Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Medsurg > Gastrointestinal, Pancreatic, and Biliary Disorders > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal, Pancreatic, and Biliary Disorders Flashcards

Exam 3

1
Q

What is the GI system responsible for?

A

Gastrointestinal system is responsible for intake, digestion, and elimination of food and fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the key to adequate nutrition?

A

Proper functioning of GI is key to adequate nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two divisions of the GI system?

A
  1. Alimentary tract
  2. Accessory organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Normal functioning of the GI system also includes?

A

Normal functioning also includes the nervous and endocrine systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does the process of digestion begin? Where does it continue?

A

the digestion process begins in the mouth and continues to the stomach and small intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the large intestines responsible for?

A

the large intestines are primarily responsible for the reabsorption of fluid and electrolytes and the elimination of waste products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

GI: ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW

Mouth: What does it do?

A

Mastication

Deglutition

Buccal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Mouth: What kind of breakdown occur?

A

the process of digestion begins in the mouth where chemical and mechanical breakdown of food occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Mouth: What does saliva produce?

A

Saliva containing amylase and lipase is excreted from the group of glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Mouth: What is amylase responsible for?

A

sublingual and submandibular glands amylase is responsible for chemical breakdown of carbohydrates and lipids.

Is responsible for the chemical digestion of fat digestion of protein actually occurs in the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Mouth: How does the process of swallowing occur? What does it involve?

A

the process of swallowing occurs in two phases and involves the esophageal muscles and the cranial nerves cranials.

nerve 5 cranial derm 6 cranial nerve 9 and cranial nerve 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Mouth: What cranial nerves are involved in swallowing?

A

Nerve 5

Nerve 6

Nerve 9

Nerve 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW

Esophagus: What is it?

A

Hollow muscular tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW

Esophagus: How does it extend (talking about vertebral levels?

A

Extends from the vertebral levels of C6 to T7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Esophagus: What pushes food downward?

A

Peristaltic movements push the food bolus downward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Stomach: What allows for the digestive functions of the stomach?

A

Specialized cells secrete chemicals essential to the digestive functions of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Stomach: What cells are involved?

A

Mucous cells

Parietal cells

Chief cells

Enteroendocrine cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Stomach: What do mucus cells do?

A

mucus cells secrete mucus to protect the stomach lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Stomach: What do parietal cells do?

A

Parietal cells secretes hydrochloric acid.

The parietal cells also secrete intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Stomach: What does the HCI secreted by parietal cells do?

A

That acid converts the food to chyme as well as converts gastric lipase and pepsinogen to active forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW

Stomach: What does the intrinsic factor produced by parietal cells in the stomach do?

A

The parietal cells also secrete intrinsic factor which is a chemical needed to absorb vitamin B12 are important component of hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW

Stomach: What do chief cells secrete? What do these secretions do?

A

chief cells secrete enzymes for gastric lipase which digests approximately 15% of dietary fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

What is the second largest organ in the body?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Liver: Major functions of the Liver- What does it degrade?

A

Absorption and metabolism of nutrients
Degradation of toxins, hormones, and medications
Synthesis of proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Liver: Major functions of the Liver- What does it synthesize?

A

Synthesis of proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Liver: Major functions of the Liver- What does it do?

A

Absorption and metabolism of nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

What are specialized cells of the liver and what do they do?

A

Kupffer cells detoxify the blood of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Liver: Where is it located?

A

it is positioned largely across the right upper quadrant and extends into the left upper quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Liver: How is it segmented?

A

it is segmented into 4 lobes and separated by ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Liver: How does blood flow through it?

A

25% of cardiac output flows through the dual blood system and an oxygenated rich supply from the hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Gallbladder: Where is it located?

A

located in the right upper quadrant the gallbladder is a pear shaped sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Gallbladder: What does bile do?

A

bile is needed for the emulsification of fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Gallbladder: How does bile travel?

A

bile leaves the liver and passes through the ductal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Gallbladder: What is it responsible for?

A

Responsible for bile storage and concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Where is bile stored and excreted?

A

Bile is excreted from the liver and stored in the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW :

Pancreas: What are the three landmark areas?

A

Head

Body

Tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW :

Pancreas: What kind of functions does it have?

A

Both endocrine and exocrine functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW :

Pancreas: As an endocrine organ, what does it do?

A

as an endocrine organ it produces insulin and Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW :

Pancreas: As an exocrine organ, what does it do?

A

as an exocrine gland the pancreas secretes a liquid known as pancreatic juice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW :

Pancreas: As an exocrine gland the pancreas secretes a liquid known as pancreatic juice.

What does the pancreatic juice contain? What are these ingredients needed for?

A

That contains water sodium bicarbonate protein enzymes needed for protein digestion and pancreatic enzymes needed for carbohydrates, fats and DNA and RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW ;

Pancreas: When is Cholecystokinin released?

A

Cholecystokinin Is released from the jejunum and duodenum when gastric juice, long fatty chains and certain amino acids are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW

Small intestine: What is it involved in?

A

Protein, carbohydrate, and fat digestion and absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW

Small intestine: How is the small intestine divided?

A

The small intestines is divided into 3 components;

the duodenum,

the jejunum

and the ilium .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

What happens to the chyme when is leaves the stomach?

A

Chyme leaves the stomach via the pyloric canal and connected to one of them to the 1st and shortest segments of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Small intestine: How long is the longest part of the small intestine?

A

Also longest portion of the small intestine is 12 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW :

Small intestine: WHAT THE HECK

A

pancreative enzymes and bile pass through the bile duct and the party at the pancreatic duct and are released into the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Anatomy of the Small and Large Intestine:

Where does semi liquid chyme go when it leaves the small intestine?

A

semi liquid chyme leaves a small intestines and enters the last segment of digestion the large intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where is most absorption done in the small intestine?

A

most absorption is done in the small intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anatomy of the Small and Large Intestine

What is the function of the large intestine?

A

the function of the large intestines is fluid and electrolyte reabsorption and elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Anatomy of the Small and Large Intestine

What area of the large intestine is chyme received?

A

The cecum is a pouch like area and it receives a semi liquid chyme from the small intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Anatomy of the Small and Large Intestine

Where does the transformation of waste occur? What is the transformation?

A

the transformation of waste from semi liquid state to form stool occurs in the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Anatomy of the Small and Large Intestine

How is the colon divided?

A

the colon is divided into 4 sections ascending, transverse, descending and sigmoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Anatomy of the Small and Large Intestine

Where does the ascending colon begin?

A

the ascending: begins in the right lower quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Large Intestine- Cecum: What does the cecum receive?

A

Cecum receives the semiliquid chyme from the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Large Intestine- Cecum: What is reabsorbed? What does this lead to?

A

Vitamins A, D, E, and K; sodium; and water are reabsorbed, creating semiformed stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Large Intestine- Colon: What happens in the colon?

A

Transformation of waste from a semiliquid state to formed feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OVERVIEW:

Large Intestine- Anal Canal: What is the anal canal made up of?

A

Internal and external anal sphincters to regulate the passage of feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ASSESSMENT:

History: What are you collecting?

A

Conduct a culturally sensitive and relevant interview while avoiding stereotyping

Routine physical or a problem-focused examination

Collect medical, surgical, family, and social history

Pertinent questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ASSESSMENT:

History: What are the pertinent questions you are asking?

A

Appetite, food intake, weight changes, loss of appetite, and changes in bowel patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Physical examination
What is the order of technique?

A

Inspection
Auscultation
Percussion
Palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the normal palpable structures?

A

Normal liver edge

Right Kidney lower pole

Cecum ascending colon

Aorta

Rectus muscles lateral borders

Sigmoid colon

Full bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES include:

A

Laboratory studies

Imaging studies

Ultrasonography

Barium studies

Endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES include:

Laboratory studies

A

Assessment of gastrointestinal function includes various types of serum, urine, and stool analyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES include:

Imaging studies

A

X-ray of the abdomen

Presence of air in the abdomen is consistent with an obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES include:

Ultrasonography

A

Sound waves are transmitted to a particular organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES include:

Ultrasonography: What does it detect?

A

Detects any size and structural abnormalities of the underlying abdominal cavity organs and vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES include:

Barium studies:

A

Series of x-rays to examine the GI tract

Diagnostic or therapeutic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES include:

Barium studies: what does the patient do?

A

Patients drink barium, a radiographic opaque liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES: Endoscopy- how does it work?

A

Fiber-optic scope is used to visualize the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES: Endoscopy- What are the three purposes of this procedure?

A

3 purposes are diagnostic, curative, or palliative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STUDIES: What are age related changes with GI?

A

Large functional reserve capacity

Aging has minimal effects on GI function

Constipation

Heartburn

Tooth loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Oral and Esophageal Disorders:

What part of the GI tract is the oral cavity and esophagus part of?

A

Oral cavity and esophagus are part of the upper GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Oral and Esophageal Disorders:

What are the oral cavity and esophagus vulnerable to?

A

Injury, infection, trauma, and cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Oral and Esophageal Disorders:

How are many cancers preventable?

A

Many cancers are preventable by eliminating risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Oral and Esophageal Disorders

Stomatitis- Epidemiology

What is it?

A

Inflammatory condition affecting the oral mucosa, dentition, and periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Oral and Esophageal Disorders

Stomatitis- Epidemiology

What kind of population does it occur in?

A

Occurs in 40% of patients receiving chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Oral and Esophageal Disorders

Stomatitis
Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations

What is it also known as?

A

Also known as oral mucositis

78
Q

Oral and Esophageal Disorders

Stomatitis
Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations

A

Painful inflammation/ulceration of the lining of the mouth

79
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES

Hiatal hernia- Epidemiology

What happens with age?

A

Increases with age as supportive structures weaken over time

80
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES

Hiatal hernia- Epidemiology

What group of people are mostly effected (as in what percent)?

A

60% of those affected are 50 or older

81
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES

Hiatal hernia

Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations

A

Portion of the stomach protrudes upward through the LES and into the esophagus

82
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES

Hiatal hernia

Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations
What are the types of hiatal hernias?

A

Type 1 and type 2

83
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES

Hiatal hernia
Management: What tests are done?

A

Upper abdominal x-ray

Endoscopy

Barium swallow with fluoroscopy

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy or EGD

Medications for symptoms of heartburn and acid reflux

Surgery

84
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES:

Gastroesophageal reflux disease: What is it caused by?

A

Caused by acid reflux from stomach into esophagus

85
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES:

Gastroesophageal reflux disease: Epidemiology
Where is it prevalent? What percent of people are affected?

A

Highly prevalent disorder in Western countries

10% to 20% affected

86
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES:

Gastroesophageal reflux disease: Epidemiology

What bacteria is involved? What does it do?

A

H pylori has been found to decrease gastric acid secretion

87
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations: How does it result?

A

Results when there is retrograde flow of GI contents into esophagus

88
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations: Results when there is retrograde flow of GI contents into esophagus

What does this cause?

A

Resulting in inflammation

89
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES:

Management

A

pH monitoring and recording

Esophageal manometry or motility testing

90
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES

Gastroesophageal reflux disease Endoscopic treatments include:

A

Stretta procedure involves the use of radiofrequency energy through an endoscope by using needles positioned near the GEJ

91
Q

ORAL AND ESOPHAGEAL DISEASES

Gastroesophageal reflux disease Endoscopic treatments include: Surgical management

What kind of patients may require surgery?

A

Small number of patients with GERD require surgery

92
Q

3% of all cancers are what?

A

3% of all cancers are oral cancers

93
Q

ORAL CANCER

Epidemiology: How many new cases a year? How many deaths?

A

30,000 new cases and 4,800 deaths per year

94
Q

ORAL CANCER

Epidemiology: Who is affected more? By how much?

A

Men are affected 2-4 times more than women?

95
Q

ORAL CANCER

Epidemiology: What tends to grow fast?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas tend to grow rapidly and metastasize

96
Q

ORAL CANCER

Epidemiology: What tends to grow slow?

A

Basal cell carcinomas tend to grow slowly and become invasive over time

97
Q

ORAL CANCER:
Pathophysiology:

A

Premalignant lesions

98
Q

ORAL CANCER:
Pathophysiology: Premalignant lesions include:

A

Leukoplakia

Erythroplakia

99
Q

ORAL CANCER:

Clinical manifestations: What do early symptoms affect?

A

Early symptoms affect the floor of the mouth or tongue

Asymptomatic in the early stages

100
Q

ORAL CANCER:

What is management?

A

Radiation therapy

Medications

101
Q

ORAL CANCER:

What are complications?

A

Infiltration to muscles and underlying tissue, resulting in difficulty eating or talking

102
Q

ORAL CANCER:

Surgical management

A

Treatment of small noninvasive lesions under local or general anesthesia

103
Q

ORAL TRAUMA

Epidemiology

A

Injury to specific bones of the face, including nasal, mandibular, and maxillary fractures

Soft tissue injuries in and around the mouth

104
Q

ORAL TRAUMA

Pathophysiology: What is oral trauma patho related to?

A

Related to location and severity of injury

105
Q

ORAL TRAUMA

Pathophysiology: Direct damage to oral cavity can lead to what?

A

Direct damage to the oral cavity that can lead to partial or complete airway occlusion

106
Q

ORAL TRAUMA:

Pathophysiology: Direct damage to the oral cavity that can lead to partial or complete airway occlusion include:

A

Le Fort I, II, III

107
Q

ORAL TRAUMA:

Management: What is there an increased risk for? What does this mean?

A

Increased risk for infection, therefore, broad-spectrum antibiotics are ordered

107
Q

ORAL TRAUMA:

Clinical manifestations

A

Increased respiratory rate, stridor, shortness of breath, decreased oxygen saturation, hypercarbia, elevated heart rate, and changes in level of consciousness

Oral bleeding, swelling, edema, loss of teeth, and pain

108
Q

ORAL TRAUMA:

Management: What is it directed at?

A

Directed at establishing and maintaining the airway and controlling bleeding

109
Q

ESOPHAGEAL CANCER

What are the two types?

A
  1. Squamous cell carcinomas
  2. adenocarcinomas
110
Q

ESOPHAGEAL CANCER:

Less than 1% include what?

A

Less than 1% include small cell neuroendocrine cancers, lymphomas, and sarcomas

111
Q

ESOPHAGEAL CANCER

Pathophysiology: What are the upper and lower esophagus?

A

Upper 2/3 of esophagus are squamous cell carcinomas

Lower 1/3 of esophagus are esophageal adenocarcinoma

112
Q

ESOPHAGEAL CANCER:

Clinical manifestations

A

Progressive dysphagia is the most common symptom

113
Q

ESOPHAGEAL CANCER

Management and diagnostic tests

A

Barium swallow, CT, PET, endoscopic ultrasonography, thoracoscopy and laparoscopy

114
Q

ESOPHAGEAL CANCER:

What kind of complementary and alternative medicine is used to relieve pain?

A

Yoga, meditation, spirituality, and religion are used to relieve pain

115
Q

ESOPHAGEAL CANCER:

Complications?

A

Risks related to treatment in addition to risks associated with advanced disease

116
Q

ESOPHAGEAL CANCER:

Surgical management: What are surgeries for?

A

Palliative surgical interventions to restore patients’ ability to swallow and to maintain optimal nutrition

117
Q

ESOPHAGEAL CANCER:

Esophagectomy: What occurs during it?

A

A portion of the cancer and nearby tissue in the esophagus is removed.

The esophagus is joined to the stomach.

118
Q

ESOPHAGEAL TRAUMA:

Pathophysiology: What is it related to?

A

Related to the cause of trauma

119
Q

ESOPHAGEAL TRAUMA:

What is management?

A

Control of bleeding,

wound management and drainage,

prevention of infection, and

providing nutrition

120
Q

ESOPHAGEAL TRAUMA:

Diagnostic tests include:

A

Chest x-ray, chest CT, contrast esophagography

121
Q

ESOPHAGEAL TRAUMA:

Surgical management includes

A

Control bleeding,

remove damaged tissue,

repair wounds,

resect part of the esophagus

Replace the esophagus with a bowel segment

122
Q

Stomach Disorders

What are the most common stomach disorders?

A

Gastritis

Peptic ulcer disease(PUD)

Gastric cancer

123
Q

Stomach Disorders

Most common disorders:

A

Gastritis

Peptic ulcer disease(PUD)

Gastric cancer

124
Q

GASTRITIS

What are the types of gastritis

A

Acute gastritis,

chronic gastritis

atrophic gastritis

125
Q

GASTRITIS:

What is acute gastritis?

A

Chronic ingestion of irritating foods and alcohol

126
Q

GASTRITIS:

What is acute gastritis a complication of?

A

Complication of acute illnesses such as traumatic injuries; burns; severe infection; hepatic, renal, or respiratory failure; or major surgery

127
Q

GASTRITIS:

Pathophysiology: What is the most common cause?

A

Most common cause is Helicobacter pylori

128
Q

GASTRITIS:

Pathophysiology: What are other common causes?

A

Other causes of gastritis include alcohol, NSAIDs, Crohn’s disease, tuberculosis, and bile reflux

129
Q

GASTRITIS:

Pathophysiology: Causes of chronic gastritis and prolonged inflammation of the stomach include:

A

Chronic local irritation or by the bacterium H pylori

130
Q

GASTRITIS:

Pathophysiology: What is it associated with?

A

Associated with presence of antibodies to parietal cells and intrinsic factor

131
Q

GASTRITIS

Clinical manifestations include:

A

Epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, decreased appetite, and stool color changes

132
Q

GASTRITIS

Clinical Manifestations: What may exacerbate pain?

A

Pain may be exacerbated with spicy food ingestion

133
Q

GASTRITIS

Management: What does gross endoscopic diagnosis indicate?

A

Gross endoscopic diagnosis correlates poorly with histological findings

134
Q

GASTRITIS:

Surgical management: What rare cases may surgical intervention be needed?

A

In the rare patient requiring surgical intervention for severe hemorrhagic gastritis

135
Q

GASTRITIS:

Patient requiring surgical intervention for severe hemorrhagic gastritis may have what kind of surgery?

A

Vagotomy

Partial or total gastrectomy

Pyloroplasty

136
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE:

What are the types of peptic ulcers?

A

Duodenal ulcers and gastric ulcers

137
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE

Pathophysiology: Where does PUD occur? Why?

A

Occur in gastroduodenal mucosa as this tissue cannot withstand digestive action of gastric acid and pepsin

138
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE

Clinical manifestations: What do signs and symptoms?

A

Signs and symptoms depend on ulcer location and patient age

139
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE

Clinical manifestations: What is the most common symptom?

A

Pain is the most common symptom

140
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE

Management: When is it diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed during upper endoscopy, laboratory and radiological tests

141
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE

Medications: What are they for?

A

Pain relief, ulcer healing, prevent recurrence, and reduction of complications

141
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE

Management: What is the preferred procedure?

A

Upper GI endoscopy is the preferred procedure

142
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE:

Medications: What does it suppress?

A

Acid suppression in both duodenal and gastric ulcers and in preventing recurrence

143
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE:

Medications: Treatment for H.pylori

A

Therapy in H pylori‒positive patients is eradicating infection and healing the ulcer

144
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE:

What are complications?

A

Perforation and penetration into attached structures, and obstruction

145
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE:

Surgical management: What is it only required for?

A

Only required with nonhealing and bleeding ulcers

146
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE:

What do minimally invasive procedures allow for?

A

Minimally invasive procedures allow ulcers to be removed or bleeding controlled

147
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE

Surgical management: What do most people have?

A

Most have oversewing of a bleeding ulcer, or patch of a perforated ulcer, or distal gastrectomy

148
Q

PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE

Surgical management: What do most operations include?

A

Major operations include bilateral vagotomy, pyloroplasty, and gastrectomy

149
Q

GASTRIC CANCER

Epidemiology: What groups of people is it most common in?

A

More common in lower socioeconomic groups

Affects males 2x’s more often than females

Causes are unknown

150
Q

GASTRIC CANCER

Pathophysiology:

A

Malignant epithelial tumor that infiltrates the mucus-producing cells of the stomach

151
Q

GASTRIC CANCER

Pathophysiology: Where is this cancer typically found?

A

Most frequently found in the distal portion

152
Q

GASTRIC CANCER:

Clinical manifestations: When do symptoms appear?

A

Often are asymptomatic until late in their course

153
Q

GASTRIC CANCER

Clinical manifestations

A

Indigestion, anorexia, weight loss, vague epigastric pain, vomiting, and an abdominal mass

154
Q

GASTRIC CANCER

Management: How is diagnosis made?

A

Diagnosis by a variety of techniques

Barium x-ray studies, endoscopic studies with biopsy, and cytological studies of gastric secretions
155
Q

GASTRIC CANCER

Surgical management: What is the universal precursor to gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

Gastric dysplasia is the universal precursor to gastric adenocarcinoma

156
Q

GASTRIC CANCER

Surgical management: When would gastric resection be considered?

A

In severe dysplasia gastric resection is considered

157
Q

GASTRIC CANCER

Surgical management: What is treatment in early stages?

A

In early stages, laparoscopic surgery plus adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation

158
Q

GASTRIC CANCER

What are complications of Gastric Cancer?

A

Dumping syndrome

159
Q

Dumping Syndrome:

What should be done about this?

A

Eat six to eight small meals daily to avoid eating too much at a time.

160
Q

Dumping Syndrome:

How should diet be to avoid this?

A

Have a protein food with each meal and snack such as meat, poultry, fish, eggs, milk, cheese, yogurt, nuts, tofu or peanut butter.

161
Q

Dumping Syndrome:

What should NOT be done if you have this?

A

Do not drink liquids with meals.

162
Q

Intestinal Disorders:

What is the intestinal system made up of?

A

Intestinal system composed of small and large intestines

163
Q

Intestinal Disorders:

What are the main functions of the intestines?

A

Main functions are digestion, absorption, and elimination of waste products

164
Q

Intestinal Disorders :

What is the function of the small intestine?

A

Small intestine’s function is digestion and absorption of nutrients

165
Q

Intestinal Disorders:

What is the function of the large intestine?

A

Large intestine’s function is absorption of water

166
Q

Intestinal Disorders:

What are the 3 sections of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum

Jejunum

Ileum

167
Q

Intestinal Disorders:

The 3 sections of the small intestine: Duodenum

A

Approximately 10 in. (25 cm) long

168
Q

Intestinal Disorders:

The 3 sections of the small intestine: Jejunum

A

Approximately 8 ft (2.5 m)

169
Q

Intestinal Disorders:

The 3 sections of the small intestine: Ileum

A

Approximately 12 ft (3.5 m)

170
Q

Large Intestine:

What are the three sections of the large intestine?

A

Cecum

Colon

Rectum

171
Q

Large Intestine:

Cecum: How long is it?

A

Approximately 2 to 3 in.

172
Q

Large Intestine:

Rectum: How long is it?

A

Approximately 7 to 8 in. extending to the anus

173
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS:

Hernias- Epidemiology:

A

Protrusion of abdominal contents through area of weakened muscle in the abdominal cavity

174
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS
Hernias
Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations: Where can manifestations occur?

A

May occur anywhere in the body

175
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS
Hernias
Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations: Where do manifestations frequently occur?

A

Frequently occurs in abdominal cavity with intestines protruding through an abnormal opening

176
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS
Hernias
Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations: How are they viewed?

A

Reducible or irreducible

176
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS:
Hernias
Types of hernias: What are they?

A

Inguinal

Femoral

Umbilical

Ventral or incisional

177
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS
Hernias
Inguinal hernia: What are the types?

A

Indirect iguinal hernia

Direct iguinal hernia

178
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS:

Hernias: What is the most common treatment for this?

A

Most common treatment of hernias is surgery

179
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS:

Hernias: What are the surgeries done for hernias?

A

Herniorrhaphy

Hernioplasty

180
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS:

Hernias: What are complications of them? (What can happen to the intestines)

A

Strangulation of the intestine

Intestinal obstruction and/or necrosis of bowel tissue

181
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS:

Hemorrhoids: Epidemiology- what is it?

A

Swollen or dilated veins in the anorectal area

182
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS:

Hemorrhoids: Epidemiology- How common is it? Who does it effect?

A

Common disorder that affects both men and women

183
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS

Hemorrhoids
Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations (Where are they and how may they become?)

A

Hemorrhoids are internal or external

May become thrombosed, or clotted

Standard grading system

184
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS

Hemorrhoids
Management; What is treatment? What does it involve?

A

Conservative and involves relief of pain and symptoms

Cold packs and sitz baths 3-4 x’s/day reduce some swelling and pain

185
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS:

Hemorrhoids
Surgical management

A

Rubber-band ligation, bipolar, infrared, and laser coagulation, sclerotherapy, cryosurgery, and hemorrhoidectomy

186
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS
Irritable bowel syndrome
Epidemiology: What are the three types of IBS?

A

3 types of IBS
IBS-C, IBS-D, and IBS-M

187
Q

INTESTINAL DISORDERS
Irritable bowel syndrome

Pathophysiology and clinical manifestations: What is the cause?

A

Exact cause is unknown but there are possible theories

Medsurg (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions