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I&I - M1T1 > Gram Negative Bacteria > Flashcards

Gram Negative Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

What are the general characteristics of all Vibrio spp.?

A

Curved rods, facultative anaerobes, obligate halophiles, oxidase positive, flagella

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2
Q

Bordet-Gengou or Regan-Lowe media are required for growth of what G- bacteria?

A

Bordetella pertusis

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3
Q

What clinical diseases may result from N. gonorrhoeae infection?

A

Gonorrhea, pelvic inflammatory disease, purulent arthritis, pustular rash, ophthalmia neonatorum (purulent eye infection in neonates)

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4
Q

What Enterobacteriaceae genera ferment lactose?

A

Escherichia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Citrobacter

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5
Q

What are the G- cocci genera?

A

Neisseria spp.

Moraxella spp.

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6
Q

What diseases are associated with Acinetobacter baumannii?

A

Respiratory tract infections, UTIs, wound infections, septicemia, nosocomial infections

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7
Q

A patient is infected with a G- diplococci bacteria. The bacteria is catalase positive, oxidizes only glucose, and is grown on Thayer Martin media. What bacteria is infecting the patient?

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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8
Q

What G- bacteria are especially important pathogens in patients with cystic fibrosis?

A

Pseudomonas aerugionas & Burkholderia cepacia complex

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9
Q

Pertusis is associated with what G- bacteria?

A

Bordetella pertusis

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10
Q

What clinical dieases are associated with Camplyobacter?

A

Gastroenteritis (C. jejuni & C. coli only)

Guillain-Barre syndrome (nerve tingling)

Reactive arthritis (immune-mediated)

Sepsis, meningoencephalitis (C. fetus only)

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11
Q

What are the characteristics of pseudomonads?

A

Nonfermenting, obligate aerobe, oxidase positive, catalase positive, beta hemolytic

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12
Q

Chancroid (STI that produces painful ulcers and lymphadenopathy in the genital region) is associated with what G- coccobacilli?

A

H. ducreyi

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13
Q

What virulence factors are associated with V. cholera?

A

Cholera toxin, toxin co-regulated pilus, neuraminidase, cholera enterotoxin, zona occuldens toxin

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14
Q

How does Salmonella infect the body?

A

The bacteria invades M cells and entrocytes in the small intestine. They replicate and may be transported through cells and released into the blood of lymphatic circulation.

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15
Q

What are the medically relevant Neisseria spp. bacteria?

A

N. gonorrhoeae

N. meningitidis

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16
Q

K antigens define what bacterial antigens?

A

Capsular antigens

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17
Q

What G- bacilli is highly virulent and responsible for the plague?

A

Y. pestis

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18
Q

What is the common transmission route for Helicobacter pylori?

A

Fecal/oral

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19
Q

G-, bacilli, lactose non-fermenter, H2S producing, urease positive, and swarming motility are all characteristics of what bacteria?

A

Proteus mirabilis

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20
Q

Entertoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) is the leading cause of what clinical disease?

A

Travler’s diarrhea

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21
Q

Hektoen agar is a selective and differenital media used to distinguish between which two G- bacteria genera?

A

Shigella (does not produce H2S) & Salmonella (H2S producing)

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22
Q

What virulence factors are associated with V. vulnificus?

A

Capsule, cytolysins, proteases, collagenase

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23
Q

What clinical diseases are caused by N. meningitidis?

A

Meningitis & meningococcemia

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24
Q

What viruelnce factors are associtaed with E. coli?

A

Adhesins, heat-labile toxin (increases cAMP), heat-stable toxin (increases cAMP), shiga toxin

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25
Q

The flagellar antigens are associated with which antigen classification?

A

H antigens

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26
Q

What clinical diseases are associated with Shigella infection?

A

Watery diarrhea, dysentery

Localized infections only. High level of leukocytes in stool

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27
Q

Escherichae, Klebsiella, Proteus, Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia belong to what bacterial family?

A

Enterobacteriaciae

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28
Q

What G- bacteria typically result in nosocomial infections and are most common in patients on broad or longterm antibiotic use?

A

Acinetobacter baumanni & Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

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29
Q

What are the relevant Vibrio species?

A

V. cholera, V. parahaemolyticus, V. vulnificus

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30
Q

What are the G- rod genera?

A
  • Escherichiae spp.
  • Klebsiella spp.
  • Proteus spp.
  • Salmonella spp.
  • Shigella spp.
  • Yersinia spp.
  • Pseudomonas spp.
  • Burkholderia spp.
  • Acinetobacter spp.
  • Stenotrophomonas spp.
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31
Q

H. aegyptius is assiocated with what clinical diseases?

A

Purulent conjunctivitis (children)

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32
Q

Hemorrhagic colitis (bloody diarrhea) is caused by which type of E. coli?

A

Shiga-toxin producing E. coli (STEC)

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33
Q

Who is at greatest risk for Stenotropomonas maltopholia infecion?

A

Patients on longterm antibiotics

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34
Q

What are the characteristics of Acinetobacter baumannii?

A

Coccobacillus, oxidase negative

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35
Q

What are the morphological and biochemical characteristics of Moraxella catarrhalis?

A

Diplococcus, aerobe, oxidase positive, beta lactamases

(part of normal flora in nasopharnyx)

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36
Q

This sexually transmitted disease results in painless ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What bacteria causes this disease?

A

K. granulomatis

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37
Q

What are the general characteristics of all Campylobacter spp.?

A

Thin, comma-shaped rods, motile, oxidase positive, catalase positive, microaerophilic, capnophilic, LOS membrane, capsule, optimal growth slightly above body temperature

38
Q

UTIs with cystitis or pyelonephritis are associated with infection by what bacteria?

A

Proteus mirabilis

39
Q

What are the G- curved rod genera?

A

Campylobacter spp.

Helicobacter spp.

Vibrio spp.

40
Q

Thermostable direct hemolysin that induces Cl- secretion and movement of H2O out of the cell is associated with which Vibrio spp.?

A

V. parahemolyticus

41
Q

How does P. aeruginosa display antibiotic resistance?

A

Intrinsic - slow rate of antibiotic movement into cells

Acquired resistance - via conjugation or mutation

Adapative resistance - expression of resistance genes turned on in response to stimuli

42
Q

What viruelnce factors are associated with Yersinia spp.?

A

Type III secretion system

Y. pestis - capsule, plasminogen activator protein (degrades complement and fibrin), siderophores

43
Q

What agar is always used to culture N. gonorrheae and often N. meningitidis?

A

Thayer Martin - Selective chocolate agar with antibiotics

44
Q

What clinical diseases are associated with M. catarrhalis infection?

A

Sinusitis & otitis media (children)

Brronchitis & bronchopneumonia (elderly parients with chronic pulmonary disease)

45
Q

What virulence factors are associated with C. jejuni?

A

Capsule, adhesins, cytotoxic enzyme, eneterotoxin

46
Q

What are the medically relevant Haemophilus bacteria?

A

H. influenzae

H. ducreyi

H. aegypitus

47
Q

What are the medically relevant Camplyobacter spp.?

A

C. jejuni

C. coli

C. fetus

48
Q

What populations are at greatest risk for N. meningitidis infection?

A

Individuals with complement deficiencies, college students

49
Q

What are the characteristics of Haemophilus spp.?

A

Coccobacilli, faculative anaerobes, IgA proteases, capsules (only some)

50
Q

What clinical diseases are associated with H. influenzae infection?

A

Otitis media & sinusitis (children)

Bronchopneiumonia (elderly with COPD and smokers)

Meningitis & epiglottitis (rare)

51
Q

What are the medically significant Yersinia spp.?

A

Y. pestis, Y. enterocolitica, Y. pseudotuberculosis

52
Q

What agar is needed to grow Vibrio spp.?

A

Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS)

53
Q

What clinical diseases are associated with Y. enterocolitica & Y. pesudotuberculosis infection?

A

Enterocolitis (parimarily children), septicemia, arthritis, intrabdominal abscesses, hepatitis, osteomyelitis

54
Q

Rats, prairie dogs, livestock, rodents, wild animals, etc. are reservoirs for Yersinia spp. The bacteria is an example of what type of organim?

A

Zoonotic organism

55
Q

What is the most virulent type of H. influenzae?

A

H. influenzae type B

56
Q

What virulence factors are shared by the Enterbacteriaceae family?

A

LPS membrane, capsules, phase variation of antigens, adhesins, exotoxins, Type III secretion systems (delivers virulence factors into host cell), siderophores, serum resistane (inhibit complement-mediated killing), antimicrobial resistance

57
Q

What types of E. coli are most commonly seen in developing countries?

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), Eneterpathogenic E. coli (EPEC), Eneteroaggregative E. coli (EAggEC)

58
Q

Watery diarrhea is associated with infection by which Vibrio spp.?

A

V. cholera or V. parahaemolyticus

V. cholera infection may include mucus within the watery diarrhea (“rice water stool”)

59
Q

What are the three types of plagues and their associated symptoms?

A

Bubonic plague - fever, bacteremia, bubos (swelling of lymph nodes)

Septicemic plague - fever, shock, black skin

Pueumonic plague - fever, malaise, pulmonary symptoms

60
Q

What type of agar is required for Haemophilis spp. growth?

A

Chocolate agar

61
Q

What virulence factors are associated with Shigella?

A

Type III secretion system, Shiga toxin, enterotoxins, intracellular movement via actin rearrangement, low infectionous dose

62
Q

C. fetus is a uncommon and opportunistic . Who is most at risk for infection?

A

Immunocomprimised and elderly

63
Q

Gastritis, peptic or dueodenal ulcers, gastric adenocarcinoma, and MALT lymphoma are all associated with infection by what G- bacteria?

A

H. pylori

Ulcers are most common. Gastric adenocarcinoma is less common.

64
Q

What differentiates pathogenic and nonpathogenic species of Haemophilus? Where are non-pathogenic species found?

A

Nonpathogenic species are non-encapsulated and are normal flora of the upper respiratory tract

65
Q

What are the medically significant Klebsiella spp.?

A

K. pneumoniae, K. granulomatis

66
Q

What is the difference between chocolate agar and blood agar?

A

Chocolate agar contains lysed RBCs for those bacteria that lack hemolysin ability.

67
Q

What virulence factors are associated with Bordatella pertusis?

A

Adhesions for attachment to cilia, trachela cytotoxin, dermonecrotic toxin, adenylate cyclase toxin, pertussis toxin

68
Q

What are the virulence factors of C. fetus?

A

Heat-stable, capsule-like protein, inhibits complement binding and complement-mediated killing

69
Q

What are the general characteristics of Klebsiella spp.?

A

Non-motile, lactose fementing, capsule, mucoid colonies, antibiotic resistance

70
Q

What diseases are associated with K. pneumoniae infection?

A

UTI, bacteremia, pneumonia (typically in compromised hosts)

71
Q

What agar is needed for Camplybacter growth?

A

CAMPY agar

72
Q

What are the morpholocial and biochemical characteristics of Helicobacter pylori?

A

Sprial rod, motile, urease positive, catalase poisitive, oxidase positive, microaerophilic, LPS membrane

73
Q

What characteristics are associagted with Shigella spp.?

A

Non-motile, non-lactose fermenting, does not produce H2S

74
Q

What virulence factors are associated with P. aeruginosa?

A

Capsule, antibiotic resistance, adhesins, exotoxin A, pigaments, elastases, phospholipase C, exyenzymes S & T

75
Q

What are the four medically signifcant Shigella species?

A

S. sonnei

S. flexneri

S. boydii

S. dysenteriae

76
Q

What clinical diserases are associated with E. coli infection?

A

UTI, gastroenteritis, sepsis & septic shock, neonatal meningitis

77
Q

What cliincal diseases are associated with P. aeruginosa?

A

Pulmonary infections, infection of burns, hot tub folliculitis, UTIs, external otitis, eye infections after trauma, bacteremia, endocarditis

78
Q

What characteristics are shared by all genera in the Enterobacteriaceae family?

A

Glucose fermenting, oxidase negative, catalase positive, resistant to bile salts, normal intestinal flora in humans and animals

79
Q

This is a collection of closely related bacterial species grouped together that often colonize the respiratory tract of patients with cystic fibrious.

A

Burkholderia cepacia complex

80
Q

What are the virulence factors of Neisseria spp.?

A
  • Pili for attachment
  • Porins to prevent phagolysosomal fusion
  • Opacity proteins for attachment (N. gonorrhoeae only)
  • Iron acquiring proteins
  • Lipooligosaccharide (LOS) membrane
  • IgA protease
  • Beta lactamase (N. gonorrhoeae only)
  • Capsule (N. meningitidis only)
81
Q

What diseases are associated with S. Typhimurium and S. Enteritidis infection?

A

Gastroenteritis caused by food borne outbreaks

82
Q

What does the O antigen represent?

A

O side chain on LPS

83
Q

What are the G- cocobacilli genera?

A

Haemophilus spp.

Bordatella spp.

84
Q

What are the morphological and biochemical characteristics of Neisseria spp.?

A

Diplococci, aerobic non-fermenters, oxidase positive, catalase positive

N. gonorrheae - oxidizes glucose only

N. meningitidis - oxidizes flucose and maltose

85
Q

What virulence factors are associated with H. pylori?

A

Flagella, urease, adhesins, vacuolating cytotoxin (induces apoptosis), cytotoxin-associated gene (CagA)

86
Q

What are the general characteristics of Salmonella?

A

Non-lactose fermenting, motile, produces H2S

87
Q

What diseases are associated with S. Typhy and S. Paratyphi infection?

A

Enteric fever through fecal/oral transmission

88
Q

What are the characteristics of Bordatella pertusis?

A

Coccobacillus, strict aerobe, nonmoitle, capsule, human disease

89
Q

This Vibrio species commonly causes wound infections that may progress to septicemia.

A

V. vulnificus

90
Q

What are the characteristics of Yersinia spp.?

A

Lactose non-fermenting, can grow at cold temperatures, zoonotic organism

91
Q

What are the medically releveant Salmonella species?

A

S. Typi, S. Paratypi, S. Typhimurium, S. Enterititdis

I&I - M1T1 (36 decks)

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