General / Misc Met stuff (Met) Flashcards

1
Q

How is cloud cover described?

A

The basic unit is the octare, which represents the number of eighths of the sky covered by cloud. 0 octares is called no cloud, 1 to 2 is called few clouds, 3 to four is scattered clouds, 5 to 7 is broken cloud, and 8 is complete cloud cover.

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2
Q

What are WAFCs, and where are they?

A

World Area Forecast Centers, the centers for coordinating meteorological aviation information across the world. Located in London, which handles the eastern hemisphere, and Washington, which handles the western hemisphere.

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3
Q

What is an RSMC, and where is the UK’s?

A

A Regional Specialised Meteorological Centre. The UK’s is in Exeter.

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4
Q

What is “spread”?

A

The current temperature minus the dew point. This means that, if the current temperature is less than the dew point, the spread will be negative. Always in Kelvin.

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5
Q

What is a density altitude?

A

It is the altitude you would be at if your current density were the same, but you were in an ICAO standard atmosphere.

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6
Q

What are the two main types of thermometer, besides mercury/alcohol capillary thermometers, and how do they work?

A

Bimetallic thermometers, which measure how far a metal bends or droops with temperature change, or resistance thermometers, which measure how the conductivity of a substance changes as its temperature varies.

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7
Q

What are the five mechanisms by which energy may be transferred from one place to another within the atmosphere?

A
Compression/expansion
Evaporation/condensation/freezing/melting
Conduction/diffusion
Convection/advection
Radiation
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8
Q

What is an atmospheric inversion? What does it cause?

A

An area of the atmosphere in which the temperature is rising with altitude instead of falling. It causes a ceiling of warm air which blocks convection, leaving anything carried by said convection at that height.

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9
Q

What it is called if a barometric instrument is giving an incorrect reading because it is located somewhere which is being disturbed by the airflow of the plane’s motion?

A

Position error.

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10
Q

What is dynamic pressure error?

A

The errors caused in barometric instruments by small, localised areas of non-typical pressure.

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11
Q

What is the name of the types of error in barometric instruments caused by mechanical tolerances, shortcomings, or calibration issues?

A

Instrument error.

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12
Q

What is the name for errors in barometric instruments caused by the pilot failing to re-adjust the instrument when going from place to place, or over a significant degree of time?

A

A pressure error.

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13
Q

What is QFF?

A

The pressure at mean sea level under current atmospheric conditions (i.e. adjusted for temperature, as opposed to QNH).

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14
Q

What is QNE?

A

The pressure setting which a given elevation would have, were the QNH 1013.25hPa.

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15
Q

Who might want to fly by QFE rather than QNH?

A

Acrobatic flights performing close-to-ground maneuvers, who need to know how much space they have left, or flights carrying skydivers, who may well want to know if they are far enough from the ground yet or not.

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16
Q

What are MSA and MVA, and what is the difference between them?

A

Minimum Safe Altitude is the lowest you can fly without breaking obstacle clearance rules. Minimum Vectoring Altitude is MSA adjusted for temperature. Charts usually have a warmest-expected MVA and coldest expected MVA alongside it in brackets.

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17
Q

What is the difference between fog and mist?

A

Both are ground-level airborne moisture which obscures visibility. Fog results in <1km visibility, mist is 1km

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18
Q

What are the possible problems caused by fog?

A

Airport reduced capacity due to higher seperation.
Pilots need to get in place earlier to establish their bad weather stuff.
The localiser can be disturbed by the near passage of other craft, and this is important because the landing must be done by auto-pilot guidance.
Airports can close altogether if they are not rated for Cat II or III operations.
Increased go-arounds and diversions.
Planes can get a bit lost taxiing.

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19
Q

What are the sensitive and critical zones, and why are they important in meteorological terms?

A

They are the areas of an aerodrome in which large objects cannot remain while ILS is in use, and cannot be while Cat II and III operations in place, respectively. They are meteorologically important because they need to be observed during times of low visibility.

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20
Q

How large is the sensitive zone?

A

16 degrees cone from the localiser, centered over the middle of the runway, with a minimum width of 135m either side of the runway’s centre line, and 135m past the end of the runway.

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21
Q

What conditions cause radiation fog?

A

Temperature drop at the end of the day causing water to leave the atmosphere. The following morning, the sun evaporates said water, but the air is not yet warm enough to contain it. Most common in winter, and only happens over continents. Requires low winds and clear sky.

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22
Q

What conditions cause advection fog?

A

Warn, moist air being blown into a patch of cool air, which then causes the moisture to condense. Usually occurs at the seaside, where the air above the land is cooler than the sea in the autumn, and warmer than the sea in the spring. Requires a breeze from warm to cold.

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23
Q

What conditions cause mixing fog?

A

One weather front moving into another of a different temperature. This causes the moisture in the cooling air to condense. Can happen basically anywhere, and most common during winter.

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24
Q

What are the typical thicknesses of radiation, advection and mixing fog?

A

100-200m, 500-1000m, and basically 1000-5000m+, respectively.

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25
Q

What are the meteorological codes for mist and fog?

A

BR is mist, FG is fog, MIFG is shallow fog, and BRFG is patches of fog.

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26
Q

How far above the ground should an anemometer be?

A

10 meters.

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27
Q

Which wind direction reports are given with respect to true north, and which are given with respect to magnetic north?

A

Tower and ATIS reports are in magnetic north, everything else uses true north.

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28
Q

How does wind appear on navigational charts?

A

Like a sort of key, in which the “handle” end points in the direction of the wind. The “teeth” of the key represent wind speed, with a triangle as 50kt, a long line as 10kt and a short line as 5kt.

29
Q

What are the three forces which act on the wind, and how do they arise?

A

The Gradient Force, which arises from pressure differences.
The Coriolis Force, which arises from the motion of the Earth.
The Friction Force, which arises from the air hitting things in its path.

30
Q

What are land and see breezes, and what causes them?

A

A sea breeze blows towards the land over the coast, and is caused by the land, and therefore the air above it, being warmed more rapidly than the sea due to water’s high specific heat capacity. The land breeze is the inverse.

31
Q

What are mountain and valley winds, and why do they arise?

A

Valley winds are caused by the sun heating air in a valley, and the air rising out. Because there is only one low-level way for denser air to enter the valley: flowing along the bottom of it, this creates a concentrated airflow. The inverse is mountain wind.

32
Q

What is Foehn, and why does it arise?

A

Foehn is a term for weather systems close to mountains. As air flows over the mountain, it is compressed, and tends to drop most of its water. When it gets over the other side, it then spreads out rapidly, and creates turbulent eddies, similar to whirlpools at the bottom of waterfalls.

33
Q

What are the potential dangers/risks caused by Foehn? How can they be avoided?

A

On the upwind side, large cumuliform clouds containing turbulent air, lots of rain and storms. On the downwind side, the turbulent eddies. These can be avoided be staying close to the mountain, in the laminar airflow region, or staying well well above where the air is falling down.

34
Q

What hazards are connected with flying through clouds?

A

Turbulence
Hail
Lightning
Icing conditions

35
Q

How do clouds form? Which sorts of clouds do they form? 2 answers.

A

Warm air rises until it reaches a height at which it cools to lower than the dew point, at which point the moisture leaves the air and forms a cloud. These are cumuliform clouds.

Some kind of slope, either physical or made of pressure gradients, pushes a body of low pressure air high into the atmosphere, where it loses its temperature and forms a cloud. These are stratiform clouds.

36
Q

What the definitions of stable and unstable systems in meteorology?

A

Stable systems are systems in which convection columns reach the temperature of the surrounding air and stop before they reach the dew point temperature, and therefore do not form clouds. For unstable systems, this is not true.

37
Q

What is the difference between clouds formed of water droplets and clouds formed of ice crystals?

A

They require condensation nuclei and freezing nuclei respectively. Clouds of water droplets an sub-freezing temperatures can be dangerous, as an aircraft could act as a freezing nucleus, thereby collecting a sheet of ice when flying through such a cloud.

38
Q

What are the possible risks of precipitation? 8 answers.

A

Affects engine performance (engines eat air, not water).
Increases friction drag by sticking to fuselage.
Increases the weight of the aircraft by sticking to it.
Can cause icing if it is cool enough.
Increases braking distance on runways.
Reduces visibility.
Blocks Pitot tubes.
Hail can dent fuselage/windscreen.

39
Q

What are the four methods by which supercooled water droplets can form in the atmosphere?

A

1: water droplets rise by convection a level where they are too cold.
2: rain falls through an inversion and gets below freezing temperatures on the way down.
3: night falls and the temperature in the cloud drops below freezing.
4: a cloud condenses already above the freezing layer.

40
Q

What is engine crystal icing, and where does it happen?

A

Engine crystal icing is where ice crystals are sucked into a jet, melted, and then freeze on the fuselage as they come out of the other side. Only really happens below -40C, where crystals are common.

41
Q

What’s the difference between where clear and rime ice occur, and the risks they pose?

A

Rime ice occurs at higher temperatures, and stratiform clouds are more likely to cause rime ice. Both ices carry the risk of changing the shape of the wing and fuselage, increasing drag, increasing weight and reducing lift. Clear ice also can freeze control surfaces in place.

42
Q

What are the three factors which dictate vulnerability to icing?

A

Liquid content in the air: the more there is to become ice on the plane, the more likely it is to happen.

Aircraft shape/type: larger frontal surface areas represent more space for ice to form. Larger wings have ice form more evenly on them, reducing lift less than on a smaller wing.

True airspeed: by flying faster, an aircraft is creating more friction with the air, warming the fuselage and making it harder for ice to form on it.

43
Q

What are the correct responses to the three different levels of icing?

A

Light icing: maintain current course and altitude, temporarily use de-icing devices.

Moderate icing: consider changing course or altitude, keep de-icing devices running where possible.

Severe icing: change course or altitude immediately, anti-icing systems are not sufficient to cope.

44
Q

How can inversions form? 3 answers.

A

Surface inversions: caused by the amount of radiation from the sun hitting a surface going down, and thereby the air close to it cooling faster than the air above that.

Warm front inversions: caused by a warm front hitting cold front and riding up the side of it to sit on top.

Subsidence inversions: caused by air being forced down, and therefore becoming pressurised, and getting warmer in the process, and therefore halting.

45
Q

Inversions pose 3 hazards to flight, which are:

A

Wind shear - wind above and below the inversion tend to be completely different to one another, and therefore passing from one side to the other can be jarring.

Icing - stratiform clouds tend to settle underneath inversions, especially in winter, and carry rime ice in a wide layer which is hard to circumnavigate.

Air density drop - the warm area of the inversion will be lower in air temperature, which negatively affects lift generation.

46
Q

How are air masses named based on their region of origin?

A

Arctic air masses are from 90 to 70 degrees.
Polar air is from 70 to 45 degrees.
Tropical air is from 45 to 15 degrees.
Equatorial air is from 15 to 0 degrees.

47
Q

What are the temperatures, winds, clouds, visibility levels and hazards associated with returning maritime polar airmasses?

A

Mild temperature, largely dry with showers, moderate wind, mostly low clouds, good visibility, not hazardous.

48
Q

What are the temperatures, winds, clouds, visibility levels and hazards associated with maritime arctic airmasses?

A

Very cold, showers of rain and snow, few clouds, excellent visibility, hazards are basically all icing-related ones.

49
Q

What are the temperatures, winds, clouds, visibility levels and hazards associated with continental polar airmasses?

A

Split into 2 sorts: via the north sea, and via the channel. North sea is cold, channel is very cold. North sea gives brief rain and snow, but no precipitation from the channel. Few clouds and excellent visibility from both, not very hazardous.

50
Q

What are the temperatures, winds, clouds, visibility levels and hazards associated with maritime polar airmasses?

A

Cold, leads to rain, snow, storms and hail. Creates cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds. Strong winds. Moderate to good visibility. Main hazards are wind and storms.

51
Q

What are the temperatures, winds, clouds, visibility levels and hazards associated with continental tropical airmasses?

A

Mild in the winter, hot in the summer. Usually no clouds, but prone to haze and mist, so visibility is low. Only real hazard is low visibility.

52
Q

What are the temperatures, winds, clouds, visibility levels and hazards associated with maritime tropical airmasses?

A

Warm in the winter, hot and humid in the summer. Leads to drizzle and fog near the coast and mountains, clear weather behind there. Mainly low clouds, with some very high stratiforms. Winds strong but regular and not turbulent. Visibility poor due to haze. Not hazardous.

53
Q

Which clouds are usually formed by warm and cold fronts?

A

Warm fronts usually form stratiform clouds, starting higher up and gradually lowering as the front advances. Cold fronts tend to form cumuliform clouds, starting low down, and receding upwards as the front passes.

54
Q

How quickly do warm fronts, passive cold fronts, and active cold fronts tend to move?

A

About 20kt for warm fronts, 30kt for passive cold fronts, and 50kt for active cold fronts.

55
Q

What are squall lines, where and how are they formed? How large are they?

A

Squall lines are rows of TCU or CB 100-500km ahead of an active cold front, formed by intense radiation acting on the warm, exposed wet ground left by a previous cold front. They can be 100-400km wide.

56
Q

How fast does air have to be travelling to be a jet stream?

A

60kt.

57
Q

What dangers are typically associated with jet streams?

A

Clear air turbulence (CAT), which is stronger on the low-pressure side of the jet stream.

58
Q

How far above the surface does the surface friction layer extend?

A

1000ft over the sea or very flat land, 2000ft over regular land, 3000ft over mountainous areas.

59
Q

What is orographically induced turbulence, and how does it appear in meteorological reports?

A

Turbulence caused by air crossing mountains, for example Foehn systems. It appears as MTW - mountain waves - in met reports.

60
Q

What are the four categories of turbulence intensity, and what do they mean?

A

Light, symbol: ^, +/-0.4G. No pilot action required.
Moderate, symbol: -^-, +/-0.5 to 1.5G. Pilots counteract with steering, ignition on, ask for reports from ATC/FIC.
Severe, symbol: -^- wearing a hat, +/- more than 1.5G. Plane partly out of control. Avoid/leave area.
Extreme, symbol: — greater than 5G. Plane is buggered.

61
Q

What are the hazards associated with flying into volcanic ash clouds?

A

Aircraft surfaces and windows will be sandblasted
Jet engines will be damaged
Flame-outs
Thrust loss in engines
Blocked pitot tubes resulting in false airspeed indicators
Antennae and de-icing devices may be destroyed
Air conditioning system may be contaminated
Electrical, fuel and hydraulics systems affected
May set off the cargo fire warming system

62
Q

What are some signs pilots can look for to tell if they are flying through volcanic ash?

A

Statuc discharges around plane
Bright white or orange glow in engine inlets
Smoke or dust in cockpit
Acrid smell similar to electrical smoke
False cargo fire indicators
Landing lights casting distinct and sharp shadows

63
Q

What sorts of radar can detect volcanic ash?

A

Ground-based weather radars, but not on board weather radars.

64
Q

What action should a pilot take in the event that they discover they are flying into a volcanic ash cloud?

A
Stay upwind of ash clouds
Reduce thrust to idle
Do a descending 180 degree turn to leave
Prepare for erratic pitotstatic readings
Try several engine restarts
Land as soon as possible
Pick a CAT III airport for landing in case windscreen is sandblasted
Prepare for bad braking due to ash on runway
65
Q

What are the three types of thunderstorm, and how do they form?

A

Airmass thunderstorms, formed by rapidly rising, warm damp airmasses over land during the day, and the sea during the night, usually in the summer.

Frontal thunderstorms, formed when an active cold front is moving into a moist warm front.

Orographic thunderstorms, formed when warm, wet air is forced upwards rapidly into colder air when it slides up a mountain range. Deposits the thunderstorm on the windward side.

66
Q

What are the 3 stages of a thunderstorm?

A

The cumulus stage, where the thunder cloud is building. Takes about half an hour.

The mature stage, when it is doing all of its thunder-storming. Needs 10NM of upwind clearance, 20NM downwind. Up and downdrafts of up to 8,000ft/min, and gusts of 80kt possible.

The dissipating stage, during which the cloud is still rainy and hail-y, but not lightning-y. Takes about an hour.

67
Q

How should a pilot deal with thunderstorms?

A

Stay 10NM upwind or 20NM downwind of the CB.
Circumnavigate if possible.
Fly through by the shortest route if you must.
Use anti-icing devices.
Don’t worry about maintaining altitude, just keep attitude safe.
Jets should keep ignition on.
Pilots should keep their eyes down to avoid being blinded by lightning.

68
Q

TO DO THIS THING NOTICE ME LATER

A

Find the criteria for the release of SIGMETS. Also, find the complete table of weather codes and update the other deck while you’re at it, it’s somewhere close in the handouts.