Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Flashcards - Pharm > Flashcards

Flashcards - Pharm

1
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

bioactivated DNA purine alkyating agent at Nitrogen-7 - solid tumors, leukemia, lymphomas - Associated with intersticial cystitis –> Mesna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ABVD for Hodgkins Lymphoma

A

Adriamycin (doxorubicin), Bleomycin, Vinblastin, Dacarbazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mesna

A

Free thiol, reduces toxicity of cyclophoshamide metabolism, protects bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Amifostine

A

thio-based free radical scavenging agent, protects against platinum containing agents (cisplatin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Digoxin

A

Na-K ATPase inhibitor - increased intracellular Na+, decreased Na/Ca exchanger, increased intracellular Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vasopressin V2 receptor

A

Gs - Stimulates adenylyl cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Heparin overdose

A

Protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Leukovorin/folinic acid

A

mitigates myelosuppression from methrotrexate - “leucovorin rescue”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

reversing tPA

A

aminocaproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Abciximab

A

binds to glycoprotein recepptor IIb/IIIa on activated platelets, preventing aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cladribine

A

purine analog - inhibits adenosine deanimase, DNA strand breaks - hairy cell leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Probenecid

A

for gout - Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cochicine

A

for gout - depolymerizes microtubules - GI upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ketoconazole

A

blocks formation of fungal membrane - tinea corporis - has endocrine effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fluconazole

A

Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Itraconazole

A

aspergillosis, candidiasis, blastomycosis, histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Penicillamine

A

copper chelator - Wilsons disease - also can use trientine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dimercaprol

A

arsenic, mercury, gold, lead, antimony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

EDTA

A

lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Deferoxamine

A

iron overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

sodium thiosulfate

A

cyanide poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

amyl nitrate

A

induces methoglobinemia - Hb has greater affinity for cyanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

fomepizole

A

ethylene glycol/methanol poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

phentolamine

A

alpha receptor blocker - can counteract epinephrine, cocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Methotrexate

A

irreversibly inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) - decreased dTMP, DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Adenosine

A

prolongs Phase 4 of pacemaker cell, activates K+ channels, inhibits L-type Ca2+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

phenoxybenzamine

A

irreversible alpha1, alpha2 blocker - used before pheochromocytoma removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ezetamibe

A

inhibits cholesterol absorption at brush border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

milrinone

A

increases inotropy - phosphoesterase 3 inhibitor - increases cAMP - can cause hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

glitazone/thiazolidinediones

A

pioglitazone, rosiglitazone - insuilin sensitivity from PPAR-gamma transcription factor binding - hepatotoxicity, heart failure, fractures, weight gain, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

GLP-1 analog

A

increases insulin, decreases glucagon - nausea/vomiting/pancreatitis - exenatide, liraglutide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

DPP-4 inhibitors

A

increases insulin, decreases glucagon - mild URI/UTIs - linagliptin, saxagliptin, sitagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

amylin analogs

A

decreases gastric emptying and glucagon - nausea/diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitor

A

blocks glucose reabsorption in PCT - UTIs, yeast infections - canagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

misoprostol

A

PGE analog, abortifascient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Beta-blocker overdose

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

metformin adverse effects

A

can cause lactic acidosis, GI upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

doxorubicin

A

inhibits topoisomerase II resealing - solid tumors, leukemias, lymphomas - dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Thazides

A

hyperGLUC (glycemia, lipidemia, uricemia, calcemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

bismuth/sulcralfate

A

binds to ulcer base, allows HCO3 secretion to reestablish pH gradient

41
Q

CYP450 Inducers (5)

A

Guiness, Coronas, and PBRS = Chronic alcoholism: Griseofulvan, Carbamezapine, Phenytoin, Barbiturates, Rifampin, St. Johns Wart, Chronic alcoholism

42
Q

CYP450 Inhibitors (7)

A

CRACKAMIGOS: Cimetidine, Ritonavir, Amiodarone, Cipro, Ketoconazole, Acute alcohol use, Macrolides, Isoniazid, Grapefruit juice, Omeprazole, Sulfas

43
Q

-mab

A

monoclonal antibody

44
Q

-cept

A

receptor molecule

45
Q

-nib

A

kinase inhibitor

46
Q

neutropenia causing drugs

A

carbemazepine, methimazole/PTU, clozapine, ticlopidine

47
Q

theophylline

A

methylxanthine, relaxes smooth muscle, - COPD

48
Q

caspofungin

A

inhibits glucan synthesis for fungal cell wall

49
Q

ethambutol

A

inhibits arabinosyl tranfersase/carbohydrate polymerization - can cause optic neuritis

50
Q

butorphanol

A

kappa agonist, mu partial agonist - analgesia - can cause withdrawal

51
Q

lamotrigine

A

blocks voltage-gated Na channels - epilepsy - can cause SJS, must be titrated slowly

52
Q

status epilepticus treatment

A

benzos, phenytoin

53
Q

topiramate

A

blocks Na, increases GABA - simpe, complex, tonic-clonic seizures

54
Q

short acting benzos

A

triazolam, alprazolam, oxazepam, midazolam

55
Q

ester anesthetic

A

procaine, cocaine, tetracaine

56
Q

amides anesthesic

A

(double i) lidocaine, mepivacaine, bupivivaine

57
Q

local anesthetic blockade order

A

small myelinated > small unmyelinated > large myelinated > large unmyelinated - pain > temperature > touch > pressure

58
Q

succinylcholine

A

depolarizing ACh receptor agonist - paralytic - Phase I (prolonged depol - block potentiated by AChE inhibitors); Phase II (repolarized but blocked - antidote = AChE inhibtors) - can cause hyperK

59
Q

cyclobenzaprine

A

similar to TCAs - skeletal muscle relaxant, spasms

60
Q

Selegiline

A

inhibits MAO-B - decreases dopamine metabolism - parkinsons

61
Q

amphotericin B

A

binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membrane - nephrotoxic

62
Q

griseofulvin

A

inhibits fungal microtubules/mitosis

63
Q

sulfasalazine

A

combination of sulfapyridine and 5-aminosalicylic acid - UC/CD - can cause sulfonamide toxicity, oligospermia

64
Q

odansetron

A

5-HT3 antagonist - decreased vagal stimulation - antiemetic - QT interval prolongation

65
Q

rifampin

A

inhibits DNA-dependent RNA-synthesis - TB

66
Q

leuprolide

A

GnRH analog - pulse for infertility, continous for axis shutdown

67
Q

anastrozole/exemestane

A

aromatase inhibitor - ER+ breast Ca

68
Q

mifepristone

A

RU-486 - competitive inhibitor of progestins

69
Q

terbutaline, ritodrine

A

B2 agonists to relax uterus

70
Q

danazol

A

partial agnost of androgen/estrogen reeceptor

71
Q

metyrapone

A

11-b-hydroxylase inhibitor - tests HPA function (normal = increase in ACTH)

72
Q

zileuton

A

5-lipooxygenase pathway inhibitor - prevents arachidonic acid to leukotrienes - hepatotoxic

73
Q

DRESS drugs

A

phenobarbital, carbamazepine, phenytoin, lamotrigine, minocycline, sulfonamides, allopurinol

74
Q

canagliflozin

A

SGLT2 inhibitor of PCT - T2DM - glucosuria, UTIs, yeast infection

75
Q

sulfonylureas

A

chlorpropamide, tolbutamide, glimepiride, glipizide, glyburide

76
Q

demeclocycline

A

ADH antagonist - for SIADH treatment - nephrogenic DI, photosensitivity, abnormalities of bone/teeth

77
Q

cincalcet

A

sensitizes Ca2+ receptor to Ca –> decreases PTH - for use in hypercalcemia due to hyperPTH

78
Q

succimer

A

lead chelator used in children

79
Q

Azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine, 6-thioguanine

A

purine analog - decreases de novo purine synthesis - activated by HGPRT - immunosuppressant

80
Q

5-flourouracil

A

bioactivated to 5F-dUMP - inhibits folate, dna synthesis - colon, pancreatic, basal cell cancer - myelosuppresion (not reversible with leucovorin)

81
Q

bleomycin

A

DNA stand breaks - testicular cancer, hodgkin lymphoma - can cause pulmonary fibrosis, hyperpigmentation

82
Q

dactinomycin (actinomycin D)

A

DNA intercalator - wilms tumor, ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma

83
Q

nitrosoureas (carmustine, lomustine, semustine, stretozocin)

A

bioactivated DNA crosslinker - brain tumors - DNA toxicity (convulsions, ataxia)

84
Q

cisplatin

A

DNA crosslinker - testicular, bladder, ovary and lung cancers - oto and nepro toxic (abated with amifostine)

85
Q

busulfan

A

DNA crosslinker - CML - can cause pulmonary fibrosis

86
Q

etoposide, teniposide

A

inhibits topoisomerase II - DNA breaks - solid tumors, leukemias, lymphomas - GI upset, alopecia

87
Q

irinotecan, topotecan

A

inhibits topoisomerase I - prevents DNA unwinding - CRC (irino), ovarian and small cell lung (topotecan) - diarrhea

88
Q

bevacizumab

A

VEGF monoclonal antibody - solid tumors - hemorrhage

89
Q

erlotibib

A

EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor - non small cell lung cancer - rash

90
Q

imatinib

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor of BCR-ABL

91
Q

vemurafenib

A

inhibitor of BRAF ongogene - metastatic melanoma

92
Q

trastuzumab

A

HER-2 monoclonal antibody - cardiotoxic

93
Q

indinavir

A

protease inhibitor - HIV

94
Q

hyperkalemia drugs

A

nonselective b-blockers, ACE, ARBs, spirinolactone, digitalis, cyclosporine, heparin, NSAIDs, succinylcholine

95
Q

azoles

A

inhibit the enzyme lanosterol 14 α-demethylase, preventing conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol

96
Q

red man syndrome

A

nonIgE mast cell degranulation - vancomycin

97
Q

cyclosporine

A

inhibits NFAT - immunosuppresant - gingival hyperplasia, hyperkalemia, neuropathy

98
Q

Drugs that lower seizure threshold

A

bupropion, clozapine, isoniazid w/o pyroxidine, ciprofloxacin, imipenem

Step 1 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions