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ANATOMY > FINALS > Flashcards

FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

main abductor of the arm, between 10-100 degrees

A

Deltoid

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2
Q

intitates abduction of arm, first 10-15 degrees

A

supraspinatus

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3
Q

main lateral rotator of arm

A

infraspinatus

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4
Q

principal medial rotator of arm

A

subscapularis

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5
Q

enumerate rotator cuff muscles

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres minor

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6
Q

boundaries of the quadrangular space

A 
teres major (below)
Teres minor (above)
long head of triceps (medially)
humerus (laterally)
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7
Q

boundaries of triangular space

A 
teres major (below)
teres minor (above)
long head of triceps (laterally)
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8
Q

what structures pass through the quadrangular space

A

posterior humeral circumflex artery

axillary artery

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9
Q

what structures pass through the triangular space

A

dorsal scapular artery which joins the scapular anastamosis

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10
Q

significance of scapular anastamosis

A

used as a collateral circulation when there is a block in the proximal part of the axillary artery since it interconnects braches from the subclavian artery and third part of axillary a.

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11
Q

forms the carpal tunnel

A

flexor retinaculum

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12
Q

structures passing under the flexor retinaculum

A

flexor digitorum superficialis and profundum
median nerve
tendon of flexor pollicis longus

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13
Q

describe carpal tunnel syndrome

A

due to pressure on median nerve

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14
Q

Winging of the scapula is produced by injury to the

A

long thoracic nerve supplying the serratus anterior

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15
Q

Erb-Duchenne paralysis or waiter’s tip is caused by an injury to the ___

A

Upper trunk of brachial plexus

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16
Q

Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by an injury to the

A

lower trunk of brachial plexus

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17
Q

loss of extensors of forearm, wrist and hand (Saturday Night Palsy/ Crutch Palsy) is caused by injury to the

A

posterior cord of the brachial plexus

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18
Q

claw hand deformity is due to the injury in

A

ulnar nerve

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19
Q

wrist drop deformity is due to injury to

A

radial nerve

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20
Q

the anatomical snuffbox is bounded by

A

Tendons of extensor pollicis brevis and longus muscles

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21
Q

which artery principally forms the superficial palmar arterial arch

A

ulnar artery

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22
Q

which artery principally forms the deep palmar arterial arch

A

radial artery

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23
Q

Which anastamoses of upper limbs connects the axillary system with subclavian system

A

Scapular anastamosis

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24
Q

Which anastamoses of upper limbs connects branches of brachial artery with branches of radial and ulnar artery

A

elbow joint anastamosis

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25
Q

the most common football knee injury is __

A

the rupture of the medial collateral ligament

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26
Q

chief extesor and most powerful lateral rotator of the thigh

A

gluteus maximus

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27
Q

intramuscular injection at the gluteal region is done at the ___ quadrant

A

upper outer quadrant

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28
Q

what structures emerge along the lower border of the piriformis

A

inferior gluteal nerve and vessels

sciatic nerve

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29
Q

nerve supply of gluteus medius and minimus

A

superior gluteal nerve

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30
Q

Nerve supply of gluteus maximus

A

inferior gluteal nerve

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31
Q

Boundaries of the femoral triangle

A 
Inguinal ligament (above)
abductor longus (medially)
sartorius (laterally)
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32
Q

contents of the femoral triangle

A

femoral vein, artery, and nerve (medial to lateral)

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33
Q

which content of the femoral triangle lies outside the femoral sheath

A

contents of femoral triangle: femoral vein, artery, and nerve

The femoral nerve lies outside the femoral sheath

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34
Q

These (3) muscles form the deep group in the posterior compartment of the leg and their tendons pass behind the medial malleolus.

A 
Tibialis posterior (Tom)
Flexor digitorum longus (dick)
Flexor hallucis longus (harry)
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35
Q

the __ nerve supplies muscles in anterior compartment of thigh

A

femoral nerve

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36
Q

the __ nerve supplies muscles in medial compartment of thigh

A

obturator nerve

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37
Q

the __ nerve provides principal innervation of the perineum

A

pudendal nerve

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38
Q

the __ nerve innervates muscles in posterior compartment of thigh

A

Tibial nerve

EXCEPT: short head of biceps femoris = common perineal nerve

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39
Q

damage in the common peroneal nerve results in ___ because it winds aroud the neck of the fibula

A

foot drop

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40
Q

origin of femoral artery

A

external iliac artery

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41
Q

the superficial vein of the leg that passes upwards immediately infront of the medial malleolus to the groin and drains into the femoral vein

A

Greater saphenous vein

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42
Q

the superficial vein of the leg that passes behind the lateral malleolus, to the back of the calf, and drains into popliteal vein

A

lesser saphenous vein

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43
Q

which vertebra is the first palpable spinous process, used as landmark to count the level of vertebrae

A

C7

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44
Q

ligaments encountered in doing a lumbar tap (in sequence)

A

Supraspinous, interspinous, ligamentum flavum, dura mater, arachnoid membrane, subarachnoid space containing CSF

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45
Q

This is the lateral bending of vertebral column

A

scoliosis

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46
Q

this is the exaggeration of concave curvature of thoracic region (hunchback)

A

Kyphosis

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47
Q

exaggerated convex curvature of vertebral column in lumbar region

A

Lordosis

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48
Q

the right upper quadrant of the body drains lymph into the ___

A

right lymphatic duct –> right jugulo-subclavian junction

Lansang p.30

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49
Q

the lower quadrant of the body below the diaphragm and left upper quadrant of the body drains lymph to the

A

thoracic duct –> junction between the left internal jugular and subclavian vein

(Lansang p.30)

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50
Q

in cancer of the breast, cancer cells may attach to ___ and produce shortening and cause dimpling of the skin of the breast

A

ligaments of cooper

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51
Q

the neurovascular bundle runs between the ____ and ____ muscles along the ____ border of a rib

A

between the internal intercostal and innermost intercostal muscles along the inferior border of a rib

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52
Q

in doing thoracentesis, the needle is inserted close to ___ border of rib to avoid injury to the vessels and nerves

A

close to the superior border of the rib

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53
Q

motor innervation of diaphragm

A

phrenic nerve (c3, c4, c5)

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54
Q

opening of the diaphragm that transmits abdominal aorta, thoracic duct, and azygos vein; also state thethoracic level of the opening

A

Aortic opening at T12

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55
Q

Opening of the diaphragm that transmits the esophagus, branches of left gastric artery and vein, and two vagus nerves

A

esophageal opening at T10

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56
Q

Opening of the diaphragm at the central tendon which transmits inferior vena cava and right phrenic nerve

A

Vena caval opening at T8

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57
Q

the potential space between the parietal and visceral pleurae is the ___

A

pleural cavity

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58
Q

Thoracentesis is performed ____ usually at ___ intercostal space immediately above the superior margin of a rib

A

…is performed posterior to midaxillary line usuall at 7th IC space

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59
Q

Level of bifurcation of trachea in erect position and full inspiration

A

T6

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60
Q

the esophagus begins at ___ and ends at ___

A

begins at C6 and ends at T11

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61
Q

Three constrictions of the esophagus and corresponding vertebral level

A

Beginning at C6
Where it is crossed by left primary bronchus at T4
Esophageal hiatus at T10

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62
Q

The __ vein receives blood from posterior intercostal veins and empties into superior vena cava

A

azygos vein

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63
Q

The ___ vein drains left 9th-11th ICS

A

Hemiazygos vein

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64
Q

The __ vein drains left 4th-8th ICS

A

Accessory hemiazygos vein

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65
Q

2nd and 3rd ICS is drained by __ vein

A

superior intercostal veins
right–>azygos vein
left–> left brachiocephalic vein

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66
Q

After birth, the umbilical vein becomes the ___

A

ligamentum teres of the liver

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67
Q

After birth, the ductus venosus becomes the

A

ligamentum venosum of liver

68
Q

Which primary bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical in position

A

Right primary bronchus

69
Q

Foreign bodies in the lungs commonly lodge on the __ side

A

Right side

70
Q

The right lung has __ lobes and __ bronchopulmonary segments

A

3 lobes

10 bronchopulmonary segments

71
Q

the left lung has __ lobes and __ bronchopulmonary segments

A

2 lobes

8 bronchopulmonary segments

72
Q

the lingula (segment) of the lung is at which side?

73
Q

The eparterial bronchus is on which side of the lung?

A

right lung

74
Q

Level of the iliac crest

75
Q

The superficial fatty layer of the abdomen is aka

A

Camper’s fascia

76
Q

The deep membranous layer of the abdomen is aka

A

Scarpa’s fascia

77
Q

The superficial fascia of the abdomen (Camper’s and scarpa’s) continues over the pubis as ___

A

Colle’s fascia of superficial perineal fascia

Scrotum: dartos muscle and fascia

78
Q

The deep fascia of the abdomen continues over the pubis as ___ and over the penis as __

A

over the pubis: deep perineal fascia (gallaudet’s)

over the penis: deep penile fascia (Buck’s)

79
Q

the external abdominal oblique muscle run ___ (direction)

A

inferomedially

80
Q

the internal abdominal oblique muscle run __ (direction)

A

inferolaterally

81
Q

the ___ is the lower edge of the aponeurotic components of the posterior wall of the rectus sheath

A

arcuate line (semicircular line of douglas)

82
Q

This type of hernia bypasses the deep inguinal ring to penetrate the posterior wall of inguinal canal

A

direct inguinal hernia

83
Q

This type of hernia traverses the deep inguinal ring and passes through the inguinal canal into the scrotum

A

indirect inguinal hernia

84
Q

The greater sac communicates with the lesser sac through the ___

A

Epiploic foramen of winslow

85
Q

Ligament which attaches lower to ventral body wall and countains ligamentum teres of the liver

A

Falciform ligament

86
Q

In supine position, what recess becomes the lowest portion of abdominal cavity and will collect fluid? It is also the most infected abdominal space

A

Hepatorenal recess

87
Q

What structure lies lateral to ascending colon, communicates with supracolic compartment, pouch of morison and pelvic cavity. It provides route for spread of infection between pelvis and upper abdominal region

A

Right paracolic gutter

88
Q

Origin of the thyroid gland

A

Foramen cecum at the apex of sulcus terminalis of the tongue

89
Q

Motor innervation of tongue

A

Hypoglosaal except palatoglossus

90
Q

Innervation of palatoglossus

A

Pharyngeal plexus

91
Q

What is a band of fibrous muscular tissue which extends from duodenojejunal angle to the right crus of diaphragm

A

Suspensory ligament of treitz

92
Q

Duct of the parotid gland

A

Stensen’s duct

93
Q

Classification of parotid gland according to secretion

A

Purely serous

94
Q

Classification of submandibular glands according to secretion

A

Mixed, predominantly serous

95
Q

Classification if sublingual glands according to secretions

A

Mixed, predominantly mucous

96
Q

What forms the right limb of H in the liver

A

Sulcus for inferior vena cava

Gallbladder

97
Q

What forms the left limb of the H of the liver

A

Ligamentum teres

Ligamentum venosum

98
Q

The __ is the tissue space separating sinusoidal wall from liver cell plates where exchange of nutrients and waste products take place

A

Disse’s space

99
Q

The __ is a reservoir formed by the common bile duct and main pancreatic duct of wirsung

A

Ampulla of vater

100
Q

This is an elevation in the mucosa of the 2nd part of duodenum where ampula of vater opens

A

Major duodenal papilla

101
Q

Where the minor pancreatic duct of santorini opens located above the major duodenal papilla

A

Minor duodenal papilla

102
Q

Enlargement in which part of the pancreas causes obstruction of the bile flow resulting in jaundice

A

Head of pancreas

103
Q

Main duct of the pancreas

A

Main duct of wirsung

104
Q

This space between pubic bones and bladder is used by surgeons to enter the bladder extraperitoneally

A

Prevesical space of Retzius

105
Q

Sympathetic innervation of the bladder; inhibit detrussor muscle if bladder from contracting; filling nerve

A

Hypogastric plexus

106
Q

Parasympathetic to the bladder; produces contraction of detrussor muscle of bladder, empties the baldder

A

Pelvic splanchnic nerve

107
Q

Clinical importance of constrictions of ureters

A

Where you look for stones in ultrasound

108
Q

Homologue of the prostate

A

Paraurethral glands

109
Q

True conjugate

A

AP diameter from sacral promontory to superior margin of pubic symphysis

110
Q

Diagonal conjugate

A

AP diameter from sacral promontory to inferior boarder of pubis

111
Q

Obstetric conjugate

A

Ap diameter to a few mm below the superior margin of pubic symphysis

112
Q

This muscle primarily maintains erection

A

Ischiocavernosus

113
Q

Termination of the round ligament of uterus

A

Labia majora

114
Q

Most highly innervated part of clitoris

A

Glans of clitoris

115
Q

Function of the clitoris

A

Solely as an organ of sexual arousal

116
Q

The __ artery supplies most of the skin of perineum, external genitalia, and perineal muscles

A

Internal pudendal artery

117
Q

Layer of the endometrium which changes during the menstrual cycle

A

Endometrium

118
Q

Ligament of the uterus that is at the most anterior part and keeps the uterus anteverted and anteflexed; terminates at the labia majora

A

Round ligament of uterus

119
Q

Also the suspensory ligament of the ovary

A

Infundibulopelvic ligament

120
Q

Where ovarian vessels traverse

A

Infundibulopelvic ligament

121
Q

Main support of the uterus. Damage to this will cause a prolapsed uterus

A

Cardinal ligament/ transverse ligament of cervix

122
Q

Arterial supply of vagina

A

Upper part: uterine artery

Middle and inferior part: vaginal and internal pudendal artery

123
Q

Homologue of scrotum

A

Labia majora

124
Q

Homologue of penis

125
Q

Layers of scrotal sac and continuations to abdomen

A

Internal spermatic fascia from transversalis fascia
Cremasteric muscle and fascia from internal oblique muscle and aponeurosis
External spermatic fascia from external oblique muscle and aponeurosis
Dartos muscle from superficial fascia of abd wall

126
Q

Ejaculatory duct is formed by

A

Vas deferens and duct of seminal vesicle

127
Q

Lobe of prostate gland prone to cancer

A

Posterior lobe

128
Q

Sinuses of the skull

A 
Maxilla
Frontal
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Mastoid process of temporal bones
129
Q

Term used to denoted external occipital protuberance

130
Q

Fractura of the ___ may result to epidural hemorrhage because it overlies the anterior division of middle meningeal artery

131
Q

Fontanels close at (months)

A

Anterior: 18 months
Posterior: end of first year

132
Q

Olfactory nerves exit the skull through which foramen/foramina

A

Cribriform plate of ehtmoid

133
Q

What structure pass through the optic canal

A

Optic nerve CN III

Opthalmic artery

134
Q

What structure pass through the superior orbital fissure

A

CN III, IV, V1, VI, and superior opthalmic vein

135
Q

What structure pass through the foramen rotundum

136
Q

What structure pass through the foramen ovale

A

CN V3, and lesser petrosal nerve

137
Q

What structure pass through the foramen spinosum

A

Middle meningeal artery

138
Q

Dangerous area of the scalp containing emissary veins and possible route of infection

A

Loose areolar tissue in subaponeurotic space

139
Q

Contents of carotid sheath

A

Common carotid
Internal carotid a.
Internal jugular vein
Vagus n.

140
Q

Innervation of muscles of mastication

A

Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

141
Q

Common carotid artery divides in internal and external division at the level of __

A

Upper border of thyroid cartilage (C4)

142
Q

Branch of external carotid artery which may be damaged during thyroid surgery

A

Superior thyroid artery

143
Q

Main sensory nerve if head and motor to muscles of mastication

A

Trigeminal nerve

144
Q

Cranial nerves passing through internal acoustic meatus

A

Facial and vestibulocochlear nerve

145
Q

Cranial nerve with the widest area of distribution

146
Q

Injury to this nerve during thyroidectomy causes voice hoarseness

A

External laryngeal nerve

147
Q

Supplies all muscles of larynx except cricothyroid ms.

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

148
Q

Supplies cricothyroid ms.

A

External laryngeal nerve

149
Q

Motor innervation to all extrinsic (except palatoglossus) and intrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

Hypoglossal

150
Q

Cranial nerve associated with tic doloreaux

A

Trigeminal

151
Q

The lowest fibers of inferior constrictor is called

A

Cricopharyngeus ma.

152
Q

Tensor of vocal cord

A

Cricothyroid ms.

153
Q

Embryological origin of thymus

A

Endoderm lining of 3rd pharyngeal pouch

154
Q

Oxytocin is produced by the ___

A

Paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus

155
Q

What heart valve is at the level of 3rd rib behind left side of sternum

A

Pulmonary valve

156
Q

What heart valve is at the level of 3rd ICS behind left side of sternum

A

Aortic valve

157
Q

What heart valve is at the level of 4th rib towards center of back of sternum

A

Mitral valve

158
Q

What heart valve is at the level of 4th ICS behind the center of sternum

A

Tricuspid valve

159
Q

The ADH is synthesized from

A

Supeaoptic nucleus of of hypothalamus

160
Q

Cells of the thyroid gland which secretes t3 and t4

A

Follicular cells

161
Q

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid secrete what?

A

Calcitonin

162
Q

Cells of the parathyroid that secrete pth are called

A

Chief cells

163
Q

Zones of adrenal cortex and hormones secreted

A

Zona glomerulosa: aldosterone (mineralocorticoids)

Zona fasciculata: glucocorticoids

Zona reticularis: sex hormones

164
Q

Layer of the adrenal gland secreting catecholamines

A

Adrenal medulla

165
Q

Cells of the pancreas that secretes somatostatin

166
Q

Pinealocytes secrete what?

ANATOMY (33 decks)

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