FSOT Master 14 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Liberal Nationalism?

A

Liberal Nationalism is the aspiration of a group to achieve statehood based on popular sovereignty. It emphasizes freedom from foreign domination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is National Self-Determination?

A

National Self-Determination is the idea that a group of people who consider themselves seperate and distinct from others have the right to determine the state in which they will live and the form of government it will have.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Nationalism?

A

Nationalism is the popular will that seeks to preserve the identity of a gropu by institutionalizing it in the form of a state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Power?

A

Power is influence and control excercised by one nation over others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Andean community?

A

A trade bloc comprising the South American countries of Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru and Venezuela. The trade bloc was formerly called the Andean Pact and came into existence with the signing of the Cartagena Agreement in 1969. Its headquarters are located in Lima, Peru. The Andean Community has 120 million inhabitants living in an area of 4,700,000 square kilometers, whose Gross Domestic Product amounted to US$260 billion in 2002. The Andean Community together with Mercosur comprises the two main trading blocs of South America. In 1999 these organizations began negotiating a merger with a view to creating a South American Free Trade Area (SAFTA). On December 8, 2004 it signed a cooperation agreement with Mercosur and they published a joint letter of intention for future negotiations towards integrating all of South America in the context of the South American Community of Nations, patterned after the European Union.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Asian Development Bank?

A

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a multilateral development finance institution dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific. It was founded in 1966 with 31 members states and has now grown to include 64, including the US, many europen nations, and all asian nations, including the stans. Headquartered in Philippines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?

A

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a political, economic, and cultural organization of countries located in Southeast Asia. Formed on August 8, 1967, by Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, and the Philippines, as a non-provocative display of solidarity against communist expansion in Vietnam and insurgency within their own borders. Following the Bali Summit of 1976, the organization embarked on a programme of economic cooperation, which floundered in the mid-1980’s only to be revived around a 1991 Thai proposal for a regional “free trade area”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the Belgium War Crimes Law?

A

Belgium’s War Crimes Law invokes the concept of universal jurisdiction to allow anyone to bring war crime charges in Belgian courts, regardless of where the alleged crimes have taken place. The law took effect in 1993 and was expanded the following year after 10 Belgian soldiers were killed in Rwanda. The law reached prominence after the Rwandan Genocide. According to the Washington Post, the process of prosecution of Rwandans in Belgium for crimes committed in the violence were set in motion by Martine Beckers, a Brussels resident, whose sister Claire called her to tell her of being attacked by soldiers, who soon after killed her, her family, and 10 other villagers who were unable to reach a United Nations peacekeepers’ compound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Central American Common Market?

A

The Central American Common Market (abbreviated CACM - in Spanish: Mercado Común Centroamericano, abbreviated MCCA) is an economic trade organization between five nations of Central America. It was established on December 13, 1960 between the nations of Guatemala, El Salvador, Honduras and Nicaragua in a conference in Managua. These nations ratified the treaties of membership the following year. Costa Rica joined the CACM in 1963. The organization collapsed in 1969 with the Football War between Honduras and El Salvador, but was then reinstated in 1991. The CACM has succeeded in removing duties on most products moving among the member countries, and has largely unified external tariffs and increased trade within the member nations. However, it has not achieved the further goals of greater economic and political unification that were hoped for at the organization’s founding, mainly caused by the CACM’s inability and lack of reliable means to settle trade disputes. With the proposal of the Free Trade Area of the Americas, it is possible that this new organization will replace the CACM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS)?

A

The Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) is a confederation, or alliance, consisting of 11 former Soviet Republics: Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Moldova, Russia, Tajikistan, Ukraine, and Uzbekistan. Turkmenistan discontinued permanent membership as of August 26, 2005 and is now an associate member. The creation of CIS signaled the dissolution of the Soviet Union and, according to leaders of Russia, its purpose was to “allow a civilized divorce” between the Soviet Republics. However, many observers have seen the CIS as a tool that would allow Russia to keep its influence over the post-Soviet states. Since its formation, the member-states of CIS have signed a large number of documents concerning integration and cooperation on matters of economics, defense and foreign policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf?

A

The Cooperation Council of the Arab States of the Gulf, formerly named and still commonly called Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a regional organization involving the six Persian Gulf Arab States with many economic and social objectives in mind. Created May 25, 1981, the Council is comprised of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Council of Europe?

A

The Council of Europe is an international organisation of 46 member states in the European region. The seat of the Council of Europe is in Strasbourg on the Franco-German border. Membership is open to all European states which accept the principle of the rule of law and guarantee fundamental human rights and freedoms to their citizens. One of the main successes of the Council was the European Convention on Human Rights in 1950, which serves as the basis for the European Court of Human Rights. The Council of Europe is not to be confused with the Council of the European Union or the European Council, as it is a separate organisation and not part of the European Union. The Council of Europe was founded following a speech given by Winston Churchill at the University of Zurich on 19 September 1946 calling for a “United States of Europe”, similar to the United States of America, in the wake of the events of World War II. The Council was officially founded on 5 May 1949 by the Treaty of London agreed to by the ten original members. This treaty is now known as the Statute of the Council of Europe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between the ICC and the ICJ in the Hague?

A

The International Criminal Court is a permanant war crimes tribunal. The International Court of Justice rules on disputes between states.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the difference between Unitary and federal systems of government?

A

The unitary system gives the main powers to the central government. State, provincial, and local governments are all created by the central government. The non-central governments have only the powers that are appointed by the central government. Countries such as France, Italy, Japan, and the United Kingdom, along with other democratic nations use the unitary system of government. Although, not every country uses the same rules in the centralization and decentralization of powers. China, North Korea, Cuba, and other Communist-based governments have unitary systems too. Unlike the unitary system, the federal system develops when a number of states or providences federate, or form a union, eventually in order to establish a nation. In a government using the federal system, the powers of the governments are jointly shared between the central government and the more local (or regional) governments (state, providential, district, etc.). Both of the national and regional governments are directly tied to the people, who are the source of a democratic government’s authority. The United States and Canada have federal systems. Other countries that use the federal plan include Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Brazil, Germany, India, Mexico, and Switzerland. It is more difficult for nation-wide communism or totalitarianism to exist in a Federation, for true federalism requires decentralization and cannot coexist with totalitarianism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Eurasian Economic Community?

A

The Eurasian Economic Community (EurAsEC or EAEC) was put into motion on 10 October 2000 when Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan signed the treaty. EurAsEC was formally created when the treaty was finally ratified by all five member states in May 2001. EurAsEC grew out of the CIS Customs Union. All the members of EurAsEC are also members of the older Commonwealth of Independent States and the relationship between the two organisations is ambiguous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council?

A

The Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC) is a NATO organization, a multilateral forum created to improve relations between NATO and non-NATO countries in Europe and those parts of Asia on the European pheriphary. The member states meet to cooperate and consult on a range of political and security issues. It was formed on May 29, 1997 as the successor to the North Atlantic Cooperation Council (NACC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Euro-Mediterranean free trade area?

A

The Euro-Mediterranean free trade area (EU-MEFTA) is based on the Barcelona Process and European Neighbourhood Policy (ENP). The Barcelona Process, developed after the Barcelona Conference in successive annual meetings, is a set of goals designed to lead to a free trade area in the Middle East by 2010. Eventually it will integrate free trade with the EU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the european Common Agricultural Policy?

A

The Common Agricultural Policy (CAP) is a system of European Union agricultural subsidies which represents about 44% of the EU’s budget (€43 billion scheduled spend for 2005 [1]). These subsidies work by guaranteeing a minimum price to producers and by direct payment of a subsidy for crops planted. This provides some economic certainty for EU farmers and production of a certain quantity of agricultural goods. Reforms of the system are currently underway including a phased transfer of subsidy to land stewardship rather than specific crop production from 2005 to 2012. The OECD countries’ total agricultural subsidies amount to more than the GDP of the whole of Africa. CAP price intervention causes artificially high food prices throughout the EU. Some have suggested that Europeans pay about 25% higher prices for food than they would without the CAP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the European Investment Bank?

A

It is the EU’s financing institution, founded in 1957. Located in Luxembourg, its goal is to further the economic goals and carry out the agreements of the EU within, and with other nations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the goal of Sinn Fein?

A

To unite Ireland and kick out the british. The IRA is Sinn Fein’s militant wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Idealist Approach to Foreign Policy?

A

The Idealist approach assumes that a foreign policy based on morals, legal codes, and international norms is the most effective foreign policy because it encourages unity and cooperation among states rather than competition and conflict.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the Inter-American Commission on Human Rights?

A

The Inter-American Commission on Human Rights (the IACHR or, in the three other official languages – Spanish, French, and Portuguese – CIDH) is one of the two bodies that comprise the inter-American system for the promotion and protection of human rights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Inter-American Court of Human Rights?

A

The Inter-American Court of Human Rights is an autonomous judicial institution based in the city of San José, Costa Rica. Together with the Inter-American Commission on Human Rights, it makes up the human rights protection system of the Organization of American States (OAS), which serves to uphold and promote basic rights and freedoms in the Americas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the International Labour Organization (ILO)?

A

A specialized agency of the United Nations to deal with labour issues. Its headquarters are in Geneva, Switzerland. Founded in 1919, it was formed through the negotiations of the Treaty of Versailles, and was initially an agency of the League of Nations. It became a UN body after the demise of the League and the formation of the UN at the end of World War II. The organization seeks to strengthen worker rights, improve working conditions and living conditions, create employment, and provide information and training opportunities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the Latin American Integration Association?

A

A Latin American trade integration association, based in Montevideo. Its main objective is the establishment of a common market, in pursuit of the economic and social development of the region. Its members are Argentina, Bolivia, Brazil, Cuba, Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Mexico, Paraguay, Peru, Uruguay and Venezuela. It is the successor to LAFTA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the OECD?

A

An international organisation of those developed countries that accept the principles of representative democracy and a free market economy. It originated in 1948 as the Organisation for European Economic Co-operation (OEEC), to help administer the Marshall Plan for the re-construction of Europe after World War II. Later its membership was extended to non-European states, and in 1961 it was reformed into the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development. Members include most of rich european nations, Japan, South Korea, Australia, NAFTA members, and Turkey. It is based in Paris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the oldest ongoing country in the world?

A

China.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the Open skies agreement?

A

The term open skies refers to either to a bilateral or multilateral Air Transport Agreement which: liberalises the rules for international aviation markets and minimises government intervention — the provisions apply to passenger, all-cargo and combination air transportation and encompass both scheduled and charter services; or adjusts the regime under which military and other state-based flights may be permitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe?

A

The Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE) is an international organization for security. In its region, it is concerned with early warning, conflict prevention, crisis management and post-conflict rehabilitation. The Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe has 55 participating states from Europe, the Mediterranean, the Caucasus, Central Asia and North America. The OSCE’s Secretariat (headquarters) is located in Vienna, Austria. The Organization also has offices in Copenhagen, Geneva, The Hague, Prague and Warsaw. The organization was established in 1973 as the Conference for Security and Co-operation in Europe (CSCE).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Organization of American States?

A

The Organization of American States (OAS; OEA in the other three official languages) is an international organization, headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States. Its members are the 35 independent nations of the Americas. Founded in 1948. Members include every free nation in the western hemisphere, except cuba, which is suspended. From its creation up until, at the least, the mid-1980s, the OAS was a frequent target for critics, particularly those on the left of the political spectrum, who accused it of being a mere arm of U.S. foreign policy – “Washington’s colonial office”, it was scornfully labeled (this is sometimes attributed to Fidel Castro, but is not verified; see [5]). This interpretation was borne out by the alacrity with which the Organization moved, at Washington’s bidding, to expel Cuba in 1962; in contrast, the OAS never took steps to suspend the membership of the various dictatorships that emerged in the 1970s and 1980s and were disrepectful of human rights and democracy – Argentina, Brazil, Chile, Guatemala – but that differed from Cuba in their political orientation. The return to democracy that took place in the 1980s and 1990s saw the emergence of new trends within the OAS. The Organization’s new direction has taken it into areas of greater direct relevance to the peoples of the continent: for example, its highly successful demining programs in Central America and the Andean region. Perhaps more importantly, the Organization’s other member states (particularly the South Americans) now appear to be reasserting their political independence and assuming positions that are much less subservient to U.S. interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the Pacific Islands Forum?

A

The Pacific Islands Forum is an inter-governmental consultative organ which aims to enhance cooperation between the independent countries of the Pacific Ocean and represent their interests. It was founded in 1971 as the South Pacific Forum; the name was changed in 2000 to better reflect the correct geographic locations of its member states both in the north and south Pacific. Member states are: Australia, the Cook Islands, the Federated States of Micronesia, Fiji, Kiribati, the Marshall Islands, Nauru, New Zealand, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, the Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the PLO?

A

The PLO is a political and military organization that claims to represent the interests of the Palestinian people in their opposition of Israel and quest for a homeland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Revisionist Approach to Foreign Policy?

A

A Revisionst approach to foreign policy seeks to alter territorial, ideological, or power distribution to the state’s advantage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the South American Community of Nations?

A

will be a continent-wide free trade zone that will unite two existing free-trade organizations—Mercosur and the Andean Community—eliminating tariffs for non-sensitive products by 2014 and sensitive products by 2019. The headquarters of this new organization will be in Lima while the South American Bank will be in Brasilia according to the agreements during the meetings. Complete integration between the Andean Community and Mercosur into the South American Community of Nations is expected by 2007. At the Third South American Summit, on 8 December 2004, presidents or representatives from twelve South American nations signed the Cuzco Declaration, a two-page statement of intent, announcing the foundation of the South American Community. Panama attended the signing ceremony as observer. Leaders announced their intention to model the new community after the European Union, including a common currency, parliament, and passport. According to Allan Wagner, Secretary General of the Andean Community, a complete union like that of the EU should be possible by 2019.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the South Asia Free Trade Agreement?

A

The South Asia Free Trade Agreement is an agreement reached at the 12th South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) summit at Islamabad, capital of Pakistan on 6 January 2004. It creates a framework for the creation of a free trade zone covering 1.4 billion people in India, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Bhutan and the Maldives.The seven foreign ministers of the region signed a framework agreement on SAFTA with zero customs duty on the trade of practically all products in the region by end 2012.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation?

A

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation, or SAARC, proposed by Ziaur Rahman, the then-president of Bangladesh, was established on December 8, 1985. SAARC is an association of eight countries of South Asia: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and most recently admitted, Afghanistan. These countries comprise an area of 5,127,500 km2 and a fifth of the world’s population. SAARC encourages cooperation in agriculture, rural development, science and technology, culture, health, population control, narcotics control and anti-terrorism. In 1993, SAARC countries signed an agreement to gradually lower tariffs within the region. Nine years later, at the 12th SAARC summit at Islamabad, SAARC countries devised the South Asia Free Trade Agreement which created a framework for the establishment of a free trade zone covering 1.4 billion people. This agreement went into force on January 1, 2006.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the Status Quo Approach to Foreign Policy?

A

The Status Quo Approach to Foreign Policy seeks to maintain the territorial, ideological, or power distribution of the state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Treaty on Open Skies?

A

The Treaty on Open Skies entered into force on January 1, 2002, and currently has 34 States Parties. It establishes a program of unarmed aerial surveillance flights over the entire territory of its participants. The treaty is designed to enhance mutual understanding and confidence by giving all participants, regardless of size, a direct role in gathering information about military forces and activities of concern to them. Open Skies is one of the most wide-ranging international efforts to date promoting openness and transparency of military forces and activities. The concept of “mutual aerial observation” was initially proposed by President Eisenhower in 1955; the treaty eventually signed was an initiative of President (and former Director of Central Intelligence) George H. W. Bush in 1989. Negotiated by the then-members of NATO and the Warsaw Pact, the agreement was signed in Helsinki, Finland, on March 24, 1992. The United States ratified it in 1993. The 34 States Parties to the Open Skies Treaty are: Belarus, Belgium, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Georgia, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Russian Federation, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Turkey, United Kingdom, Ukraine, and United States.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the UN convention on the law of the sea?

A

Took effect in 1994. Establishes 12 mile barrier around nations, and 200 mile Exclusive Economic Zones. The us has signed, but not ratified it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the Western European Union?

A

The Western European Union (WEU) is a partially dormant European defence and security organization, established on the basis of the Treaty of Brussels of 1948 with the accession of West Germany and Italy in 1954. Its two stated aims were: to afford assistance to each other inr sisting any policy of aggression, to promote unity and integration of Europe. Currently being merged into EU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Unilateralism?

A

Unilaterialism is a state’s dependence on its own power to maxime security and achieve national interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is World Government?

A

World Government is a theoretical power system in which all states would surrender their sovereignty and create a supranational state to govern the affairs of the entire world.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Xenophobia?

A

Xenophobia is the fear and distrust of foreigners and the policies and objectives of other states.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is Zionism?

A

Zionism is a movement which promotes political, economic, financial, and military support for Israel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What nations are still part of the British Commonwealth?

A

Antigua and Barbuda, Australia, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Canada, Grenada, Jamaica, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Saint Lucia, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, the Soloman Islands, Tuvalu, the U.K.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What nations oppose the ICC?

A

US, China, Israel, Zimbabwe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What natural resource does Azerbaijan mainly export?

A

OIL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What region of the world receives the most immigrant visas to the US?

A

Latin America, then Asia, then Europe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What was the “Velvet Divorce” ?

A

The Velvet Divorce is a journalistic term for the dissolution of the former country of Czechoslovakia into the nations of Slovakia and the Czech Republic, effective January 1, 1993. The term is used to liken this event to the Velvet Revolution of 1989 which led to the end of the rule of the Communist Party of Czechoslovakia and the formation of a new, non-Communist government. The term itself did not catch on either in the Czech Republic, nor in Slovakia, but it is used by the international media.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What was the 1975 Helsinki Conference?

A

It founded the The Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What was The Antarctic Treaty?

A

The Antarctic Treaty and related agreements, collectively called the Antarctic Treaty System or ATS, regulate the international relations with respect to Antarctica, Earth’s only uninhabited continent. For the purposes of the treaty system, Antarctica is defined as all land and ice shelves south of the southern 60th parallel. The treaty was signed by 12 countries, including the Soviet Union and the United States, and set aside Antarctica as a scientific preserve, established freedom of scientific investigation and banned military activity on that continent. This was the first arms control agreement established during the Cold War. The main treaty was opened for signature on December 1, 1959, and officially entered into force on June 23, 1961.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What was the Conference for Security and Co-operation in Europe (CSCE)?

A

The organization was established in 1973 as the Conference for Security and Co-operation in Europe (CSCE). Talks had been mooted about a European security grouping since the 1950s but the Cold War prevented any substantial progress until the talks at Finlandia Hall in Helsinki began in November 1972. These talks were held at the suggestion of the Soviet Union which wished to use the talks to maintain its control over the communist countries in Eastern Europe. Western Europe, however, saw these talks as a way to reduce the tension in the region, furthering economic cooperation and obtaining humanitarian improvements for the populations of the Communist Bloc. The collapse of Communism required a change of role for the CSCE. The Charter of Paris for a New Europe which was signed on November 21, 1990 marked the beginning of this change. With the changes capped by the re-naming of the CSCE to the OSCE (Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe) on January 1, 1995.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What was the European Defence Community?

A

The European Defence Community (EDC) was a plan proposed by René Pleven, the French foreign minister at the time, in response to the American call for the rearmament of West Germany. Its intention was to form a pan-European defence force as an alternative to Germany’s proposed accession to NATO, meant to harness its military potential in case of conflict with the Soviet bloc. The plan included the countries of France, Germany, Italy, and the Benelux countries (Belgium, the Netherlands and Luxemburg). A treaty was signed in May 1952, but the plan never went into effect. Because of the failure to obtain a majority in the French Parliament, due to Gaullist fears that it threatened France’s national sovereignty, constitutional concerns about the indivisibility of the French Republic, and fears about Germany’s remilitarization, the EDC was never ratified and the initiative collapsed on the 30 of August, 1954.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What was the first treaty to recognize and regulate diplomacy?

A

The Congress of Vienna in 1815.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What was the Organisation of African Unity?

A

The Organisation of African Unity (OAU) or Organisation de l’Unité Africaine (OUA) was established on May 25, 1963. It was disbanded July 9, 2002 by its last chairman, South African Thabo Mbeki and replaced by the African Union. Its intended purpose was to promote the unity and solidarity of the African States and act as a collective voice for the continent. It was also dedicated to the eradication of colonialism and established a Liberation Committee to aid independence movements. Its headquarters were established at Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, at the invitation of its emperor, Haile Selassie I. The Charter of the Organisation was signed by 32 independent African states. At the time of its disbanding, 53 out of the 54 countries in Africa were members; Morocco left in 1985 following the admission of Western Sahara in 1982. Though widely derided as a bureaucratic “talking shop” with little power, Ghanaian United Nations secretary-general Kofi Annan praised the OAU for bringing Africans together. Nevertheless, in its 39 years of existence critics argue that the OAU did little to protect the rights and liberties of African citizens from their own political leaders, often dubbing it “The Dictators Club”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What was the Southeast Asia Treaty Organization (SEATO)?

A

The Southeast Atlantic Treaty Organization (SEATO), also known as the Southeast Asia Collective Defense Treaty or the Manila Pact, was an international organisation for defence collaboration established on September 8, 1954. The organization’s headquarters was located in Bangkok, Thailand. It was dissolved in 1977. Members: Australia, France, New Zealand, Pakistan, Philippines, Thailand, Great Britain, U.S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What were the Helinski Accords?

A

The Helsinki Accords is the Final Act of the Conference on Security and Cooperation in Europe held in Helsinki in 1975 between the United States and Canada, the Soviet Union and the countries of Europe, including Turkey but not Albania and Andorra. The civil rights portion of the agreement provided the basis for the work of Helsinki Watch, an independent NGO created to monitor compliance to the Helsinki Accords (which evolved into several regional committees to finally form Human Rights Watch). While these provisions applied to all signatories the focus of attention was on their application to the Soviet Union and its associates, Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, East Germany, Hungary, Poland and Romania.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What were the results of Eisenhower’s 1955 “Open Skies” proposal?

A

At a Geneva Conference meeting with Soviet Premier Bulganin in 1955, President Eisenhower proposed that the United States and Soviet Union conduct surveillance overflights of each other’s territory to reassure each country that the other was not preparing to attack. The fears and suspicions of the Cold War led Soviet General Secretary Nikita Khruschev to reject Eisenhower’s proposal. Thirty-four years later, the Open Skies concept was reintroduced by President George H. W. Bush as a means to build confidence and security between all North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) and Warsaw Pact countries. In September 1989, an international Open Skies conference involving all NATO and Warsaw Pact countries opened in Ottawa, Canada. Subsequent rounds of negotiations over the next three years were held in Budapest, Hungary, Vienna, Austria, and Helsinki, Finland. On March 24, 1992, the Open Skies Treaty was signed in Helsinki by Secretary of State James Baker and foreign ministers from 23 other countries. The treaty entered into force on January 2, 2002, after Russia and Belarus completed ratification procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What year did the Nuclear Nonproliferation Treaty take effect? What countries had nues then and now?

A
  1. U.S., U.K., China, Russia, France had them then. Today Israel, Pakistan, and India do also.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When was Mercosur founded?

A

In 1991. It is a trading block of Brazil, Argentina, Paraguay, and Uruguay. Venezuela and Bolivia will become members soon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where do the majority of UN troops come from?

A

Smaller countries. The top 5 troop donating nations are India, Nigeria, Jordan, Bangladesh, and Australia. The US is the top money donator to the UN, but it donates few troops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which African countries are not part of the African Union?

A

Only Morocco. The African Union (abbreviated AU) was founded in July 2002. The AU is a federation consisting of 53 states. It was formed as a successor to the amalgamated African Economic Community (AEC) and the Organisation of African Unity (OAU). Eventually, the AU aims to have a single currency and a single integrated defense force, as well as other institutions of state, including a cabinet for the AU Head of State. The purpose of the federation is to help secure Africa’s democracy, human rights and a sustainable economy, especially by bringing an end to intra-African conflict and creating an effective common market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Who can participate in cases at the ICJ?

A

Cases can only be between states, both of whom have to accept the jurisdiction of the court to try the case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Who is brazil’s biggest trading partner?

A

The US.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Who is Desmond Tutu?

A

A South African cleric and activist who rose to worldwide fame during the 1980s as an opponent of apartheid. Tutu was the first black South African Anglican Archbishop of Cape Town, South Africa. He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1984.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Wilson Suffers Stroke

A

Oct. 3, 1919 – Wilson suffered a catastrophic, disabling stroke while campaigning for passage of the Versailles Treaty. The campaign was cut short and Wilson was never the same. This doomed any chance of passage of the treaty as Wilson, in this disabled state, withdrew from negotiations with Senate Republicans and refused to entertain any amendments to the treaty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

winner take all

A

another term for first past the post.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

World Court (International Court of Justice)

A

The judicial arm of the UN; located in The Hague, it hears only cases between states.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

world government

A

A centralized world governing body with strong enforcement powers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

World Health Organization (WHO)

A

Based in Geneva, it provides technical assistance to improve health conditions in the third world and conducts major immunization campaigns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

WTO

A

World Trade Organization - the organization that replaced GATT as an organization and now implements it as a treaty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Yalta

A

Feb. 1945 – Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin met face-to-face at Yalta in the U.S.S.R. to plan for the end of World War II. It was at this conference that Churchill and Roosevelt agreed to the Soviet occupation of much of Eastern Europe. Although the agreements provided for eventual free elections in the countries of Eastern Europe, the Soviets did not comply with that portion of the agreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Yom Kippur War

A

1973: Egypt & Syria attacked Israel. No changes in territory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Young Plan

A

1930 – program for settlement of German reparations debts after World War I. Under the previous Dawes plan (1924), it became apparent that Germany could not meet the huge annual payments, especially over an indefinite period of time. The Young Plan – which set the total reparations at $26,350,000,000 to be paid over a period of 581/2 years –was thus adopted by the Allied Powers in 1930,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Your boys are not going to be sent into any foreign wars.”

A

1940 – Franklin Roosevelt campaign promise of 1940, though he had already begun some preparations for war.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

zero-sum games

A

a two-person, two-sided game in which one player’s loss is the other player’s gain in equal measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Zionism

A

The belief that Jews are a nation and that they should have an independent homeland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

balance of terror

A

A balance of power between nations with nuclear weapons. MAD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Balkanization

A

Division of a place or country into several small political units, often unfriendly to one another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Banana republics

A

Term describing any of several small nations in Latin American that have economies based on a few agricultural crops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

brinkmanship

A

Policy of a nation that pushes a dangerous situation to the limits of safety before pulling back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Budestag

A

Lower house in Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Chauvinism

A

Exaggerated belief in the supremecy of one’s nation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Civil disobedience

A

The refusal to obey a lay out of a belief that the law is morally wrong. David Thoreau, Ghandi, Martin Luther King.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Coalition

A

an alliance of political groups formed to oppose a common foe or pursue a common goal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Confederation

A

A group of nations or states in which the component states retain considerable independence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Consent of the governed

A

A condition urged by many as a requirement for a legitimate government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

constitutional monarchy

A

a form of national government in which the power of the monarch is restricted by a parliament, by law or by custom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Court of St. James

A

Royal court of Britain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Demagogue

A

A politician who seeks to win and hold office by appeals to mass prejudice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Democracy

A

A system of government in which power is vested in the people, who rule either directly or through freely elected representatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Despotism

A

Unlimited political rule by one person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

détente

A

A period of lessening tension between two major national powers or a policy designed to lesson that tension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Dictatorship

A

Government by a singl person or bya junta or other group that is not responsible to thepeople or their elected representatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

dissidents

A

Persons who refuse to conform to prevailing political and social values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

escalation

A

An increase in the intensity of geographic scope of a war or diplomatic confrontation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Established church

A

A religious denomination that received financial and other support from the government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

expatriation.

A

Voluntary departure from the nation of one’s birth for permanent or prolonged residence in another nation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Extradition

A

Legal process by whih one government may obtain custody of individuals from another government in order to put them on trial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

general strike

A

a strike of all the workers in a nation or area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Gulag

A

a system of prison camps inside the former Soviety Union used for political prisoners. Under Stalin millions died in these camps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

gypsies

A

a nomadic people who originated in the region between India and Iran who migrated to Europe in the 14th century.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

International Court of Justice

A

A division of the UN that settles legal disputes submitted to it by member nations. Also called the World Court or the Hague.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Jingoism

A

Extreme and emotional nationalism, often characterized by an aggressive foreign policy, accompanied by an eagerness to wage war.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

John Bull

A

the UK uncle sam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Legitimate government

A

A government generally acknolwedged as being in control of a nation and deserving formal recognition by other countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

National liberation movements

A

Movements that arise in developing nations to expel colonial powers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Ombudsman

A

An official appointed by a government or other organization to investigate complains against people in authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

plebiscite

A

a vote of an entier nation or other large political unit on an issue of great importance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

plutocracy

A

government by the rich.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Pogram

A

Massacre or persecution instigated by the government against a minority group, especially Jews.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

protectorate

A

a relationship between a strong sovereign nation and a weak one. The strong then controls the weak.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Rapprochement

A

a closer approach of two groups to each other. A reconciliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

recognition

A

In diplomacy, the act by which one nation acknowledges that a foreign government is a legitimate government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

rehabilitation

A

The restoration to favor of a political leader whose views or actions were formally considered unacceptable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Reparation

A

compensation demanded by a victorious nation from a defeated nation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

reprisal

A

An act by which a nation seeks, short of war, to redress a wrong committed against it another nation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Sedition

A

Acts that incite rebellion or civil disorder against an established government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Sinn Fein

A

An Irish political party that has long combatted Britains’ influence in Ireland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Trotskyism

A

Believed that communish should depend on cooperation amonst all nations, not domination by the Soviet Union. Opposed by Stalin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The line below the “TO:” line is called what?

A

Subject

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What top-level domain is assigned to government organizations in the US?

A

.gov

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What top-level domain is assigned to colleges and universities in the US?

A

.edu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What top-level domain is assigned to most Canadian companies and organizations?

A

.ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What top-level domain is assigned to most French companies and organizations?

A

.fr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What top-level domain is assigned to non-profit organizations?

A

.org

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What top-level domain is assigned to the Department of Army?

A

.mil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

A .xls extension indicates what kind of file?

A

spreadsheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is a program or piece of code that is loaded onto your computer without your knowledge and runs against your wishes?

A

virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Files that are sent along with an email message are called?

A

attachments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What function do you use to automatically insert data from an xcel file to a word document?

A

Mail merge wizard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What top-level domain is assigned to most British companies and organizations?

A

.uk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Is www.whitehouse.com a government site?

A

No, it’s a porn site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

In Xcel, what function allows you to automatically list data in alphabetical order?

A

Data: Sort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

An element in an electronic document that links to another place in the same document or to an entirely different document is called what?

A

hyperlink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What does it mean to backup your files regularly?

A

To copy files to a second medium (a disk or tape) as a precaution in case the first medium fails.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What top-level domain is assigned to network organizaitons?

A

.net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is a domain name?

A

A name that identifies one or more IP addresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Why is broadcasting a useful feature in e-mail systems?

A

It allows you to simultaneously send the same message to multiple recipients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

In order to protect your Word file so that no one can change the content when shared, you must save the file as what?

A

read-only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

10Âroles involved in mgmt

A

interpersonal (figurehead, leader, liaison), informational (monitor, desseminator, spokesperson), decisional (entrepreneur, distrubance handler, resource-allocator, negotiator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

3 levels of mgmt

A

top (upper) - president, chief executive; middle - district manger, base commander; first-line (lower-level, front-line, supervisory) - foreman, head nurse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

3 phases of decision-making

A

intelligence (gathering knowledge leading to an understanding of what decision will have to be made, etc.), design (alternative courses of actions are invented), choice (actual decision is made)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

3 skills involved in mgmt

A

technical, interpersonal, conceptual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

4 functions of managers

A

planning, organizing, leading, and controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

5 management process functions

A

planning, organizing, staffing, directing and

controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

5 Types of managers

A

line, staff, functional, general, and administrators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q
  1. McCellands Theory Achievement:
A

the desire to excel or achieve in relation to a set of standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q
  1. McCellands Theory power
A

the desire to control overs and have influence over them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

8 Key Results Areas

A

market share, productivity, profitability, innovation, resources, worker performance and morale, manager performance and development, social responsibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Absolute comparisons

A

a process in which each criterion is compared to a standard or ranked on its own merits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Accommodative strategy

A

a social responsiveness strategy in which a company accepts responsibility for a problem and does all the society expects to solve that problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Action plan

A

the specific steps, people, and resources needed to accomplish a goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Activity in control process

A

Establishing performance standers, Measuring performance, Comparing measured performance to established standers, Talking corrective actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Administrative Principles

A

Foresight, Organization, Command, Coordination, Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Administrators

A

work in public and nonprofit organizations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Advocacy groups

A

groups of concerned citizens who band together to try to influence the business practices of specific industries, businsesses and professions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

After the fact controls

A

Current policies and procedures may prescribe corrective actions. Corrective action may call for exceptions to prescribed modes of behavior – doing whatever it takes to solve the problem may require empowering employees to use their imitative, discretion and good judgment to craft a unique of creative solution. Correction may be under automatic controls; check that these controls are not malfunctioning .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

application blank

A

any form on which the employer asks the candidate to provide info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

arbitration

A

a dispute resolution procedure in which an independent third party decides and recommends how the disagreement should be resolved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

A-type Conflict (affective)

A

disagreement that focusses on individual or personal issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Autocratic Leaders

A

Directive leaders who prefer to make decisions and solve problems on their own with little input from subordinates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

autocratic leadership style

A

when a leader does not take advice from subbordinates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Autocratic Style

A

A leader who tended to centralize authority, dictate work methods, make unilateral decisions, and limit employee participation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Balance Sheet

A

546 A plan and control for the receipt and spending of income over a fixed period Assests= liabilities + shareholders equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

behavior modification

A

application to problems of industrial mgmtÂof the reinforcement theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Behavioral addiction

A

the process of having managers and employees perform new behaviors that are central to symbolic of the new organizational culture a company wants to create

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

behavioral approach

A

focus on what effective leaders did - how they behaved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Behavioral substitution

A

the process of having managers and employees perform new behaviors central to the new organizational cutlrure in place of behaviors that were central to the old organizational culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Behavioral Theories

A

Leadership theories that identified behaviors that differentiated effective leaders from ineffective leader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Bona Fide Occupational Qualifications (BFOQ)

A

Ârequires job candidate’s race, color, etc. may not be considered or asked about in the hiring process unless legitimately related to job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

bounded rationalityÂ

A

real-world decision-maker has his thinking limited by such things as societal and organizational norms and impracticality of obtaining all possible info about problem or alternatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Brainstorming

A

a decision-making method in which group members build on each others’ ideas and generate many alternative solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

budget

A

single-use plan - plan for use of resources (usu. along w/ expected results stated in quantitative terms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Budgeting

A

quantitative planning trough which mangers decide how to allocate available money to best accomplish company goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Bureaucracy

A

the exercise of control on the basis of knowledge, expertise, or experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

bureaucracy theory - 3 kinds of authority

A

traditional (the way it’s always been done); charismatic (leader has magnetism); rational-legal (based on expertise, training, experience)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Bureaucratic Organization

A

Bureaucracy: An ideal, intentionally rational, and very efficient form of organization. Based on principles of logic, order, and legitimate authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Business confidence indices

A

indices that show managers’ level of confidence about future business growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Buyers dependence

A

the degree to which a supplier relies on a buyer because of the importance of that buyer to supplier and the difficulty of finding other buyers for it products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Characteristic of org information

A

information Data that have been deliberately selected, processed, and organized to be useful to an individual manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Characteristics of a leader

A

guide, direct, persuade, coach, counsel and inspire others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Characteristics of bureaucratic organizations:

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Characteristics of multicultural organizations:

A

Pluralism, Structural integration, Informal network integration, Absence of prejudice and discrimination, Minimum intergroup conflict.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Charismatic leader

A

An leader whose personality and actions influence people to behave in certain ways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Chester Barnard

A

saw organization as open system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Chief information officer

A

the person over a group that is centralized IS serving the entire organization’s needs placed under the control of a top-level manager and link them to top for control , coordination, and guidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Child labor

A

full-time employment of children for work otherwise done by adults.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Civil Rights Act of 1964 (part of EEO)

A

major piece of the structure of civil rights and EEO legislation; see Title VII.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Classical (administrative) Mgmt

A

Frenchman Henri Fayol “father of modern mgmt”, first to distinguish the functions of mgmt, developed 14 principles of mgmt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Closed systems

A

systems that can sustain themselves without interacting with their environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

closed systemsÂ

A

one you can analyze as though it is in a black box w/ impenetrable boundaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

coercive power

A

based on ability to inflict punishment or deprive others of something valued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Cognitive maps

A

graphic depictions of how mangers believe environmental factors relate to possible organizational actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

collective attitudes

A

The attitudes workers have about their work life and their work life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Command

A

to lead, select, and evaluate workers to get the best work toward the plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Companies achieve competitive advantage by:

A

Products, Pricing, Customer service, Cost efficiency, Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Company vision

A

a business;s purpose or reason for existing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Competitive advantage

A

a core competency that clearly sets an organization apart from competitors and gives it an advantage over them in the marketplace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Competitive analysis

A

is a process for monitoring the competition that involves identifying competition, anticipating their moves, and determining their strengths and weaknesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Competitors

A

companies in the same industry that sell similar products or services to customers

202
Q

Complex environment

A

an environment with many environmental factors

203
Q

Concentration of effect

A

the total harm or benefit that an act produces on the average person

204
Q

Conceptual Skills

A

A managers ability to view the organization as a whole, understand how the various parts are interdependent, and assess how the organization relates to its external environment.

205
Q

conditional value

A

payoff you think would happen under condition of each of the states of nature

206
Q

Consensual Leaders

A

Leaders who encourage discussion about issues and then require that all parties involved agree to the final decision.

207
Q

consideration

A

leadership behaviors include showing interest in the personal life and well-being of the employee, being warm and friendly, and listening to the employee’s ideas

208
Q

Constant organizational culture

A

when a company actively defines and teaches organizational values, beliefs, and attitudes

209
Q

Consultative Leaders

A

Leaders who confer with subordinates before making a decision but who retain the final decision-making authority.

210
Q

Contingency approach

A

holds that there are no universal management theories and that the most effective management theory or idea depends on the kinds of problems or situations that managers are facing at a particular time and place.

211
Q

Contingency Plan

A

Plans that identify alternative courses of action for very unusual or crisis situations; typically stipulate the chain of command, standard operating procedures, and communication channels the organization will use during and emergency.

212
Q

Contingency Theory of Leadership Effectiveness

A

Fred Fiedler; effectiveness of a particular leadership style depends on the situation

213
Q

Control

A

to make sure things happen according to plan and to take necessary corrective action.

214
Q

Controlling

A

The process of assessing the organizations progress toward accomplishing its goals; includes monitoring the implementation of a plan and correcting deviations from it.

215
Q

controlling function

A

making sure things are being done in a way that we want; the reverse of planning (measure/observe how much performance is deviating from plans)

216
Q

Conventional level of moral development

A

the second level of moral development in which people make decisions that conform to societal expectations

217
Q

Coordination

A

to fit diverse efforts together and ensure information is shared and problems solved.

218
Q

Corporate Culture

A

The set of attitudes, values, and standards that distinguishes one organization from another.

219
Q

corporation

A

fiction, acts as human being

220
Q

Corruption

A

illegal practices that further one’s business interests.

221
Q

cost-benefit analysis

A

any systematic comparison of what a system/program or capital good will cost compared w/ revenues or benefits that will be generated

222
Q

Credibility

A

The degree to which followers perceive someone as honest, competent, and able to inspire

223
Q

C-Type conflict (cognitive)

A

disagreement that focuses on problem-and issue-related differences of opinion

224
Q

Culture

A

The shared set of beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior common to a group of people.

225
Q

Customer-Driven Organizations

A

Customers want: High quality, Low price, On-time delivery

226
Q

decision criteria

A

musts and NTH’s (“nice to have’s”)

227
Q

Decision making

A

the process of choosing a solution from available alternatives

228
Q

Decision Support System

A

A specialized variant of a CIS an analytic model that joins a manager’s experience, judgment, and intuition

229
Q

Decisional Roles

A

A managers activities as an entrepreneur, resource allocator, conflict resolver, or negotiator.

230
Q

decision-making done under 3 conditions

A

certainty, risk, uncertainty

231
Q

decision-making done under certainty

A

outcome or payoff for an alternative has a probability of 1.0 (few real-world examples)

232
Q

decision-making done under risk

A

probability of event is known or can be estimated - can be assigned a value from 0 to 1.0

233
Q

decision-making done under uncertainty

A

probability of event unknown, cannot be estimated

234
Q

Defensive strategy

A

a social responsiveness strategy in which a company does less than society expects

235
Q

Delphi method

A

an approach to technological forecasting; used w/ expert respondents in the field of interest; getting individuals to state their judgments, review them, and make a final judgment about some question

236
Q

Delphi technique

A

a decision-making method in which members of a panel of experts respond to questions and to each other until reaching agreement on an issue

237
Q

Democratic Leaders

A

Leaders who solicit input from all members of the group and then allow the members to make the final decision through a vote.

238
Q

Democratic Style

A

A leader who tended to involve employees in decision making, delegate authority, encourage participation in deciding work methods and goals, and use feedback as an opportunity for coaching employees

239
Q

Designing acceptable controls

A

focus on critical control points, integration, acceptability, timeliness, feasibility, accuracy and comprehensibility.

240
Q

Devil’s advocacy

A

a decision-making method in which an individual or a sub group is assigned the role of a critic

241
Q

direct investment

A

e.g. building a hotel in another country

242
Q

directing (leading) function

A

guiding and influencing people to seek organizational objectives

243
Q

directive leadership

A

House’s Path-Goal theory; used in complex, non-routine jobs

244
Q

Discretionary responsibility

A

the expectation that a company will voluntarily serve a social role beyond its economic, legal and ethical responsibilities

245
Q

Disseminator role

A

the informational role managers play when they share information with others in their departments or companies

246
Q

Distal goals

A

short-term goals or subgoals

247
Q

Disturbance handler role

A

the decisional role managers play when they respond to sever problems that demand immediate action

248
Q

Diversity

A

Describes differences among people at work.How diversity is handled in the workplace reflects the organization’s culture

249
Q

Dynamic environment

A

an environment in which the rate of change is fast

250
Q

economic forecastingÂ

A

uses variety of methods to predict general levels of economic activity for a locality, region, country or the whole world

251
Q

Economic responsibility

A

the expectation that a company will make a profit by producing a valued product or service

252
Q

Efficiency

A

getting work done with a minimum of effort, expense, or waste

253
Q

Electronic Brainstorming

A

a decision-making method in which group members use computers to build on each others’ ideas and generate many alternative solutions

254
Q

Elements of observable culture

A

Stories, Heroes, Rites and rituals, Symbols

255
Q

Elton Mayo

A

Hawthorne Studies, Human Relations Mvt, Behavioral Approach

256
Q

Employee shrinkage

A

employee theft of company merchandise

257
Q

Empowerment

A

The process of giving employees increased autonomy and discretion to make decision. as well as control over the resources needed to implement those decisions.

258
Q

Entrepreneur Role

A

the decisional role managers play when they adapt themselves, their subordinates, and their units to change

259
Q

Environmental change

A

the rate at which a company’s general and specific environments change

260
Q

Environmental complexity

A

the number of external factors in the environment that affect organizations

261
Q

Environmental scanning

A

searching the environment for important events or issues that might affect an organization

262
Q

Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO)

A

refers to legislation and governmental and org. policies that require that all persons have the same treatment

263
Q

Equal Pay Act of 1963 (part of EEO)

A

men and women performing the same work must get the same pay

264
Q

Equity theoryÂ

A

Âpeople try to maintain or est. an equality b/w their own ratio of what they put in to a job vs. what they get out of it [I/O (self) = I/O (other)]

265
Q

ERG Hiearchy

A

a motivation category that uses three types of needs, existence, relatedness and growth needs.

266
Q

ERISA (Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974)

A

est. standards for company retirement plans

267
Q

ethical behavior

A

behavior that conforms to a society;s accepted principles of right and wrong

268
Q

Ethical intensity

A

the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue

269
Q

Ethical Issues for Multinational Corporations

A

Corruption, Sweatshops, Child labor, Sustainable development

270
Q

Ethical responsibility

A

a company’s social responsibility nnot to violate accepted principles of right and wrong when conducting its business

271
Q

Ethics

A

the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group

272
Q

Ethics training

A

Structured programs that help participants to understand ethical aspects of decision making. Helps people incorporate high ethical standards into daily life.

273
Q

Evaluation apprehension

A

fear of what others will think of your ideas

274
Q

exception principle

A

once procedures, policies, and other plans have been est. and are working, mgmt should focus on the exceptions where performance does not meet standards

275
Q

existence needs

A

the need related to a person’s well being

276
Q

expected value

A

conditional value of alternative times probability of state of nature

277
Q

expert opinion

A

method of sales forecasting; asking marketing executives what they expect will happen

278
Q

Expert Power

A

Power that is derived from an individuals extensive knowledge in one or more areas.

279
Q

External environments

A

all events outside a company that have the potential to influence or affect it

280
Q

Feed Foward Control

A

A control that prevents defects and deviations from standards by focusing on operations before they begin

281
Q

Fiedler contingency model

A

A contigency theory that proposed that effective group performance depended upon the proper match between a leader’s style of interacting with his or her followers and the degree to which the situation allowed the leader to control and influence

282
Q

Figurehead role

A

the interpersonal role managers play when they perform ceremonial duties

283
Q

first principle of Scientific Mgmt

A

scientific study of work - use systematic procedures, gather info, est. method of performance

284
Q

First-Line managers

A

managers who train and supervise the performance of non managerial employees who are directly responsible for producing the company’s products or services

285
Q

forecasting

A

early step in planning process; est. premises or assumptions on which plans will be based

286
Q

Foresight

A

to complete a plan of action for the future.

287
Q

Forms of International Business

A

?

288
Q

fourth principle of Scientific Mgmt

A

work to be divided b/w mgmt and workers

289
Q

Frank and Lilian GilbrethÂ

A

Scientific Mgmt, “One Best Way”, Science of Bricklaying

290
Q

Frederick W. Taylor

A

“Father of Scientific Mgmt”

291
Q

Free reign style

A

when a leader asks his friends and subordinates to take over his leadership position, is characterized by delegation, and his willingness to give advice.

292
Q

Free-rein (Laissez-fair) Leadership

A

A leadership style in which the leader turns over all authority and control to subordinates.

293
Q

Fritz Roethlisberger

A

Hawthorne Studies, Behavioral Approach, Human Relations

294
Q

Functional managers

A

are responsible for a single area of activity.

295
Q

Gantt chart

A

a graphic chart that shows tasks must be completed at which times in order to complete a project or task

296
Q

General environment

A

the economic, technological, sociocultural, and political trends that indirectly affect all organizations

297
Q

General managers

A

are responsible for more complex units that include many functional areas.

298
Q

global company

A

sells a single product all over the world

299
Q

Global Diversity

A

?

300
Q

Global Management Skills

A

A managers ability to operate in diverse culture environments.

301
Q

Globalization

A

NAME?

302
Q

Goal of controls

A

Planning, organizing, leading and staffing

303
Q

goal setting theory

A

people work harder to achieve goals that are specific, accepted by them, and challenging

304
Q

goals

A

Âdesired end states

305
Q

Groupthink

A

a barrier to good decision making caused by pressure within a group for members to agree with each other

306
Q

growth needs

A

needs that relate to a person’s achievement and competence.

307
Q

Hawthorne studies: Employee attitudes, interpersonal relations and group processes.

A

Some things satisfied some workers but not others. People restricted output to adhere to group norms.

308
Q

Hawthorne studies: Lessons from the Hawthorne Studies:

A

Social and human concerns are keys to productivity. Hawthorne effect — people who are singled out for special attention perform as expected.

309
Q

Henri Fayol

A

Classical Approach, Functions of Mgmt, 14 Principles of Mgmt, “Father of Modern Mgmt”

310
Q

Henry L. GanttÂ

A

Scientific Mgmt, Gantt Charts for Scheduling

311
Q

Henry MintzbergÂ

A

Mangerial Roles - Interpersonal, Informational, Decisional

312
Q

Herbert Simon

A

adminstrative man model of decision-making; 3 phases of decision making (Nobel prize winner)

313
Q

Herzberg’s hygiene (dissatisfier) factors

A

extrinsic to work (working conditions, company policy, supervision, pay, benefits); keep employee from quitting (do not motivate exceptional performance

314
Q

Herzberg’s motivator (satisfier) factors

A

recognition, responsibility, achievement, etc., intrinsic

315
Q

Herzberg’s Two-Factor (Motivator-Hygiene) Theory

A

motivators lead to extraordinary job performance while hygiene factors keep employee showing up and doing the minimum necessary

316
Q

hierarchy of plans

A

planning flows in a top-down sequence from overall vision to more specific detailed level of plans

317
Q

High-High leader

A

A leader high in both initiating structure and consideration behaviors

318
Q

Human relations (behavioral) perspective

A

Hawthorne studies

319
Q

Human Relations Skills

A

a managers interpersonal skills that are used to accomplish goals through the use of human resources.

320
Q

human skills

A

the ability to work well with other

321
Q

Implementing CIS

A

Computer operations, System programming, Data entry, Application development, Application maintenance, data management, Communication management End-user computing

322
Q

Industry regulation

A

regulations and rules that govern the business practices and procedures of specific industries, businesses, and professions

323
Q

influence

A

viewed as the essence or equivalent of leadership by some; ability to get others to do something desired by the person doing the influencing

324
Q

Informational Roles

A

A managers activities as an information gatherer, information disseminator, or spokesperson for the company.

325
Q

initiating structure

A

involves giving direction and orders, clarifying jobs and roles, explaining objectives and pressuring subordinates for task performance

326
Q

innovation

A

introduction of things that are new - technology, methods, ideas, and new products and services

327
Q

Integrative conflict resolution

A

an approach to dealing with conflict in which both parties deal with the conflict by indicating their preferences and hen working together to find an alternative that meets the needs of both

328
Q

Intellectual capital & Knowledge Workers

A

NAME?

329
Q

Internal environment

A

the events and trends inside an organization that affect management, employees, and organizaional cutlture

330
Q

International Business Environments

A

?

331
Q

Interpersonal Roles

A

A mangers activities as a figurehead, company leader, or liaison.

332
Q

job enlargement

A

(horizontally)Â addding duties of a similar level of skill at the same organizational level (horizontal loading)

333
Q

job enrichmentÂ

A

(vertically)Â redesigning jobs to hold more motivator factors; implies increasing the depth of the job by giving it planning and controlling elements

334
Q

Key customer service lessons:

A

Protect reputation for quality products. Treat customers right.

335
Q

Laissez-Faire Style

A

A leader who generally gave the group complete freedom to make decisions and complete the work in whatever way it saw fit

336
Q

Landrum-Griffin Act (1959)

A

attempted to eliminate racketeering from org. labor, to promote union democracy and self-government, and to provide for closer supervision by the Federal gov.

337
Q

Laws, Values, & Ethical Behavior

A

Legal behavior is not necessarily ethical behavior. Personal values help determine individual ethical behavior: Terminal values and Instrumental values

338
Q

Leader

A

Someone who can influence others and who has managerial authority

339
Q

Leader participation model

A

A leadership contingency model that related leadership behavior and participation in decision making

340
Q

Leader role

A

the interpersonal role managers play when they motivate and encourage workers to accomplish organizational objectives

341
Q

Leader-member relations

A

One of Fiedler’s situational contingencies that described the degree of confidence, trust, and respect employees had for their leader

342
Q

Leadership

A

The process of guiding and motivating others toward the achievement of organizational goals.

343
Q

Leadership ability

A

Social skills,cleverness, creativity, diplomacy,tact, fluency in speaking,knowledge about group task, organizational ability, and persuasiveness.

344
Q

Leadership Style

A

The relatively consistent way in which individuals in leadership positions attempt to influence the behaviour of others.

345
Q

Leadership style: negative

A

Uses fines, termination and suspensions to motivate people

346
Q

Leadership style: posetive vs. negative motivation

A

rewards praises and promotion are the approach that a posetive leader takes

347
Q

leading

A

inspiring people to work hard to acheive high performance

348
Q

Leading

A

Inspiring and motivating workers to work hard to achieve organizational goals

349
Q

Learning Organizations

A

Organizations that are able to continually learn and adapt to new circumstances.

350
Q

Learning Organizations, Core ingredients include:

A

Mental models, Personal mastery, Systems thinking, Shared vision, Team learning

351
Q

Legal responsibility

A

a company’s social responsibility to obey society’s laws and regulations

352
Q

Legitimate Power

A

Power that is derived from and individuals position in an organization.

353
Q

Liaison role

A

the interpersonal role managers play when they deal with people outside their units

354
Q

Line managers

A

are responsible for work activities that directly affect organization’s outputs.

355
Q

long-range plans

A

covering a period of more than one year into the future

356
Q

Magnitude of consequence

A

the total harm or benefit derived from an ethical decision

357
Q

Management

A

The Process of guiding the development, maintenance, and allocation of resources to attain organizational goals.

358
Q

Management by objectives (MBO)

A

a four-step process in which manger and employees discuss and select goals develop tactical plans and meet regularly to review progress toward goal accomplishment. brings planning process down to the individual; Peter Drucker; judge employee performance on basis of results rather than telling him or her what to do every step of the way

359
Q

manager performance and development

A

deal w/ a critical aspect of the firm - quality of mgmt and continuous availability and updating of managerial competence

360
Q

Managerial grid

A

A grid of two leadership behaviors - concern for people and concern for production - which resulted in five different leadership styles

361
Q

market research

A

asking customers what they think

362
Q

market share

A

the enterprise’s proportion or percentage of total sales in a region, country, or the world

363
Q

Maslow’s esteem needs

A

fourth level; needs for recognition and respect

364
Q

Maslows Hearchy of needs

A

physical, servival, social, esteem, and self realization needs

365
Q

Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory

A

human needs arranged in 5 groups in a hierarchy of pre-potency (lower needs must be satisfied first)

366
Q

Maslow’s physiological needs

A

lowest level; hunger, thirst

367
Q

Maslow’s safety needs

A

second level; physical safety, health, job security

368
Q

Maslow’s self-actualization needs

A

fifth (top) level; become what you are capable of becoming

369
Q

Maslow’s social needs

A

third level; love (friendship, conversation, etc.)

370
Q

Maximizing

A

choosing the best alternative

371
Q

McCellands Theory friendship

A

The desire for friendship, affiliation and close interpersonal relationships.

372
Q

Media advocacy

A

an advocacy group tactic that involves framing issues as public issues

373
Q

Middle Management

A

Managers who design and carry out tactical plans in specific areas of the company.

374
Q

Mission

A

a statement of a company’s overall goal that unifies company-wide efforts toward its vision, stretches and challenges the organization, and processes a finish line and a time frame

375
Q

Mission Statement

A

A formal document that states and organizations purpose and reason for existing; and describes its basic philosophy.

376
Q

Monitor Role

A

the informational role managers play when they scan their environment for information

377
Q

Motion study

A

breaking each task or job into its separate motions and then eliminating those that are unnecessary or repetitive

378
Q

Motivation to manage

A

an assessment of how enthusiastic employees are about managing the work of others

379
Q

motivator factors

A

responsibiltiy, opportunities for professional growth, achievement and recognition

380
Q

Negotiator role

A

the decisional role managers play when they negotiate schedules, projects, goals, outcomes, resources, and employee raises

381
Q

Nominal group technique

A

a decision-making method that begins and ends by having group members quietly write down and evaluate ideas to be shared with the group

382
Q

Non-programmed Decisions

A

Responses to infrequent, unforeseen, or very unusual problems and opportunities, where the manager does not have a precedent to follow in decision-making.

383
Q

Number of team members

A

Is best when their are twelve and under members.

384
Q

Objective goals

A

Planning, Organizing, Leading and Staffing

385
Q

objectives

A

results, attainments, or accomplishments used as the end points for plans and actions (narrower than a goal)

386
Q

Open system

A

systems that can sustain themselves only by interacting with their environment, on which they depend for their survival

387
Q

operational (action) planning

A

provides the detailed plans and assignments of responsibilities and authority required to execute strategic plans

388
Q

Opportunistic behavior

A

a transaction in which one party in the relationship benefits at the expense of the other

389
Q

optimizing

A

strategy of mythical rational-economic man who knows all

390
Q

Options-based panning

A

maintaining flexibility by making small, simultaneous investments in many alternative plans

391
Q

Organization

A

to provide and mobilize resources to implement the plan.

392
Q

Organizational Culture

A

the system of shared beliefs and values that develops within an organization and guides the behavior of its members.

393
Q

Organizing

A

The process of coordinating and allocating a firms resources to carry out its plans.

394
Q

organizing function

A

dividing work, grouping resources, est. structure of authority/responsibility, devising means for coordination of parts

395
Q

organizing process

A

determines what tasks will have to be
done to accomplish objectives, how they
will be grouped, and how positions relate
to each other

396
Q

OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Act (1970)

A

est. standards for health/safety at work, provides for their administration by Occupational Safety and Health Administration (also OSHA)

397
Q

Overt integrity test

A

a written test that estimates job applicants’ honesty by directly asking them what they think or feel about theft or about punishment of unethical behaviors

398
Q

Participative Leadership

A

A leadership style in which the leader shares decision-making with group members and encourages discussion of issues and alternatives; includes democratic, consensual, and consultative styles.

399
Q

Path-goal theory

A

A leadership theory that says it’s the leader’s job to assist his or her followers in attaining their goals

400
Q

payoff matrix

A

Âtabular display of 2 or more strategies or choices; conditional values of each under 2 or more possible states of nature; probabilities of these states of nature, resulting expected values; and total expected value

401
Q

Personal agression

A

hostile or aggressive behavior toward othera

402
Q

Personality-based integrity test

A

a written test that indirectly estimates job applicants; honesty by measuring psychological traits, such as dependability and conscientiousness

403
Q

Planning

A

choosing a goal and developing a strategy to achieve that goal

404
Q

planning process

A

est. goals, identify problems, find

solutions, decide b/w alternatives, etc.

405
Q

Policy

A

a standing plan that indicated the general course of action that should be taken in response to a particular event or situation

406
Q

Political deviance

A

using one’s influences to harm others in the company

407
Q

Popular dimensions of culture

A

Language, Interpersonal space, Time orientation, Religion, Contracts and agreements

408
Q

portfolio investment

A

e.g. buying stock in companies from other countries

409
Q

Position Power

A

One of Fiedler’s situational contingencies that described the degree of influence a leader had over power-based activities such as hiring, firing, discipline, promotions, and salary increases

410
Q

positive reinforcement

A

an event which follows behavior and increases the likelihood that it will occur again

411
Q

Post conventional level of moral development

A

the third level of moral development in which people make decisions based on internalized principles

412
Q

Power

A

The ability to influence others to behave in a particular way.

413
Q

Pre conventional level of moral development

A

the first level of moral development in which people make decisions based on selfish resons

414
Q

premises of planning

A

refers to forecasts about the future environment which serve as the assumptions on which planning is based

415
Q

primacy of mgmt

A

planning must occur before other mgmt

functions can take place

416
Q

Primary stakeholder

A

any group on which an organization relies for its long-term survival

417
Q

Principle of distributive justice

A

an ethical principle that holds that you should never take any action that harms the least fortunate among us

418
Q

Principle of government requirements

A

an ethical principle that holds that you should never take any action that violates the law, for the law represents the minimal moral standard

419
Q

Principle of individual rights

A

an ethical principle that holds that you should never take any action that infringes on others; agreed-upon rights

420
Q

Principle of long-term self interest

A

an ethical principle that holds that you should never take any action that is not in you or your organizations long term self-interest

421
Q

Principle of personal virtue

A

an ethical principle that holds that you should never do anything that is not honest, open, and truthful

422
Q

Principle of religious injunctions

A

an ethical principle that holds that you should never take any action that is not kind and that does not build a sense of community

423
Q

Principle of utilitarian benefit

A

an ethical principle that holds that you should never take any action that does not result in greater good for society

424
Q

Proactice strategy

A

a social responsiveness strategy in which a company anticipates responsibility for a problem before it occurs and does more than society expects to address the problem

425
Q

Probability of effect

A

the chance that something will happen and then harm other

426
Q

Problem

A

a gap between a desired state and an existing state

427
Q

problem-solving

A

part of planning process in which problems are defined, understanding of cause-and-effect relationships is acquired, and alternative courses of action are identified

428
Q

Procedure

A

a standing plan that indicates the specific steps that should be taken in response to a particular event

429
Q

Product boycott

A

an advocacy group tactic that involves protesting a company’s action by convincing consumers not to purchase its products or service

430
Q

Production blocking

A

a disadvantage of face-to-face brainstorming in which a group member must wait to share an idea because another member is presenting an idea

431
Q

Production deviance

A

unethical behavior that hurts the quality and quantity of work produced

432
Q

productivity

A

output divided by input; determinants include efficiency of labor, technology and capital, and competence of mgmt

433
Q

profitability

A

(goes beyond dollars) - the benefit resulting from an activity

434
Q

Programmed Decisions

A

Decisions made in response to frequently occurring routine situations.

435
Q

programs

A

single-use plans - broad, long-term, covering specified time period (e.g. putting a man on the moon)

436
Q

projects

A

single-use plans - shorter time span, narrowly focused; bring people together to accomplish a task (e.g. moving furniture)

437
Q

Property deviance

A

unethical behavior aimed at the organization;s property or products

438
Q

Proximal goals

A

short- term goals or subgoals

439
Q

Proximity of effect

A

the social, psychological, cultural, or physical distance between a decision make and those affected by his or her decisions

440
Q

Public communications

A

an advocacy group tactic that relies on voluntary participation by the news media and the advertising industry to get the advocacy group’s message out

441
Q

quality work life

A

factors in a work environment that are negative or positive that affect an inviduals work life, well being and job satisfaction.

442
Q

Rate buster

A

a group of members whos work pace is significantly faster than the normal

443
Q

Rational decision making

A

a systematic process of defining problems, evaluating alternatives, and choosing optimal solutions

444
Q

Raw Data

A

Unprocessed facts and figures

445
Q

Reactive strategy

A

a social responsiveness strategy in which a company does less than society expects

446
Q

Readiness

A

The extent to which people have the ability and willingness to accomplish a specific task

447
Q

recruitment

A

part of staffing function; attracting job candidates to the org. so that they may go through the selection process

448
Q

referent power

A

Âbased on the follower’s liking, admiration or respect for the leader

449
Q

Referent Power

A

Power that is derived from an individuals personal charisma and the respect and/or admiration the individual inspires.

450
Q

Reinforcement TheoryÂ

A

Ârefers to learning theory and similar behavioristic approaches to understanding and controlling behavior

451
Q

relatedness needs

A

are the need to relate to people

452
Q

RElationship behavior

A

mutually beneficial, long-term exchanges between buyers and suppliers

453
Q

Relative comparisons

A

a process in which each criterion is compared directly to every other

454
Q

Resource allocator role

A

the decisional role managers play when they decide who gets what resources

455
Q

Resource scarcity

A

the abundance or shortage of critical organizational resources in an organization’s external environment

456
Q

resources

A

include capital, physical plant and equipment

457
Q

responsibility

A

an obligation to complete a task or achieve some goal

458
Q

Reward Power

A

The power a leader has because of his or her ability to give positive benefits or rewards

459
Q

role conflict

A

conflicting expectations of job behavior held

460
Q

rolling plan

A

a long-range plan that is updated periodically and extended again

461
Q

rule

A

standing plan - prescribes or prohibits behavior in specific terms

462
Q

Rules and regulations

A

standing plans that describe how a particular action should be preformed or what must happen or not happen in response to a particular event

463
Q

sales forecasting

A

includes the predicted demand for the goods and services provided by the organization; of vital importance for operational and production planning

464
Q

satisfices

A

accepts soln that meets his criteria, not necessarily the best possible soln

465
Q

Satisfying

A

choosing a “good enough” alternative

466
Q

scalar (chain of command) principle

A

Fayol - should be a single, clear, and unbroken line of authority from the top of the organization to each subordinate position

467
Q

Scientific Management

A

NAME?

468
Q

second principle of Scientific Mgmt

A

select workers systematically and scientifically

469
Q

Secondary stakeholder

A

any group that can influence or be influenced by a company and can affect public perceptions about its socially responsible behavior

470
Q

selection process

A

Âpart of staffing function; gather info about candidates, choosing those who meet the org.’s criteria

471
Q

sense of ethics

A

ideas of what is right and equitable and fair

472
Q

Shareholder model

A

a view of social responsibility that holds that an organization’s overriding goal should be to maximize profit for the benefit of shareholders

473
Q

Simple environment

A

an environment with few environmental factors

474
Q

Single-use plans

A

plans that coer unique, one-time-only events

475
Q

Situational Leadership Theory (SLT)

A

A leadership theory that focuses on followers readiness

476
Q

slack resources

A

a cushion of extra resources that can be used with options-based planning to adapt to unanticipated change, problems, o opportunities

477
Q

SMART goals

A

goals that are specific measurable attainable, realistic and timely

478
Q

Social consensus

A

agreement on whether behavior is bad or good

479
Q

social responsibilities

A

include obligation to perform the organization’s primary function (e.g. make a profit), but to do so in a way that does not have harmful side effects to society

480
Q

Social responsiveness

A

refers to a company;s strategy for responding to stakeholders’ economic, legal, ethical, or discretionary expectations concerning social responsibility

481
Q

Soldiering

A

when workers deliberately slow their pace or restrict their work outputs

482
Q

span of control

A

there is a limit to the number of subordinates a single person can supervise

483
Q

specialization (division of labor)

A

dividing the work into very simple or basic tasks

484
Q

Specific environment

A

the customers, competitors, suppliers, industry, regulations, and advocacy groups that are unique to an industry and directly affect how a company does business

485
Q

Spokesperson role

A

the informational role managers play when they share information with people outside their departments or companies

486
Q

Stable environment

A

an environment in which the rate of change is slow

487
Q

staff mangers

A

use technical expertise to advise and support the efforts of line workers.

488
Q

staffing function

A

provides the right people to fill the
structure designed by the organizing
function. human resources (personnel) mgmt

489
Q

staffing process

A

same as personnel process; includes manpower planning, recruitment, selection, orientation, training, etc.

490
Q

Stages in adjusting to a new culture:

A

Confusion, Small victories, The honeymoon, Irritation and anger, Reality

491
Q

Stages of team development: form development

A

the stage where the members are becoming aquainted

492
Q

stages of team development: normative stage

A

The stage where the team is unified, and focused and all problems are resolved.

493
Q

stages of team development: performing stage

A

phase of team development in which team members progress toward team objectives , handle problems, coordinate work , and confront each other if necessary.

494
Q

Stages of team development: storming stage

A

the stage where the teams development starts happening through personality conflict and personality issues

495
Q

Stakeholder Issues and Analysis

A

Those persons, groups, and other organizations directly affected by the behavior of the organization and holding a stake in its performance:Employees, Customers, Suppliers, Owners, Competitors, Regulators, Interest groups.

496
Q

stakeholder model

A

a theory of corporate responsibility that holds that management’s most important responsibility, long-term survival, is achieved by satisfying the interests of multiple corporate stakeholders

497
Q

Stakeholders

A

persons or groups with a “stake” or legitimate interest in a company’s action

498
Q

Standing plans

A

plans used repeatedly to handle frequently recurring events

499
Q

states of nature

A

Âfuture environmental conditions which are listed and assigned a probability in a payoff matrix

500
Q

statistical methods

A

use of regression analysis, or correlations b/w variables, to predict one from the other (e.g. to predict housing starts from marriages)