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Captains Test > ***General Orders*** > Flashcards

***General Orders*** Flashcards

1
Q

When should uniforms be worn?

A

when working as a representative of the Department

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2
Q

How many times should 40 hour personnel wear their uniform?

A

must wear a minimum of 2 days per week

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3
Q

Who do you report lost or stolen official Uniform items to?

A

On-duty Shift Commander or appropriate Supervisor

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4
Q

When can administrative Captains wear shorts?

A

Only if they will be required to work in a hot environment for more than 50% of their work day

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5
Q

When can personnel wear PT’s?

A

When engaged in on-duty physical fitness activities or after 5pm

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6
Q

Where should bugles be placed on the collar?

A

Flared end of bugles should be placed one inch from collar point and point directly at the point of the collar

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7
Q

What patches can winter jackets have?

A

Paramedic and Special Ops only

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8
Q

What NFPA is used for uniforms?

A

NFPA 1975

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9
Q

When can shorts be worn for special events?

A
  • Not allowed interior

- Permitted on exterior from April 1- Oct 31

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10
Q

Where can tattoos be displayed while in uniform?

A

only on arms and legs

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11
Q

How many tactical premises use be done each month?

A

a minimum of one per month, per company

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12
Q

Who do you notify for lost, damaged, or stolen city property?

A

his or her immediate supervisor

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13
Q

When do you notify the Police Department of lost, damaged, or stolen city property?

A

When the City owned property exceeds the value of $50

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14
Q

When do you fill out the “Lost/Damaged” equipment form?

A

For all equipment that has been lost or damaged, regardless of value

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15
Q

Who do you obtain the value of an item from?

A

The Support Services Division Chief or Captain

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16
Q

What NFPA do annual physicals fall under?

A

NFPA 1582

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17
Q

What OSHA respirator standard pertains to wearing an SCBA?

A

29 CFR 1910:134

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18
Q

How often should physicals be done?

A

annually

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19
Q

Fit for Duty falls under what NFPA

A

NFPA 1582

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20
Q

True or False- Accommodated duty is intended to be rehabilitative?

A

True

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21
Q

If employee declines accommodated duty, who must they notify in writing?

A

Health and Safety Chief or designee

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22
Q

Who assumes responsibility of a Second medical opinion?

A

Physician of members choice

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23
Q

A medical advisory panel consists of whom?

A
  • Assistant Chief in charge of Logistics
  • Fire Department Physician
  • IAFF Local 493 Glendale Chapter President
  • Health Center Director
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24
Q

The Health Center Tier system falls under what NFPA’s?

A

1582 and 1583

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25
Q

What Tier has mandatory referral but no removal from the truck?

A

Tier 3

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26
Q

What Tier mandates removal from the field?

A

Tier 4

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27
Q

What should a members MET’s be above per NFPA 1582?

A

Minimum of 12 Mets

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28
Q

How long does a member have to get their MET’s above 12?

A

3 months

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29
Q

Members will be tested at what percentage of their heart rate?

A

85% of their max heart rate

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30
Q

If seen by an outside facility, when should you call the city nurse?

A

Next business day

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31
Q

WHen should employees report work related injuries?

A

Immediately

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32
Q

What form does the employee complete for work related injuries?

A

Employee Injury Form

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33
Q

How many visits makes a physician an employees attending physician?

A

more than one

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34
Q

When does an employee obtain a written work status?

A

every visit for treatment by a PA or Physician

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35
Q

Who does Supervisor notify if a work related injury?

A

On-duty Shift Commander immediately if transported to the emergency room for any reason

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36
Q

Who notifies the Safety Division Chief if work related injury?

A

The immediate Supervisor

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37
Q

What is an injury or illness arising out of, and in the course of COG employment?

A

Industrial Injury

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38
Q

Who will the Immediate Supervisor notify if medical treatment is required?

A

Safety Division Officer

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39
Q

When should the employee be transported to the nearest facility?

A

If injury requires immediate hospitalization

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40
Q

For HAZMAT injuries, what is the closest appropriate TOXICOLOGICAL Hospital?

A

Banner Good Samaritan

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41
Q

Non-Emergency injuries that happen before 4pm on week days, should be seen where?

A

Health Center

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42
Q

If any treatment is sought by an outside facility, who and when should the employee call?

A

A follow up phone call to the City Nurse on the next business day

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43
Q

What should be completed by the employee for injuries?

A

Employee Injury Form

44
Q

When released for Modified Duty, who should the employee report to?

A

The Operations Chief and Safety Division to report change in work status

45
Q

Can employees whose injuries that are not work related be on Modified Duty

A

yes

46
Q

Can physical therapy be performed on COG premise or equipment without prior approval?

A

No

47
Q

Can employees work Overtime while on Modified Duty?

A

No

48
Q

Is the Department obligated to offer Modified Duty to employees with Non-Industrial injuries?

A

No

49
Q

When are employees encouraged to enter their Time and Labor?

A

On daily basis

50
Q

When MUST employees have their Time and Labor submitted?

A

By noon on Friday the week of close of pay

51
Q

What form will be used for Citizen Complaints?

A

Citizen Complaint Record Form

52
Q

Who will determine if further action is needed concerning a Complaint form?

A

Personnel Chief

53
Q

How long will complaints found SUSTAINED be retained for?

A

5 years from the calendar year completed

54
Q

How long will NON-SUSTAIN Complaints be retained?

A

2 years from the calendar year completed

55
Q

What are the 5 outcomes of a Complaint Investigation?

A
  1. Unfounded
  2. Non Sustained
  3. Partially Sustained
  4. Sustained
  5. Exonerated
56
Q

What is the Fire Department Policy if a positive determination of need for emergency response cannot be made?

A

DISPATCH

57
Q

What should the call taker determine without delay?

A

Location, telephone callback, and nature of emergency to verify in CAD

58
Q

How does CAD select Units?

A

Recommends the closest, most appropriate unit based on availability, current location, and capabilities

59
Q

How many requirements can a Unit fulfill?

A

Only one primary

-More than one secondary

60
Q

On BLS responses, who will make the decision to go C2 or C3?

A

The Company Officer

61
Q

What should be dispatched on most leaks or spills of hazard materials?

A

Hazardous Materials Assignment

62
Q

What should be specified when Special Calling Units?

A

the desired quantity or unit types or capabilities of the specific units

63
Q

What is a request for the dispatch of additional units necessary to upgrade the response type?

A

Balance of Assignment

64
Q

Request for dispatch of units using predefined requirements is called what?

A

Greater Alarm

65
Q

Is consideration given to units already assigned to the incident when requesting a Greater Alarm?

A

No

66
Q

What should a 3-1 assignment be, before requesting a Greater Alarm

A

Must first be balanced to a Working First Alarm

67
Q

Which Greater Alarms receive a Generic Capabilities?

A

Third Alarms and greater

68
Q

What channel should units use to go available?

A

Tactical Channel 2

69
Q

Which patients should be considered infectious?

A

ALL patients in an emergency care setting

70
Q

After an exposure, who should the member contact?

A

Their first level Supervisor immediately

71
Q

Who should a member call after their supervisor once exposed?

A

Phoenix Alarm Room 602.262.6595

72
Q

Whose responsibility is it to initiate the documentation for exposures?

A

The employees responsibility

73
Q

What creates the greatest risk of transmitting certain diseases?

A

Contact with patients blood or bodily fluid that is visibly contaminated with blood

74
Q

What temperatures should perishable food be kept at?

A
  • Hot (Greater than 140 degree F/60 degree C)

- Cold (Less than 39 degree F/ 4 degree C)

75
Q

What universal precautions should be used for all patients?

A

Gloves

76
Q

What is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection?

A

Hand washing before and after contact with patients

77
Q

How long should hand washing take?

A

Minimum of 15 seconds

78
Q

What percentage of patients admitted to the hospital acquire an infection?

A

5-10%

79
Q

What is disinfection?

A

a process that eliminates many, or all, pathogenic micro organisms or inanimate objects with the exception of bacterial spores

80
Q

What bleach solution should be used for environmental surfaces?

A

1:10 bleach solution

1= bleach, 10 = water

81
Q

What solution should be used for large items to decontaminate?

A

1:65 bleach solution

1qt bleach - 15 gallon water

82
Q

How long should things soak for decontaminating?

A

minimum of 10 min

83
Q

When will Company Officers inspect EMS equipment?

A

On scheduled apparatus maintenance days (weeklies)

84
Q

Whose responsibly is it to clean ALS equipment?

A

the units assigned paramedics

85
Q

What should be done after washing contaminated uniforms

A

placed in a bio bag

86
Q

Where should duty boots be washed?

A

at the medical incident

87
Q

Where should liquid waste be disposed?

A

poured into sewer systems through toilets or sumps

88
Q

What must be done to body fluids before washing down sewer or storm drains?

A

Neutralize with bleach or a disinfectant solution

89
Q

How long do members have to notify alarm room for a significant HIV exposure?

A

within 15 min of exposure for possible prophylactic treatment

90
Q

How long do members have to notify employer in writing about HIV exposures?

A

10 calendar days

91
Q

When should members have their blood drawn after HIV exposure?

A

within 10 calendar days

92
Q

When should members have blood tested for HIV antibodies?

A

within 30 days after exposure

93
Q

When should employees be tested for HIV after a diagnosed positive?

A

within 18 months

94
Q

How long should employees have after HIV diagnosis to file workmans comp?

A

within 1 year of diagnosis or positive blood test

95
Q

How many shots are given for Hepatitis B?

A

3

96
Q

What are the 4 categories that define exposure levels?

A
  1. Significant
  2. Moderate
  3. Minimal
  4. Probable-none
97
Q

Who is responsible for drug box security?

A

the on duty paramedic on each unit

98
Q

An investigation of fire cause and origin shall be conducted for?

A

all fires within the City of Glendale

99
Q

Command is responsible for investigation on what fires?

A
  1. Structure fires
  2. Explosions
  3. Fire code related situations
  4. every fire incident causing serious injury or death
100
Q

Who determines when an investigator is needed?

A

Command based on info gathered or circumstances of the fire

101
Q

Who is responsible for accurate FIC and FIR to document fire cause?

A

The Company Officer

102
Q

Who is responsible for the removal of all bodies from the fire scene?

A

The Glendale Police Department

103
Q

What presents the greatest potential for damage to evidence at a fire?

A

Overhaul

104
Q

What form must be signed by the owner/occupant after a fire?

A

GFD Notification of Property Release Form

105
Q

When will GFD accept household hazardous waste from the public?

A
  1. a private citizen brings unsolicited hazardous waste to the fire station
  2. the safety hazard is of concern to the private citizen
  3. the hazardous waste was derived from the household and not from a business
  4. the materials are not recyclable
106
Q

Who is responsible for documenting the hazardous waste drop off?

A

Captain or designated crew member

107
Q

How often should performance plans be formulated?

A

annually

Captains Test (58 decks)

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