Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Step 1 > Flashcards - Immuno > Flashcards

Flashcards - Immuno

1
Q

right lymphatic drainage

A

right side above diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

IgA

A

Does not fix complement - monomer/dimer - excreted by transcytosis - protects against Giardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypersensitivity Type I

A

allergy - analphylaxis/atopic, IgE - preformed Abs, on presensitized mast cells –> histamine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypersensitivity Type II

A

tissue target - positive Coombs test - goodpastures, pernicious anemia, anti-Rh, graves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hypersensitivity Type III

A

serum sickness, SLE/post strep glomerulonephritis - antigen/complement complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hypersensitivity Type IV

A

contact dermatitis, MS, PPD, Graft v Host - sensitized T-cell to antigen –> cytokine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Thymus independent

A

antigens with no peptide component, cannot be presented by MHC - weak vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Thymus dependent

A

antigens with protein component (diphtheria) - class switching and B-cell memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Adenoside deaminase deficiency

A

SCID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Arthus reaction

A

Type III - after injections - ab/ag complexes form necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MHC I chains

A

heavy chain + B2 microglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MHC II chains

A

Alpha and beta polypeptide chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Th2

A

mediate class switching and Ab production by B cells, recruits eosinophils - humoral immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HLA-A3

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HLA-B27

A

Ankylosing spondylitis, Reiter’s syndrome, Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HLA-DR2

A

SLE, Goodpasture, MS, hay fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HLA-DR4

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis, Diabetes (DR3 as well)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HLA-DR5

A

pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

HLA-DQ2/8

A

Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

IFN-a/b

A

modulates viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

IFN-gamma

A

Th1 - activates macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

IL-1

A

Macs - Fever, osteoclast activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

IL-2

A

T-cell - stimulates growth of helper, cytotoxic, regulatory T cells, NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

IL-3

A

T-cell - GM-CSF like factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

IL-4

A

Th2 - mediates class-switch to IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

IL-5

A

Th2 - attacts eosinophils, IgA production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

IL-6

A

Macs - fever, induces production of acute phase reactants (hepcidin, CRP, ferritin, fibrinogen, serum amyloid A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

IL-8

A

Macs - chemoattractant for neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

IL-10

A

Th2 - antiinflammatory - decreases MHC class II, Th1 cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

IL-12

A

Macs - stimulates differentiation into TH1 in naive T-helpers, NK cells stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

TNF-alpha

A

fever, hepatic release of acute-phase reactants, cachexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

TGF-beta

A

immunosuppresant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CD14

A

Macrophages - binds with TLR4 - involved in supertoxin response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CD18

A

LFA-1 integrin - defective in leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1 - unable to extravasate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CD19

A

B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CD20

A

B-cells - rituximab target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CD21

A

B-cell - EBV receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CD25

A

T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CD28

A

T-cell - costimulation w/ B7 on dentritic cell activates T-cell –> cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CD31

A

PECAM - neutrophil transmigration across endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CD-40

A

B-cell - costimulation w/ CD40L on T-cell classwitches B-cell - defective in hyperIgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CD54

A

ICAM - neutrophil adhesion

43
Q

CD55

A

decay-accelerating factor (DAF) - inhibits complement activation on self cells

44
Q

rituximab

A

Anti CD-20 - RA, B-cell lymphoma

45
Q

muronamab

A

Anti CD-3 - expressed by activated T-lymphocytes - acute rejection

46
Q

LTB4

A

chemoattractant neutrophils

47
Q

C3a, C4a, C5a

A

anaphylaxis

48
Q

C3b

49
Q

C5a

A

neutrophil chemoattractant

50
Q

C5b-9

A

cytolysis by MAC

51
Q

NF-KB

A

transcription factor for cytokine production

52
Q

isotype switching location

A

germinal center

53
Q

tolerance development location

A

fetal thymus/peripheral

54
Q

recombination location

A

bone marrow

55
Q

negative selection location

A

fetal thymus medulla

56
Q

Fas

A

expressed on T-lymphocytes - induces selfapoptosis, mutations result in autoimmune disease

57
Q

FGFR3

A

AD - achondroplasia - impaired cartilage proliferation

58
Q

Anti-ACh receptor

A

Myasthenia gravis

59
Q

Anti-basement membrane

A

Goodpasture syndrome

60
Q

Anticardiolipin, lupus anticoagulant

A

SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome

61
Q

Anticentromere

A

Limited scleroderma (CREST syndrome)

62
Q

Anti-desmosome (anti-desmoglein)

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

63
Q

Anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith

A

SLE - dsDNA = renal disease, Smith = anti snRNPs

64
Q

Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD-65)

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

65
Q

Antihemidesmosome

A

Bullous pemphigoid

66
Q

Anti-histone

A

Drug-induced lupus - hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid, minocycline, quinidine

67
Q

Anti-Jo-1, anti-SRP, anti-Mi-2

A

Polymyositis, dermatomyositis

68
Q

Antimicrosomal

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

69
Q

Antimitochondrial

A

1° biliary cirrhosis

70
Q

Antinuclear antibodies

A

SLE, nonspecific

71
Q

Antiparietal cell

A

Pernicious anemia

72
Q

Anti-Scl-70 (anti-DNA topoisomerase I)

A

Scleroderma (diffuse)

73
Q

Anti-smooth muscle

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

74
Q

Anti-SSA, anti-SSB (anti-Ro, anti-La)

A

Sjögren syndrome

75
Q

Anti-TSH receptor

A

Graves disease

76
Q

Anti-U1 RNP (ribonucleoprotein)

A

Mixed connective tissue disease

77
Q

IgA anti-endomysial, IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase

A

Celiac disease

78
Q

MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA

A

Microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strausssyndrome)

79
Q

PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

80
Q

Rheumatoid factor (IgM antibody that targets IgG Fc region), anti-CCP (more specific)

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

81
Q

osteomyelitis in sickle cell

A

Salmonella, S. aureus

82
Q

Pott disease

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

83
Q

rheumatoid arthritis hypersensitivity

A

Type III and IV

84
Q

low C1 esterase inhibitor

A

heriditary angioedema - can’t use ACE inhibitors

85
Q

low C3

A

risk of recurrent pyogenic sinus/respiratory infections, type III reactions

86
Q

C5-C9 deficiencies

A

recurrent Neisseria bacteremia

87
Q

Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

A

BTK - bruton’s tyrosine kinase deficiency - very low immunoglobulin, no mature B-cells, intact T-cell lymphocyte function, no lymph nodes/tonsils, germinal cortex absent - Giardia, enterovirus, bacteria, no vaccines

88
Q

SCID

A

adenosine deanimase, IL-2R/cytokine defect or MHC II defect - unable to mature B and T-cells - complete absence of thymus, GCs and B/T cells

89
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome

A

22q11 deletion - no thymus/parathymus - decreased T cells, hypocalcemia

90
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency

A

B-cell maturation defect - decreased plasma cells and immunoglobulins - increased risk of autoimmune disease

91
Q

IgA deficiency

A

decreased IgA, normal IgG/IgM - anaphylaxis to IgA containing blood

92
Q

Hyper-IgM

A

CD40/CD40L defect - increased IgM due to inability to class switch - decreased IgE, IgA, IgG

93
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

A

XL - WAS gene defect, unable to recognize actin cytoskeleton - WATER (Wiskott-Alrdich, thrombocytopenic purpura, eczema, recurrent infections)

94
Q

Ataxia-teleangiectasia

A

ATM defect - DNA double strand repair - cerebellar defect, spider angiomas, IgA deficiency - increased AGP, decreased IgA, IgG, IgE, lymphopenia, cerebellar atrophy

95
Q

Autosomal dominant hyper IgE

A

Deficiency of Th17 cells due to STAT3 mutation –> impaired neutrophil recruitment - coarse facies, cold staph abscesses, retained primary teeth, eczema, increased IgE, decreased IFN-gamma

96
Q

IL-12 deficiency

A

AR - decreased Th1 response, IFN-gamma release - disseminated mycobacterial/fungal infections - no BCG vaccine

97
Q

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

A

T-cell dysfuction - no T-cell response to Candida antigens/infections

98
Q

Chekiak-Higashi Syndrom

A

microtubule defect - unable to traffic phagosomes to lysosomes - pyogenic infections, albinism, neuropathy

99
Q

CD3

100
Q

Leukotriene B4

A

neutrophil migration to site of inflammation

101
Q

Th1

A

responsible for cell-mediated immune response against mycobacteria - activated by IL-12 from macs, and IFN-gamma from Th1

102
Q

positive selection location

A

fetal thymus cortex

103
Q

antithyroglobulin

A

Hashimotos

Step 1 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions