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ADI 2 > General / Misc ATM > Flashcards

General / Misc ATM Flashcards

1
Q

Which four services make up Air Traffic Management Services?

A

Air Traffic Control Services
Alerting Services
Flight Information Services
Air Traffic Advisory Services

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2
Q

What are the five objectives of the air traffic services?

A

1: Prevent collisions between aircraft
2: Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area obstructions on that area.
3: Expidite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
4: Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
5: Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.

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3
Q

When and where shall air traffic control services be provided?

A

All IFR flights in airspace classes A, B, C, D and E.
All VFR flights in airspace classes B, C and D.
All special VFR flights.
All aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes.

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4
Q

What are the names and abbreviations of the 3 divisions of air traffic control?

A

TWR (aerodrome controllers).
APP (approach controllers).
ACC (area controllers).

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5
Q

What is “procedural control” in air traffic services?

A

Control being provided by controllers with no direct visual or instrument awareness of the position, speed, direction etc. of the aircraft they are controlling, but instead relying on reports from the aircraft themselves.

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6
Q

Which types of control center can handle which types of controlling?

A

Area control can be done by the ACC, or by APP if necessary. Approach can be done by APP, or by TWR if necessary. Aerodrome control may only be done by TWR, as visual reference is required.

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7
Q

According to ICAO, in order to provide ATC services, an ATC unit shall:

A

Be provided with information on each aircraft, and the progress thereof,
Determine the relative positions of known aircraft to each other,
Issue clearances to prevent collision between aircraft under its control,
Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic,
Co-ordinate clearances as necessary with other units.

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8
Q

What is the definition and purpose of Flight Information Service (FIS)?

A

Flight information service is a service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. Flight information service is advisory only, and does not relieve the pilot of any responsibilities they have regarding keeping the aircraft and passengers etc. safe.

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9
Q

What do flight information services do/provide to aircraft? 9 answers.

A

FIS shall include the provision of pertinent information on:
SIGMET/AIRMET (significant- / air-meteorology info)
Volcanic activity.
Release of radioactive or toxic chemicals.
Changes in the availability of radio navigation services.
Changes in the conditions of aerodromes and associated facilities.
Unmanned free balloons/drones.
Weather conditions at departure/destination/alternate aerodromes.
Collisions hazards to aircraft operating in airspaces C, D, E, F and G.
For flights over water any information requested by pilot about surface vessels in the area.

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10
Q

What services to FIS specifically provide for VFR flights?

A

Traffic information, and also information on any meteorological conditions which might make VFR impractical or impossible.

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11
Q

What four methods can FIS use to transmit information to aircraft?

A

Broadcast over ATIS or D-ATIS (datalink automitic terminal information service).
Broadcast over the general frequency unacknowledged.
Specifically address a call to a craft on frequency, which must be acknowledged.
SELCAL.

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12
Q

What is VOLMET, and what is it responsible for?

A

Volume Meteorological is a worldwide network of radio stations which use automated voice transmissions to broadcast weather reports. The report contains oceanic and remote area forecasts (TAFs), aviation weather reports (METARS) and SIGMETS (significant meteorological warnings). Pilots on international routes use these transmissions to avoid storms and turbulence, and to determine which procedures to use for descent, approach and landing. The VOLMET network divides the world into specific regions, with one VOLMET station in each region broadcasting info for a fixed set of cities, once per hour.

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13
Q

What is an alerting service, and who should it be provided to?

A

Alerting services are services for notifying authorities of any aircraft in distress or requiring search and rescue services. They should, so far as is practicable, be provided to all aircraft known to air traffic control, and all aircraft on or with which unlawful interference is suspected to have occurred.

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14
Q

What is an operations normal transmission, and when must it be given?

A

Operations normal is just a notification to the local air traffic services that everything is still good with a flight. It must be given to whoever is providing alerting services for the area within 20 to 40 minutes of the last transmission. The format of the transmission is “(callsign), operations normal”.

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15
Q

Who is responsible for providing and enacting the alerting service?

A

This will be either the ACC or FIS, if one exists in the area. If, however, a plane goes missing, then the last one it talked to/was known to be in is responsible, unless it was known to be just about to enter another one. If the aircraft is not equipped with a two-way radio, or simply wasn’t required to transmit, then the ACC/FIS of its next destination is responsible.

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16
Q

What is the first emergency phase, and when shall it be triggered?

A

The uncertainty phase, called INCERFA. It shall be triggered when an airplane fails to report its position within 30 minutes of being due to, or if the aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of expected or predicted arrival time.

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17
Q

What is the second emergency phase, and when is it triggered?

A

The alert phase, ALERFA. It is triggered when contact has been attempted to an INCERFA plane, and not been successful, or if a plane has been given landing clearance more than 5 minutes ago, but still not landed, or if a plane reports a loss of systems or control not likely to cause a forced landing, or if there is any suspicion that illegal interference may have occurred or be occurring on a plane.

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18
Q

What is the final phase of the emergency system, and when is it triggered?

A

The distress phase, DETRESFA. It happens when a plane has some kind of operating impairment which is likely to cause it to make a forced landing, or if the on board fuel supplies are too low to reach any suitable landing site, or if the plane has already made a forced landing.

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19
Q

What methods can aircraft use to signal distress?

A

Over any radio telephony, SOS or Mayday may be used.Red rockets, shells or flares may be fired or held by a descending parachute. The SSR code can be set to 7700.

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20
Q

What methods can an aircraft use to signal minor distress or urgency?

A

Over any radio telephony, XXX or Pan Pan Pan may be used. They may also rapidly switch on and off outboard light such as the landing lights or navigation lights.

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21
Q

What is an ATAS and where would it be used?

A

An ATAS is an air traffic advisory service, and it would be used in a place where there is no ATC, but traffic is high enough that it warrants ATC, but it is not practicable to provide ATC there yet. This is called class F airspace.

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22
Q

What must ATAS do?

A
  • Advise of courses of action which will minimise issues.
  • Suggest courses of action which will directly avoid hazards.
  • Pass traffic information in the same way as an area control service.
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23
Q

What is the difference between advisory (class F) airspace and controlled airspace?

A

They are mostly the same, except that

  • the flight plan is not subject to clearance
  • advisory service will only provide advise on the presence of essential traffic or suggestions
  • the pilots decide what to do, but must advise the unit without delay of their intention to comply with or ignore the suggestion
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24
Q

What are the ICAO normal vertical separation minima and RVSM?

A

Normal separation minimum is 1000ft up to FL290, then 2000ft.
RVSM is 1000ft up to FL410, then 2000ft.

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25
Q

Who shall have priority of there are conflicts over flight level?

A

The aircraft already holding a flight level will usually have priority over one requesting it.
The aircraft being overtaken by another aircraft from behind will usually have priority to maintain its flight level, with the overtaking aircraft ascending or descending in order to pass.

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26
Q

Under what circumstances may an aircraft be offered a previously occupied flight level?

A

As soon as the prior flight has reported vacating it, unless
There is severe turbulence
The prior flight is on a cruise climb
There is a marked difference in aircraft performance which may allow one to climb much faster than the other

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27
Q

Under what circumstances are aircraft to be considered holding, reaching, passing or vacating a flight level?

A

Holding a flight level is when their mode C readout, or reported altitude is within 200ft of correct.
Reaching a flight level is when they appear within 200ft of it for 15 seconds or 3 radar updates, whichever is longer.
Passing a flight level happens when they are more than 300ft past it.
Vacating a flight level happens when they are more than 300ft off of it.

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28
Q

What is emergency vertical separation, and when may it be provided?

A

Emergency vertical separation is half of whatever normal separation mandates, and it may be used if ATS surveillance fails, and procedural controls cannot be implemented quickly enough, or during an emergency situation where it is not possible to provide adequate horizontal separation.

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29
Q

During emergency separation situations, what are ATC obliged to do?

A

Notify any traffic of “essential traffic”, that is, traffic which will not be or is not separated from them by the normal minimum.

Essential traffic information shall include the direction of the flight concerned, the actual or estimated position of the aircraft concerned, the type and weight turbulence of the aircraft involved, the level of the other aircraft, and the estimated time of a reporting point nearest to where the level will be crossed or the relative bearing and distance from the aircraft, given as a 12 hour clock face direction.

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30
Q

Under what circumstances may a controller authorise two aircraft to maintain their own separation during VMC?

A

This authorisation may be granted with respect to a specific portion of a flight only if ALL of the following conditions are met:
Only during daytime, at or below FL100
The procedure is applied during climb or descent
Only in VMC, in airspace classes D and E
The aircraft whose level is being climbed though agrees
The clearance has strict and understood limits of time or point/level
Only so long as VMC persists

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31
Q

Under what conditions are aircraft considered to be geographically separated?

A

If their reported positions by visual reference to geographical locations or distances from nav aids are known to meet the lateral separation minima.

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32
Q

Under what conditions is track separation considered to be met for aircraft navigating by NDBs?

A

If their tracks diverge by more than 30 degrees, and at least one aircraft is more than 15NM from the beacon.

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33
Q

Under what conditions is track separation considered to be met for aircraft navigating by VORs?

A

If their tracks diverge by more than 15 degrees, and at least one aircraft is more than 15NM from the beacon.

34
Q

Under what conditions is track separation considered to be met for aircraft navigating by GNSS?

A

If their tracks are between 15 and 135 degrees apart, either converging or diverging, and they are flying directly along their tracks, not offset, and one of the aircraft is at least 15NM from the waypoint, if betweel FL10 and FL190, or at least 23NM from the waypoint if between FL200 and FL600.

35
Q

How are aircraft’s relative tracks described for the purposes of longitudinal separation?

A

An aircraft whose track is within 90 degrees (45 degrees either side of the centre line) of the track of the leading aircraft (or vice versa) is a same direction aircraft.

An aircraft whose track is in a 90 degree arc (45 either side) of the lateral axis of the other aircraft is on a crossing track. The exact angles at the edges which overlap belong to this category.

Aircraft whose tracks are within 90 degrees (45 either side) of the other aircraft’s front are on reciprocal tracks

36
Q

How must aircraft on same direction tracks, flying at the same level and at similar speeds be separated by time?

A

They must be separated by 15 minutes, unless sufficient navigational aids permit the aircraft to frequently determine their position and speed, in which case only 10 minutes’ separation is necessary.

37
Q

Under what circumstances may same direction track, same level aircraft have reduced time separation minima?

A

If:
the aircraft have both departed from the same aerodrome, both reported over the exact same fix, or one has yet to depart, and will report at a fix which the leading aircraft has already reported at with sufficient separation, then
separation may be reduced to 5 minutes if the leading aircraft is 20kt or more faster, or 3 minutes if the leading aircraft is at least 40kt or more faster.

38
Q

How soon after passing can opposite-direction track aircraft pass through each other’s flight levels under time-based longitudinal separation?

A

10 minutes.

39
Q

How much time-based longitudinal separation is required for an aircraft following another aircraft on a same-direction track to climb through or descend through the leading aircraft’s level?

A

15 minutes, or 10 minutes if navigational aids allow frequent updating of position and speed information.

40
Q

How much longitudinal, time based separation is required for same level aircraft flying on crossing tracks?

A

15 minutes of separation from the point of intersection, or 10 minutes if navigational aids are sufficient to allow position and speed to be updated frequently.

41
Q

How much longitudinal distance-based separation is required for same-direction track, same height aircraft?

A

20NM, or only 10 NM, if the leading aircraft is at least 20kt faster.

42
Q

How much longitudinal distance-based separation needs to be applied to same level, crossing track aircraft, and what other special condition needs to be noted in this scenario?

A

20NM from the point of intersection, or 10NM if the leading aircraft is at least 20kt faster, BUT longitudinal separation can only be applied here if the crossing point is exactly over the DME or waypoint being used, otherwise longitudinal, distance-based separation is not valid, and another form of separation must be established.

43
Q

How much longitudinal, distance-based separation is required for flights on same-direction tracks where one flight wishes to climb or descend through the other’s level, and what additional precaution must be taken while this happens?

A

There must be at least 10NM of separation, and furthermore, one of the flights must maintain its vertical level while the other moves, one cannot climb while the other descends.

44
Q

How much longitudinal, distance-based separation is required for same-level flights on reciprocal tracks wishing to climb or descend through each other’s altitude?

A

They must have passed each other by 10NM.

45
Q

What 4 methods may be used for identifying an aircraft visible on PSR?

A

Position reporting: the aircraft tells you where he is, and you can see that.
Departing aircraft: you know he just took off, and you see him within 1NM of the runway end.
Transfer of identification: another ATCO explains to you which plane it is.
Maneuvering: you tell the plane you think it might be to perform a maneuver or two, and see if the blip joins in.

46
Q

What are SSR codes starting with 00 used for?

A

Special designation decided by the local ATS authority, for example 0033 is para-dropping, 0034 is pipeline checking helicopters.

47
Q

Why would an aircraft squawk 2000?

A

They have been given no information from anyone about how to set their transponder.

48
Q

What 3 steps should you take if you see an aircraft flying around squawking something different to what your flight strip says it should be?

A

Get the pilot to check his transponder. Failing that, ask them to re-set it. Failing that, tell them to switch it off to avoid confusion, or alternately, allow him to fly with the wrong code, and advise adjacent units who may be affected, if it causes less trouble to do this.

49
Q

What are the 6 ways to identify an aircraft using SSR?

A

Your radar display may recognise him for you, based on his squawk code, and give you his ID.
Your radar may just show you the squawk, and you look it up on the flight strips to know his ID.
You may automatically get the ID from a mode S transponder response.
The ID may be transferred to you by another ATCO.
You may ask the craft to change squawk, and see if comply.
You may ask the craft to squawk IDENT, and see it comply.

50
Q

In what 4 ways may controllers transfer ID of aircraft using SSR to each other?

A

The computer may do it form them, if both of their systems are connected and sharing the data.
One controller can tell the other the aircraft’s discrete mode A address, or mode S address.
One controller can literally walk over and point at it on the other controller’s screen.
The craft can be identified based on location using geographical points or nav aids.

51
Q

Under what circumstances shall or shall not an aircraft be informed of its position?

A

Aircraft shall be informed of their position if/when:
The pilot requests it.
The pilot’s reported position estimate differs greatly from the controller’s understanding of the aircraft’s position.
The aircraft is about to leave control service.
The aircraft is deviating from its intended route.
The aircraft has just been identified,
EXCEPT IF:
They were identified based on the pilot’s position report,
They were identified within 1NM of the aerodrome of their departure,
Their identification is reporting its own position using mode S, or
The aircraft and its identification have been transferred from another control centre.

52
Q

How close to the edge of an airspace boundary can vectoring be used?

A

No closer than half of the minimum separation distance in that airspace, or the larger of the two if they differ at the boundary.

53
Q

How should vectoring be accomplished if the aircraft reports unreliable directional instruments?

A

A rate of turn and time should be agreed upon prior to vectoring.

54
Q

What is the separation minimum for surveillance based separation?

A

5NM, or 3NM if permitted for the local area, equipment and traffic levels, or 2.5NM under strict conditions within 10NM of the threshold on approach.

55
Q

What must a taxi clearance contain if the route crosses a runway?

A

Explicit permission to cross the runway, or instructions to hold short of the runway.

56
Q

What must a controller do before issuing a taxi clearance?

A

Ascertain with certainty where the aircraft currently is.

57
Q

What is essential aerodrome traffic, and when shall tower inform others of it?

A

Essential aerodrome traffic is any aircraft, vehicle or person in the maneuvering area, and any traffic in the circuit. Tower shall inform anyone about any essential aerodrome traffic any any point they deem necessary.

58
Q

When must aerodrome traffic be controlled to maintain separation?

A

At all times, EXCEPT when:
aircraft are within a formation,
aircraft are using different runways suitable for simultaneous operation, or
aircraft are operating under military necessity.

59
Q

When may separation minima be reduced in aerodrome circuits?

A

Separation minima may be reduced when:
Adequate separation may be provided by the aerodrome controller when all aircraft remain visible to them, OR
Each aircraft is continually visible to the flight crews of the other aircraft concerned, and the pilots thereof report that they are able to maintain their own separation, OR
In the case of one aircraft following another, the flight crew of the succeeding aircraft reports that the other aircraft is in sight and that they can maintain separation.

60
Q

In what order should departing aircraft be cleared for take-off?

A

In the order in which they report themselves ready, unless an alternate order which minimizes delays and maximizes traffic capacity is available.

61
Q

What are the separation minima for departing aircraft at aerodromes?

A

5 minutes between departures where the following aircraft will fly higher than the preceding aircraft.
This can be reduced to 2 minutes if the preceding aircraft is 40kt or more faster.
This can also be reduced to 1 minute if the aircraft will immediately adopt track more than 45 degrees apart.
No separation is necessary if the aircraft are using parallel or diverging runways which do not cross, and it is approved by the relevant authorities.

62
Q

How many aircraft can TCAS/ACAS track, and at what distance?

A

It can track 30 aircraft, at 14NM using modes A and C, and 30NM using mode S.

63
Q

How should a controller and pilot interact if the pilot is obeying their TCAS?

A

The pilot should notify the controller by saying “TCAS RA”, to which the controller should respond by saying “Roger”. The controller can then give traffic information to the pilot, but the UK says that they should not contact the pilot at all until they have reported themselves clear.

64
Q

What are the limitations of TCAS? 10 answers.

A

It can’t see non-transponding traffic.
It can’t issue resolution advice if the traffic only has mode A.
It can’t see traffic moving extremely quickly.
It won’t give climb/descent instructions greater than 4,400ft/min.
It can’t work without altimeter readings.
It won’t give resolution advice under 1,450ft height.
Can’t handle more than 30 contacts at once.
Will go off even if aircraft are legally separated.
It can’t give horizontal resolution advice.
Any ground proximity warning systems will inhibit resolution advice.

65
Q

What are GPWS and TAWS, and what is the difference between them?

A

Ground Proximity Warning System and Terrain Avoidance Warning System. They both tell flight crew if their craft is getting too close to the floor, but TAWS can look forwards.

66
Q

What is MSAW, and what does it do?

A

The Minimum Safe Altitude Warning is a system which warns controllers if aircraft on their displays are getting dangerously close to the ground/sea.

67
Q

What is APW, and what does it do?

A

The Area Proximity Warning is a system which warns controllers if aircraft on their displays are approaching any restricted, danger or prohibited areas or controlled airspace.

68
Q

What is the STCA system and what does it do?

A

It is the Short Term Conflict Alert system, and it warns controllers if any aircraft on their display are likely to breach separation minima. It can also be programmed to warn about aircraft getting close to minimum vectoring altitude, or proximity to prohibited, controlled, restricted or dangerous airspace.

69
Q

What are controllers’ and pilots’ responsibilities regarding the ATIS?

A

Pilots shall acknowledge the receipt of the ATIS.

ATC shall provide the current altimeter setting, even if the ATIS contains it.

ATC shall inform the pilot to check again if a more up to date ATIS is available than the one they acknowledge.

70
Q

Who shall receive an air traffic advisory service?

A

All IFR flights operating in class F airspace.

71
Q

What conditions must be met before longitudinal, distance-based separation can be applied?

A

The aircraft being separated must be on track to/from the same DME, or the same waypoint, or a DME and co-located waypoint.

72
Q

Under what conditions should numbers be read on the R/T in a non-standard way, and how then should they be read?

A 
Only when transmitting altitude, cloud height, visibility and runway visual range, numbers should be read as follows:
X = number
XX = number number
XXX = number number number
X00 = number hundred
XXXX = number number number number
XX00 = number thousand, number hundred
X000 = number thousand
XX000 = number number thousand
XXX00 = number number thousand, number hundred feet
73
Q

What is an estimate?

A

A report from one sector to another that an aircraft is close (usually 20 minutes) from the next sector boundary, and a co-ordination for it to be passed to the receiving sector.

74
Q

What is a revision?

A

It is a message from the currently controlling unit to the receiving unit that a previously-passed flight plan for an incoming flight has been altered. It is not a request.

75
Q

What is an approval request and when shall one be made?

A

It is a request by the currently controlling sector to the soon-to-be controlling sector for permission to do something with the incoming flight.

An approval request shall be made if:
An aircraft wants to take off and then cross the control boundary, and it would take less time to do so than the normal time for co-ordination.

ATC wants to, or an aircraft requests to, change flight plan in some way while the flying time to the control zone boundary is less than the specified minimum.

76
Q

What is a release?

A

Permission for the receiving unit to start controlling an incoming aircraft before it has crossed the control zone boundary.

77
Q

What must a position report include when two units are co-ordinating to identify an aircraft?

A

Bearing and distance from a waypoint or nav aid, and track of the aircraft.

78
Q

Where should you measure from and to when determining separation by surveillance?

A

From the centre of PSR blips, and the near edges of SSR and ADS-B blips.

79
Q

How far either side of the CTOT (calculated take off time) is it acceptable for aircraft to depart?

A

No more than 5 minutes early or 10 minutes late.

80
Q

Who is and is not subject to traffic flow management?

A

All flights are subject to air traffic flow management except:
Head of State flights.
Search and Rescue operations.
Flights authorised by the relevant States Authorities.
Flights carrying a life-saving medical evacuation.
Flights engaged in fire-fighting.
Flights departing from outside of the flow control management area and flow control management adjacent area.

ADI 2 (36 decks)

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