utilization

increased loss

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30
Q

what are some causes of inadequate caloric intake?

A

food insecurity

poor appetite

breast milk problems

restrictive eating disorders

neglect

incorrect formula preparation

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31
Q

what conditions might cause poor absorption leading to failure to thrive?

A

crohns

celiac

intestinal obstruction

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32
Q

what conditions might cause increased metabolism leading to failure to thrive?

A

cardiac defects

hypothyroid

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33
Q

how is failure to thrive diagnosed?

A

lab tests
- CBC
- ESR
- electrolytes

urinalysis + culture

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34
Q

why do we want CBC + ESR for failure to thrive?

A

possible immune disorder
inflammatory markers

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35
Q

why do we want a urinalysis + culture for failure to thrive?

A

protein in urine
UTI

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36
Q

how is failure to thrive managed?

A

feed them!

assess how they are feeding

if they don’t gain weight –> investigate other causes

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37
Q

acute diarrhea

A

sudden increase in frequency and change in consistency of stools

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38
Q

chronic diarrhea

A

increase in frequency and water content of stools for 14+ days

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39
Q

what is the leading cause of illness in children < 5 years? why?

A

acute diarrhea

put everything in their mouths
poor hand hygiene

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40
Q

what are the consequences of gastroenteritis?

A

dehydration which can lead to shock

acid base imbalance

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41
Q

what are the causes of acute diarrhea?

A

GI infection

URT infection

UTI

antibiotics

laxatives

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42
Q

what are the viral causes of GI infections?

A

norovirus

rotavirus

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43
Q

what are the bacterial causes of GI infections?

A

salmonella
C. diff
E. coli
staphylococcus

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44
Q

what is considered acute diarrhea?

A

3+ watery stools in 24 hours

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45
Q

if left untreated, acute diarrhea should resolve in ___________, unless its ________________

A

14 days
unless its bacterial

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46
Q

what are the 2 risks associated with diarrhea?

A

dehydration

electrolyte imbalance

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47
Q

what conditions are associated with chronic diarrhea?

A

malabsorption

IBD

immunodeficiency

lactose intolerance

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48
Q

how is diarrhea managed?

A

oral rehydration therapy

reintroduce adequate diet
- breast feeding/formula/easily digestible foods

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49
Q

how much fluid should be given oral rehydration when managing diarrhea?

A

5-10 mL q1-5 min

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50
Q

what are some easily digestible foods to be reintroduced when managing diarrhea?

A

cereal

cooked vegetables

meat

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51
Q

what are some causes of vomiting?

A

meningitis

head injuries

surgical procedures

improper feeding technique

stress

infection

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52
Q

what is a concerning amount of vomiting for a neonate?

A

12+ hours

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53
Q

what is a concerning amount of vomiting for a child < 2 years?

A

24+ hours

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54
Q

what is a concerning amount of vomiting for children?

A

48+ hours

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55
Q

what are 2 concerning signs with vomiting?

A

dehydration

green/yellow colour

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56
Q

what does green/yellow vomit indicate?

A

bile

empty stomach

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57
Q

what is the management for vomiting?

A

medications

restore fluids

proper positioning

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58
Q

what are the medications for vomiting?

A

antiemetics

metoclopramide

promethazine

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59
Q

what are the 2 antiemetics?

A

ondansetron

trimethobenzamide

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60
Q

what is the MOA of metoclopramide?

A

increases peristalsis

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61
Q

what should be used to restore fluids for vomiting?

A

glucose-electrolyte solution

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62
Q

what is the appropriate positioning for vomiting?

A

lateral recovery

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63
Q

vomiting without nausea is a sign of ______________

A

brain tumor

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64
Q

what system assessments should be done for vomiting?

A

neurological

GI

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65
Q

what are some causes of dehydration?

A

inadequate intake

vomiting

diarrhea

diabetic ketoacidosis

burns

renal disease

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66
Q

what are the 2 compensatory mechanisms for dehydration?

A

intestinal fluid enters vasculature

vasoconstriction

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67
Q

how often should vitals be assessed with dehydration?

A

q15-30 min

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68
Q

how often should newborns be voiding in their first 24 hours?

A

once

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69
Q

how often should newborns be voiding in their first 2 days?

A

twice

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70
Q

how often should newborns be voiding in their 3rd-4th days of life?

A

3-4 times

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71
Q

how often should infants be voiding in their 5th day of life?

A

6 times

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72
Q

how often should infants < 1 year be voiding?

A

q1-2 hours

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73
Q

how often should toddlers be voiding?

A

q3 hours

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74
Q

what are the 3 types of causes of constipation?

A

secondary to other disorders

idiopathic

chronic

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75
Q

what are some other disorders that cause constipation?

A

strictures

ectopic anus

Hirschsprung disease

hypothyroidism

hypercalcemia

lead poisoning

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76
Q

what medications can cause constipation?

A

antacids

diuretics

antiepileptics

antihistamines

opioids

iron supplements

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77
Q

what causes constipation in newborns?

A

imperforated anus

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78
Q

when should a newborn pass their first meconium stool?

A

within first 24-36 hours of birth

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79
Q

what should be assessed if a newborn does not pass meconium stool?

A

intestinal stenosis

Hirschsprung’s disease

hypothyroidism

meconium plugs

meconium ileus

80
Q

what is a meconium plug?

A

meconium with low water content

81
Q

what is meconium ileus?

A

obstruction of intestine due to abnormal meconium

82
Q

meconium ileus is a manifestation of _____________

A

cystic fibrosis

83
Q

what causes constipation in infants?

84
Q

constipation is more common in _____________ fed than _____________ fed. Why?

A

more common in bottle/formula fed than breast fed

breast fed have fewer and softer stools

85
Q

constipation in formula fed infants is related to __________

86
Q

what are the causes of constipation in childhood?

A

environmental
(fear of using public washrooms)

normal development
(start holding it in)

painful

toilet training

87
Q

what are the interventions for constipation?

A

fibre

fluids

stool softeners

prunes

88
Q

what are some stool softeners?

A

docusate

lactulose

PEG 3350

89
Q

what is encopresis?

A

involuntary passage of stool

stool sits in rectum and forms a hard rock

liquid stool leaks around causing incontinence

90
Q

encopresis often occurs after ______________________

A

toilet training

91
Q

encopresis is often seen in ______________

92
Q

with encopresis they don’t ______________

A

sense the need to defecate

93
Q

what are the 2 types of encopresis?

A
  1. retentive*
  2. nonretentive
94
Q

what is retentive encopresis?

A

incontinence with underlying constipation

95
Q

what is non retentive encopresis?

A

incontinence without constipation

96
Q

non-retentive encopresis is often associated with __________________

A

psychological triggers

97
Q

how is encopresis treated?

A

enema

fleets (bottom) + laxatives (top)

98
Q

what is gastroesophageal reflux?

A

transfer of gastric contents into esophagus

99
Q

when does GER resolve?

A

spontaneously within first year

100
Q

when does GER become GERD?

A

when complications develop

101
Q

what are some complications of GER that might cause GERD?

A

growth failure

bleeding

dysphagia

102
Q

GERD is less common in _______________ infants

A

breast fed infants

103
Q

GERD is common in _____________ infants

104
Q

what causes GERD?

A

lower sphincter doesn’t close

105
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of GERD?

A

spitting up

vomiting

growth failure

coughing

wheezing

choking

heartburn

abdominal pain

dysphagia

106
Q

how is GERD diagnosed?

A

anatomical abnormalities
- pyloric stenosis
- hernia
- esophageal stricture

24 hr esophageal pH monitoring

endoscopy

107
Q

what are some anatomical abnormalities associated with GERD?

A

pyloric stenosis

hernia

esophageal strictures

108
Q

what is the gold standard for GERD diagnosis?

A

24 hr intraesophageal pH monitoring

109
Q

why is an endoscopy needed for GERD diagnosis?

A

strictures

esophagitis

rule out crohn’s

110
Q

what are the interventions for GER?

A

nothing if thriving and no complications

thicken feeds

upright positioning

NG feeds (if growth failure)

avoid tobacco smoke

surgery

111
Q

what is the surgery for GER? when is it indicated?

A

nissen fundoplication

only if severe

112
Q

what are the treatments for GERD?

A

prokinetics

PPIs

nissen fundoplication

113
Q

what is Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

mechanical obstruction caused by reduced intestinal motility

congenital aganglionic megacolon

114
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease is more common in __________ with _____________

A

males with Down syndrome

115
Q

what is the leading cause of death with Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

enterocolitis

116
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease is _____________ in childhood

A

more chronic

117
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of HD in newborns?

A

failure to pass meconium

bilious vomiting

refusal to feed

abdominal distension

118
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of HD in infancy?

A

constipation

fever

vomiting

enterocolitis

growth failure

diarrhea

119
Q

how is Hirschsprung’s disease diagnosed?

A

rectal biopsy to assess for lack of ganglion cells

120
Q

____________ is required for most cases of Hirschsprung’s disease

121
Q

what is the treatment for Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

surgery
(remove ganglionic portion)

relieve obstruction
restore motility

122
Q

what is a complication associated with surgery for HD?

A

strictures

123
Q

what are the 2 GI inflammatory disorders?

A
  1. acute appendicitis
  2. IBD
124
Q

what is acute appendicitis?

A

inflammation of appendix

125
Q

what is the most common cause of emergency abdominal surgery in childhood?

A

appendicitis

126
Q

what is the common age range for appendicitis?

A

10-16 years

127
Q

what causes acute appendicitis?

A

fecalith obstructs lumen of appendix causing inflammation

128
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis?

A

preumbiilical –> RLQ abdominal pain

fever

rigid abdomen

absent/hypoactive bowel sounds

vomiting

constipation

diarrhea

tachycardia

increased WBCs

129
Q

what is the major complication of acute appendicitis?

130
Q

patients are more __________ looking with ruptured appendix

131
Q

what happens to RLQ pain with a ruptured appendix?

A

disappears

132
Q

how is acute appendicitis diagnosed?

A

CBC

urinalysis

serum hCG

CT scan

ultrasound

133
Q

why is a CBC done for acute appendicitis?

A

increased WBC

increased CRP

134
Q

why is a urinalysis done for acute appendicitis?

A

to rule out UTI

135
Q

why is serum hCG needed for acute appendicitis?

A

to rule out ectopic pregnancy

136
Q

how is acute appendicitis treated?

A

rehydration

antibiotics

surgical removal

137
Q

what are the surgical procedure types for appendicitis?

A

laparoscopic (most cases)

open appendectomy (lots of pus)

138
Q

what is a complication associated with appendix removal?

A

post-op ileus

139
Q

what are the components of post-op care for ruptured appendix?

A

IV fluids

NPO + NG tube

suctioning

K+ supplements

sham clear fluids

perc drain

IV antibiotics

140
Q

what is the discharge criteria post-appendix removal?

A

ambulating

no pain

no GI abnormalities

141
Q

when can you shower after appendix removal?

A

24-48 hours post-op

142
Q

when can you swim and bathe after appendix removal?

A

2 weeks post-op

143
Q

what is IBD?

A

chronic intestinal inflammation

144
Q

what is ulcerative colitis?

A

inflammation of rectum and colon

145
Q

what is Crohn’s disease?

A

inflammation of any part of GI

146
Q

ulcerative colitis affects ___________ layers

A

mucosal and submucosal

147
Q

Crohn’s disease affects __________ layers

A

all
(transmural)

148
Q

what are some characteristics and manifestations of ulcerative colitis?

A

rectal bleeding

diarrhea

less frequent pain

some weight loss

some joint pain

149
Q

what are some characteristics of Crohn’s disease?

A

diarrhea

abdominal pain

weight loss

anorexia

anal and perianal lesions

fistulas

strictures

150
Q

how is IBD diagnosed?

A

lab tests

examine stools

upper GI series

151
Q

what lab tests should be done for IBD?

A

CBC (anemia)

ESR ad CRP (inflammation)

152
Q

what should we look for when examining stools for IBD diagnosis?

A

blood

leukocytes

infectious organisms

153
Q

what is involved in an upper GI series for IBD?

A

endoscopy and colonoscopy with biopsies

CT and ultrasound

154
Q

what should be assessed with CT and ultrasound for IBD diagnosis?

A

abscesses

inflammation

fistulas

155
Q

what are fistulas?

A

lesions that pierce intestinal walls
form tracts between adjacent structures

156
Q

how is IBD treated?

A

drug therapy

nutrition

surgery

157
Q

what medications are involved in IBD treatment?

A

5-ASAs

corticosteroids

immunomodulators

antibiotics

biological therapies (TNF-alpha agents)

158
Q

how does 5-ASA treat IBD?

A

induces and maintains remission

159
Q

what corticosteroids are used for IBD?

A

prednisone

budesonide (IV)

160
Q

what are some adverse effects of long-term corticosteroid use?

A

growth suppression

weight gain

decreased bone density

161
Q

what is the benefit of budesonide for IBD treatment?

A

less adverse effects than prednisone

162
Q

when are immunomodulators used for IBD treatment?

A

if steroid resistant or dependent

163
Q

what are some adverse effects of immunomodulators?

A

infection

bone marrow toxicity

164
Q

what diet is recommended for IBD?

A

high protein
high calorie

165
Q

a colectomy is curative for ___________ but not _____________

A

cures UC, but not crohn’s

166
Q

what is the surgical procedure for ulcerative colitis?

167
Q

what is a cleft lip or palate?

A

facial malformation that occurs during embryonic development

168
Q

when can a cleft lip or palate be first seen?

A

week 6-8 of pregnancy

169
Q

cleft lips and palates are more common in __________

170
Q

what are the cases of a cleft lip or palate?

A

teratogens

171
Q

how is a cleft lip diagnosed?

A

ultrasound

172
Q

how is a cleft palate diagnosed?

A

gloved finger

173
Q

what is the major complication with cleft lips and palates?

A

feeding difficulties

174
Q

what are some feeding interventions for babies with a cleft lip or palate?

A

upright

Haberman special nipple

175
Q

when can a cleft lip be repaired?

176
Q

when can a cleft palate be repaired?

A

9-12 months

177
Q

what are some considerations for cleft lip or palate?

A

pain management

speech therapy

avoid suctioning

178
Q

what is a hernia?

A

protrusion of organ through abdominal wall

179
Q

what is the mot common type of hernia?

180
Q

what are the 4 types of hernias?

A

umbilical

inguinal

ompahlocele

gastroschisis

181
Q

what is an ompahlocele?

A

protrusion of organs at base of umbilical cord

covered by protective sac

182
Q

what is gastrochisis?

A

protrusion of organs to right of umbilical cord

not covered by protective sac

183
Q

what are the 2 obstructive disorders?

A

pyloric stenosis

intussusception

184
Q

what is pyloric stenosis?

A

hypertrophic obstruction of pyloric sphincter

food doesn’t empty from stomach into duodenum

185
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis?

A

non-bilious vomiting

dehydration

irritable

abdominal pain

186
Q

describe the vomiting that occurs with pyloric stenosis?

A

projectile

non-bilious

occurs immediately after feeding
(remain hungry)

187
Q

how is pyloric stenosis diagnosed?

A

ultrasound

188
Q

what is the treatment for pyloric stenosis?

A

pylomyrotomy

189
Q

what is intussusception?

A

proximal bowel segment telescopes into distal

increased pressure top blood flow causing ischemia and leakage of blood and mucous into intestine

190
Q

what is the mot common site for intussusception?

A

ileocecal valve

ileum invaginates into cecum and colon

191
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of intussusception?

A

colicky abdominal pain

vomiting

red currant jelly-like stool

sausage shaped mass in RUQ

empty LRQ

192
Q

how is intussusception diagnosed?

A

ultrasound

rectal exam

193
Q

what is the treatment for intussusception?

A

push bowel out

pneumoenema reduction

hydrostatic reduction

surgery to manually reduce invagination

194
Q

what is pneumoenema reduction?

195
Q

what is hydrostatic reduction?

A

saline enema

196
Q

what is the benefit of hydrostatic reduction vs pneumoenema reduction?

A

no radiation involved

197
Q

how do you know when the intussusception is resolved?

A

pass normal brown stool