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ADI 2 > ADI 2 ATM > Flashcards

ADI 2 ATM Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three sub-roles within Tower, and what are they responsible for?

A

Aerodrome Controller - the runway and flying aircraft.

Ground Controller - the movement area minus the runways.

Clearance delivery controller - giving start-up approval and clearances to departing aircraft.

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2
Q

At which point should control of an inbound aircraft pass from approach to tower?

A

Either when the aircraft has already landed, OR upon reaching a prescribed point and level, OR when the aircraft is in the vicinity of the aerodrome, and has visual reference to the ground or uninterrupted VMC.

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3
Q

At which point shall control of an outbound aircraft pass from tower to radar?

A

In IMC: either immediately after the aircraft is airborne, or at a prescribed point or level.

In VMC: either at a prescribed point or level, or prior to the point at which the aircraft leaves the aerodrome vicinity, or VMC.

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4
Q

What must take place before military flights can implement special reduced separation?

A

A recorded request must be made by the military, followed by a recorded instruction by ATC.

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5
Q

What information should anyone intending to launch an unmanned free balloon provide to ATC?

A 
Balloon flight identification or project code name,
balloon classification and description,
SSR code or NDB frequency,
launch site,
estimated time of launch(es),
expected direction of ascent,
cruising levels (pressure altitude),
estimated time to 60,000ft, or cruising level, whichever is lower.
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6
Q

Definition of an aerodrome.

A

A defined area iuncluding buildings, installations and equipemnt, on land or water, or on a fixed, off shore or floating structure intended to be used either wholly or partially for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.

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7
Q

What is a PCN, and how is it formatted?

A

A PCN is a pavement classification number, and it comes in 5 parts, separated by /es.

1: a number for its load-carrying capacity.
2: pavement type (R for rigid, or F for flexible)
3: strength of whatever is under the pavement (A through D, A being strongest)
4: letter expressing max tyre pressure supported (W through Z, W being unlimited pressure)
5: how the value is worked out (T for technical evaluation [calculated], U for usage [tested])

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8
Q

What is an ACN, and how is it used?

A

It is a number indicating the effect of an aircraft on a paved aerodrome surface. It should not be higher than the PCN for the given type of surface (as referenced from the ACN table in the aircraft).

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9
Q

What is a runway shoulder, and when is it required?

A

It is the cleared area either side of the runway. Not paved for traversal, but clear of debris and collision risks for low-hanging engines. Required with runways of less than 60m width.

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10
Q

What is the runway strip?

A

The runway and associated stopway.

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11
Q

What is the runway end safety area (RESA)?

A

The area beyond the end of the runway or stopway which is kept clear to avoid damage to overshooting or overrunning aircraft.

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12
Q

What is the TORA?

A

Take Off Run Available is the length of the runway suitable for the roll-out portion of take-off.

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13
Q

What is the TODA?

A

Take-off distance available is the TORA plus the length of the clearway.

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14
Q

What is the ASDA?

A

The accelerated stop distance available is the length of the TORA plus the stopway.

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15
Q

How large is the clearway?

A

75m either side of the runway centre line, no more than 1.25% upward gradient, and not more than 50% the length of the runway.

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16
Q

How do temporarily and permanently displaced runway thresholds appear?

A

Temporarily displaced: a bold white line above the threshold, with chevrons pointing to it.

Permanently displaced: a normal-looking threshold, with arrows pointing at it from the bottom of the runway.

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17
Q

What are mandatory signs, and what do they mean?

A

Mandatory signs are white writing or pictures on a red background, and then mean do not proceed without ATC clearance.

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18
Q

What are information signs, and what do they mean?

A

They are yellow on black backgrounds, and they are there to provide info about where you are or other things are relative to you.

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19
Q

What’s the line down the middle of the runway called?

A

The runway centre line.

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20
Q

What are the big letters/numbers near the start of the runway called?

A

The runway designator.

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21
Q

What are the close vertical lines underneath the runway designator called?

A

The runway threshold.

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22
Q

What are the bold or striped sections either side of the centre line, just above the runway designator called?

A

The touch down zone and fixed distance markers/aiming points.

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23
Q

What are the white lines along the edge of the runway called?

A

The runway side strips.

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24
Q

How must aerodrome obstacles be marked?

A

Painted in either checkered or horizontally striped red/orange and white bands.

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25
Q

How should unserviceable runways/taxiways be marked?

A

Really big white or yellow crosses.

26
Q

How should unserviceable paved non-runway/taxiway surfaces be marked?

A

Yellow chevrons.

27
Q

What do cat I and cat II/III holding points look like?

A

Cat I: Two solid yellow lines across the taxiway, followed by two rows of yellow dashes.

Cat II/III: Basically a yellow ladder across the taxiway.

28
Q

What is an aerodrome beacon, and when should it be included/used?

A

A light which is provided in situations where the background lighting or surrounding terrain may make it difficult to distinguish the aerodrome.

29
Q

Which lights must all night-operating runways have, and in what colour?

A

Runway edge lights, in white, or yellow for the last 1/3 of the runway.
Runway threshold lights, in green.
Runway end lights, in red.

30
Q

What lights must low visibility ops runways have in place, in addition to the night ops ones, and in what colour and places?

A

Runway centre line lights, in white with alternating reds at the far end, and touchdown zone lighting in white, extending either 900m, or the runway midpoint, whichever is less.

31
Q

What colour are taxiway lights?

A

Green for taxiway centre line lights, yellow for runway lead-on or off lights, blue for taxiway/apron edge lights.

32
Q

What are runway guard lights?

A

Pairs of alternating yellow blinkers on either side of runway entrances.

33
Q

When must aerodrome lighting be used?

A

During the hours of darkness, or when meteorological conditions makes them desirable. PAPIs must ALWAYS be used.

34
Q

When must approach lighting be used, separately from normal ground lighting?

A

When associated runway lighting is used, or when requested by approaching aircraft.

35
Q

How quickly must the backup power come on for runway lights?

A

Within 15 seconds, or 1 second for Cat II/III lights.

36
Q

How quickly does wake turbulence travel sideways from the plane which made it?

A

About 5 knots.

37
Q

Standard runway separation minima for departing aircraft following departing aircraft:

A

Clearance can be given when the preceding aircraft has overflow the runway end, or turned off of the runway.

38
Q

Standard runway separation minima for departing aircraft following arriving aircraft:

A

Clearance can be given after the arriving aircraft has vacated the runway.

39
Q

Standard runway separation minima for arriving aircraft following departing aircraft:

A

The arriving aircraft can cross the runway threshold after the preceding aircraft has overflow the runway end, or turned off of the runway.

40
Q

Standard runway separation minima for arriving aircraft following arriving aircraft:

A

The arriving aircraft can cross the runway threshold after the preceding aircraft has vacated the runway.

41
Q

When may reduced runway separation minima be applied? 5 conditions.

A

During daylight (30 mins after sunrise and before sunset).

Visibility greater than 5km, ceiling at least 1000ft.

Tailwind component not more than 5kt.

The controller has a means of assessing the distances between aircraft.

The runway’s braking action is not adversely affected.

42
Q

Aircraft category thresholds for reduced runway separation minima

A

Cat 1 aircraft: single engine prop craft with max take off weight equal to or less than 2 tons.

Cat 2 aircraft: single engine prop craft with MTOW greater than 2 but not more than 7 tons, or twin engined prop craft equal to or less than 7 tons MTOW.

Cat 3 aircraft: everything else.

43
Q

Reduced runway separation for landing Cat 1 aircraft following a Cat 1 or 2 aircraft.

A

A landing Cat 1 aircraft may pass the runway threshold when the preceding aircraft of Cat 1 or 2 has either landed and passed a point 600m from the threshold, is in motion and will vacate without backtracking, OR is airborne and has passed a point at least 600m from the threshold.

44
Q

Reduced runway separation for landing Cat 2 aircraft following a Cat 1 or 2 aircraft.

A

A landing Cat 2 aircraft may pass the runway threshold when the preceding aircraft of Cat 1 or 2 has either landed and passed a point 1500m from the threshold, is in motion and will vacate without backtracking, OR is airborne and has passed a point at least 1500m from the threshold.

45
Q

Reduced runway separation for landing aircraft following a Cat 3 aircraft.

A

A landing aircraft may pass the runway threshold when the preceding aircraft of Cat 3 has either landed and passed a point 2400m from the threshold, is in motion and will vacate without backtracking, OR is airborne and has passed a point at least 2400m from the threshold.

46
Q

Reduced runway separation for departing Cat 1 aircraft following a Cat 1 or 2 aircraft.

A

A departing Cat 1 aircraft may be cleared for take-off when the preceding departing Cat 1 or 2 aircraft is airborne, and has passed a point at least 600m from the position of the following aircraft.

47
Q

Reduced runway separation for departing Cat 2 aircraft following a Cat 1 or 2 aircraft.

A

A departing Cat 2 aircraft may be cleared for take-off when the preceding departing Cat 1 or 2 aircraft is airborne, and has passed a point at least 1500m from the position of the following aircraft.

48
Q

Reduced runway separation for departing aircraft following a Cat 3 aircraft.

A

A departing aircraft may be cleared for take-off when the preceding departing Cat 3 aircraft is airborne, and has passed a point at least 2400m from the position of the following aircraft.

49
Q

How many aircraft can TCAS track, and how far?

A

30 aircraft, to 14 miles on mode A/C, or 30 miles on mode S.

50
Q

Definition of Essential Aerodrome Information, and who it must be given to.

A

Information concerning the condition of movement areas and associated facilities which is necessary for the safe operation of aircraft.

It must be given to all aircraft except those known to have received it from another source, e.g. the ATIS.

51
Q

How is braking action measured and descried?

A

It is measured in 3 sections, in the order they would be encountered by a landing aircraft. It is given as 3 numbers, with 0.4 and up being good, 0.3 to 0.4 being medium, 0.25 and below being poor.

52
Q

Cat I minima

A

Decision height 200ft or more.
Visibility 800m or more.
Runway visual range 550m or more.

53
Q

Cat II minima

A

Decision height 100ft or more.

RVR 300m or more.

54
Q

Cat IIIA minima

A

Decision height below 100ft.

RVR 175m or more.

55
Q

Cat IIIB minima

A

Decision height below 50ft.

RVR between 175m and 49m.

56
Q

Cat IIIC minima

A

No decision height or RVR limitation.

57
Q

Low visibility operations shall be implemented…

A

Whenever conditions are such that all or part of the maneuvering area cannot be visually monitored from the control tower.

58
Q

In the event that VFR operations are suspended, what four steps shall tower take?

A

Hold all VFR departures.

Recall all local flights or approve them for SVFR.

Notify approach that VFR has now been suspended.

Notify VFR operators of what has happened and why.

59
Q

Under what conditions may SVFR flights enter control zones, and why?

A

When ground visibility is 1500m or more, SVFR may enter control zones to land, take off, cross the zone, or operate locally within the zone.

60
Q

What are the different runway protection zones?

A

Zone 1: very close to the runway itself. No approaches may be issued, and take-offs may be cleared away from the obstruction.

Zone 2: a bit further from the runway. Obstacle Clearance Altitude is increased by 200ft for ILS approach, and 300ft for non-precision approaches. Take-offs are unaffected.

Zone 3: the approach and departure surfaces.No approaches can be allowed if either of these are penetrated, but take-offs can be allowed if the approach surface is penetrated.

ADI 2 (36 decks)

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