FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

main abductor of the arm, between 10-100 degrees

A

Deltoid

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2
Q

intitates abduction of arm, first 10-15 degrees

A

supraspinatus

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3
Q

main lateral rotator of arm

A

infraspinatus

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4
Q

principal medial rotator of arm

A

subscapularis

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5
Q

enumerate rotator cuff muscles

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres minor

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6
Q

boundaries of the quadrangular space

A
teres major (below)
Teres minor (above)
long head of triceps (medially)
humerus (laterally)
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7
Q

boundaries of triangular space

A
teres major (below)
teres minor (above)
long head of triceps (laterally)
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8
Q

what structures pass through the quadrangular space

A

posterior humeral circumflex artery

axillary artery

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9
Q

what structures pass through the triangular space

A

dorsal scapular artery which joins the scapular anastamosis

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10
Q

significance of scapular anastamosis

A

used as a collateral circulation when there is a block in the proximal part of the axillary artery since it interconnects braches from the subclavian artery and third part of axillary a.

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11
Q

forms the carpal tunnel

A

flexor retinaculum

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12
Q

structures passing under the flexor retinaculum

A

flexor digitorum superficialis and profundum
median nerve
tendon of flexor pollicis longus

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13
Q

describe carpal tunnel syndrome

A

due to pressure on median nerve

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14
Q

Winging of the scapula is produced by injury to the

A

long thoracic nerve supplying the serratus anterior

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15
Q

Erb-Duchenne paralysis or waiter’s tip is caused by an injury to the ___

A

Upper trunk of brachial plexus

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16
Q

Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by an injury to the

A

lower trunk of brachial plexus

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17
Q

loss of extensors of forearm, wrist and hand (Saturday Night Palsy/ Crutch Palsy) is caused by injury to the

A

posterior cord of the brachial plexus

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18
Q

claw hand deformity is due to the injury in

A

ulnar nerve

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19
Q

wrist drop deformity is due to injury to

A

radial nerve

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20
Q

the anatomical snuffbox is bounded by

A

Tendons of extensor pollicis brevis and longus muscles

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21
Q

which artery principally forms the superficial palmar arterial arch

A

ulnar artery

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22
Q

which artery principally forms the deep palmar arterial arch

A

radial artery

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23
Q

Which anastamoses of upper limbs connects the axillary system with subclavian system

A

Scapular anastamosis

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24
Q

Which anastamoses of upper limbs connects branches of brachial artery with branches of radial and ulnar artery

A

elbow joint anastamosis

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25
the most common football knee injury is __
the rupture of the medial collateral ligament
26
chief extesor and most powerful lateral rotator of the thigh
gluteus maximus
27
intramuscular injection at the gluteal region is done at the ___ quadrant
upper outer quadrant
28
what structures emerge along the lower border of the piriformis
inferior gluteal nerve and vessels | sciatic nerve
29
nerve supply of gluteus medius and minimus
superior gluteal nerve
30
Nerve supply of gluteus maximus
inferior gluteal nerve
31
Boundaries of the femoral triangle
``` Inguinal ligament (above) abductor longus (medially) sartorius (laterally) ```
32
contents of the femoral triangle
femoral vein, artery, and nerve (medial to lateral)
33
which content of the femoral triangle lies outside the femoral sheath
contents of femoral triangle: femoral vein, artery, and nerve The femoral nerve lies outside the femoral sheath
34
These (3) muscles form the deep group in the posterior compartment of the leg and their tendons pass behind the medial malleolus.
``` Tibialis posterior (Tom) Flexor digitorum longus (dick) Flexor hallucis longus (harry) ```
35
the __ nerve supplies muscles in anterior compartment of thigh
femoral nerve
36
the __ nerve supplies muscles in medial compartment of thigh
obturator nerve
37
the __ nerve provides principal innervation of the perineum
pudendal nerve
38
the __ nerve innervates muscles in posterior compartment of thigh
Tibial nerve | EXCEPT: short head of biceps femoris = common perineal nerve
39
damage in the common peroneal nerve results in ___ because it winds aroud the neck of the fibula
foot drop
40
origin of femoral artery
external iliac artery
41
the superficial vein of the leg that passes upwards immediately infront of the medial malleolus to the groin and drains into the femoral vein
Greater saphenous vein
42
the superficial vein of the leg that passes behind the lateral malleolus, to the back of the calf, and drains into popliteal vein
lesser saphenous vein
43
which vertebra is the first palpable spinous process, used as landmark to count the level of vertebrae
C7
44
ligaments encountered in doing a lumbar tap (in sequence)
Supraspinous, interspinous, ligamentum flavum, dura mater, arachnoid membrane, subarachnoid space containing CSF
45
This is the lateral bending of vertebral column
scoliosis
46
this is the exaggeration of concave curvature of thoracic region (hunchback)
Kyphosis
47
exaggerated convex curvature of vertebral column in lumbar region
Lordosis
48
the right upper quadrant of the body drains lymph into the ___
right lymphatic duct --> right jugulo-subclavian junction | Lansang p.30
49
the lower quadrant of the body below the diaphragm and left upper quadrant of the body drains lymph to the
thoracic duct --> junction between the left internal jugular and subclavian vein (Lansang p.30)
50
in cancer of the breast, cancer cells may attach to ___ and produce shortening and cause dimpling of the skin of the breast
ligaments of cooper
51
the neurovascular bundle runs between the ____ and ____ muscles along the ____ border of a rib
between the internal intercostal and innermost intercostal muscles along the inferior border of a rib
52
in doing thoracentesis, the needle is inserted close to ___ border of rib to avoid injury to the vessels and nerves
close to the superior border of the rib
53
motor innervation of diaphragm
phrenic nerve (c3, c4, c5)
54
opening of the diaphragm that transmits abdominal aorta, thoracic duct, and azygos vein; also state thethoracic level of the opening
Aortic opening at T12
55
Opening of the diaphragm that transmits the esophagus, branches of left gastric artery and vein, and two vagus nerves
esophageal opening at T10
56
Opening of the diaphragm at the central tendon which transmits inferior vena cava and right phrenic nerve
Vena caval opening at T8
57
the potential space between the parietal and visceral pleurae is the ___
pleural cavity
58
Thoracentesis is performed ____ usually at ___ intercostal space immediately above the superior margin of a rib
...is performed posterior to midaxillary line usuall at 7th IC space
59
Level of bifurcation of trachea in erect position and full inspiration
T6
60
the esophagus begins at ___ and ends at ___
begins at C6 and ends at T11
61
Three constrictions of the esophagus and corresponding vertebral level
Beginning at C6 Where it is crossed by left primary bronchus at T4 Esophageal hiatus at T10
62
The __ vein receives blood from posterior intercostal veins and empties into superior vena cava
azygos vein
63
The ___ vein drains left 9th-11th ICS
Hemiazygos vein
64
The __ vein drains left 4th-8th ICS
Accessory hemiazygos vein
65
2nd and 3rd ICS is drained by __ vein
superior intercostal veins right-->azygos vein left--> left brachiocephalic vein
66
After birth, the umbilical vein becomes the ___
ligamentum teres of the liver
67
After birth, the ductus venosus becomes the
ligamentum venosum of liver
68
Which primary bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical in position
Right primary bronchus
69
Foreign bodies in the lungs commonly lodge on the __ side
Right side
70
The right lung has __ lobes and __ bronchopulmonary segments
3 lobes | 10 bronchopulmonary segments
71
the left lung has __ lobes and __ bronchopulmonary segments
2 lobes | 8 bronchopulmonary segments
72
the lingula (segment) of the lung is at which side?
Left lung
73
The eparterial bronchus is on which side of the lung?
right lung
74
Level of the iliac crest
L4
75
The superficial fatty layer of the abdomen is aka
Camper's fascia
76
The deep membranous layer of the abdomen is aka
Scarpa's fascia
77
The superficial fascia of the abdomen (Camper's and scarpa's) continues over the pubis as ___
Colle's fascia of superficial perineal fascia | Scrotum: dartos muscle and fascia
78
The deep fascia of the abdomen continues over the pubis as ___ and over the penis as __
over the pubis: deep perineal fascia (gallaudet's) | over the penis: deep penile fascia (Buck's)
79
the external abdominal oblique muscle run ___ (direction)
inferomedially
80
the internal abdominal oblique muscle run __ (direction)
inferolaterally
81
the ___ is the lower edge of the aponeurotic components of the posterior wall of the rectus sheath
arcuate line (semicircular line of douglas)
82
This type of hernia bypasses the deep inguinal ring to penetrate the posterior wall of inguinal canal
direct inguinal hernia
83
This type of hernia traverses the deep inguinal ring and passes through the inguinal canal into the scrotum
indirect inguinal hernia
84
The greater sac communicates with the lesser sac through the ___
Epiploic foramen of winslow
85
Ligament which attaches lower to ventral body wall and countains ligamentum teres of the liver
Falciform ligament
86
In supine position, what recess becomes the lowest portion of abdominal cavity and will collect fluid? It is also the most infected abdominal space
Hepatorenal recess
87
What structure lies lateral to ascending colon, communicates with supracolic compartment, pouch of morison and pelvic cavity. It provides route for spread of infection between pelvis and upper abdominal region
Right paracolic gutter
88
Origin of the thyroid gland
Foramen cecum at the apex of sulcus terminalis of the tongue
89
Motor innervation of tongue
Hypoglosaal except palatoglossus
90
Innervation of palatoglossus
Pharyngeal plexus
91
What is a band of fibrous muscular tissue which extends from duodenojejunal angle to the right crus of diaphragm
Suspensory ligament of treitz
92
Duct of the parotid gland
Stensen's duct
93
Classification of parotid gland according to secretion
Purely serous
94
Classification of submandibular glands according to secretion
Mixed, predominantly serous
95
Classification if sublingual glands according to secretions
Mixed, predominantly mucous
96
What forms the right limb of H in the liver
Sulcus for inferior vena cava | Gallbladder
97
What forms the left limb of the H of the liver
Ligamentum teres | Ligamentum venosum
98
The __ is the tissue space separating sinusoidal wall from liver cell plates where exchange of nutrients and waste products take place
Disse's space
99
The __ is a reservoir formed by the common bile duct and main pancreatic duct of wirsung
Ampulla of vater
100
This is an elevation in the mucosa of the 2nd part of duodenum where ampula of vater opens
Major duodenal papilla
101
Where the minor pancreatic duct of santorini opens located above the major duodenal papilla
Minor duodenal papilla
102
Enlargement in which part of the pancreas causes obstruction of the bile flow resulting in jaundice
Head of pancreas
103
Main duct of the pancreas
Main duct of wirsung
104
This space between pubic bones and bladder is used by surgeons to enter the bladder extraperitoneally
Prevesical space of Retzius
105
Sympathetic innervation of the bladder; inhibit detrussor muscle if bladder from contracting; filling nerve
Hypogastric plexus
106
Parasympathetic to the bladder; produces contraction of detrussor muscle of bladder, empties the baldder
Pelvic splanchnic nerve
107
Clinical importance of constrictions of ureters
Where you look for stones in ultrasound
108
Homologue of the prostate
Paraurethral glands
109
True conjugate
AP diameter from sacral promontory to superior margin of pubic symphysis
110
Diagonal conjugate
AP diameter from sacral promontory to inferior boarder of pubis
111
Obstetric conjugate
Ap diameter to a few mm below the superior margin of pubic symphysis
112
This muscle primarily maintains erection
Ischiocavernosus
113
Termination of the round ligament of uterus
Labia majora
114
Most highly innervated part of clitoris
Glans of clitoris
115
Function of the clitoris
Solely as an organ of sexual arousal
116
The __ artery supplies most of the skin of perineum, external genitalia, and perineal muscles
Internal pudendal artery
117
Layer of the endometrium which changes during the menstrual cycle
Endometrium
118
Ligament of the uterus that is at the most anterior part and keeps the uterus anteverted and anteflexed; terminates at the labia majora
Round ligament of uterus
119
Also the suspensory ligament of the ovary
Infundibulopelvic ligament
120
Where ovarian vessels traverse
Infundibulopelvic ligament
121
Main support of the uterus. Damage to this will cause a prolapsed uterus
Cardinal ligament/ transverse ligament of cervix
122
Arterial supply of vagina
Upper part: uterine artery | Middle and inferior part: vaginal and internal pudendal artery
123
Homologue of scrotum
Labia majora
124
Homologue of penis
Clitoris
125
Layers of scrotal sac and continuations to abdomen
Internal spermatic fascia from transversalis fascia Cremasteric muscle and fascia from internal oblique muscle and aponeurosis External spermatic fascia from external oblique muscle and aponeurosis Dartos muscle from superficial fascia of abd wall
126
Ejaculatory duct is formed by
Vas deferens and duct of seminal vesicle
127
Lobe of prostate gland prone to cancer
Posterior lobe
128
Sinuses of the skull
``` Maxilla Frontal Sphenoid Ethmoid Mastoid process of temporal bones ```
129
Term used to denoted external occipital protuberance
Inion
130
Fractura of the ___ may result to epidural hemorrhage because it overlies the anterior division of middle meningeal artery
Pterion
131
Fontanels close at (months)
Anterior: 18 months Posterior: end of first year
132
Olfactory nerves exit the skull through which foramen/foramina
Cribriform plate of ehtmoid
133
What structure pass through the optic canal
Optic nerve CN III | Opthalmic artery
134
What structure pass through the superior orbital fissure
CN III, IV, V1, VI, and superior opthalmic vein
135
What structure pass through the foramen rotundum
CN V2
136
What structure pass through the foramen ovale
CN V3, and lesser petrosal nerve
137
What structure pass through the foramen spinosum
Middle meningeal artery
138
Dangerous area of the scalp containing emissary veins and possible route of infection
Loose areolar tissue in subaponeurotic space
139
Contents of carotid sheath
Common carotid Internal carotid a. Internal jugular vein Vagus n.
140
Innervation of muscles of mastication
Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
141
Common carotid artery divides in internal and external division at the level of __
Upper border of thyroid cartilage (C4)
142
Branch of external carotid artery which may be damaged during thyroid surgery
Superior thyroid artery
143
Main sensory nerve if head and motor to muscles of mastication
Trigeminal nerve
144
Cranial nerves passing through internal acoustic meatus
Facial and vestibulocochlear nerve
145
Cranial nerve with the widest area of distribution
Vagus
146
Injury to this nerve during thyroidectomy causes voice hoarseness
External laryngeal nerve
147
Supplies all muscles of larynx except cricothyroid ms.
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
148
Supplies cricothyroid ms.
External laryngeal nerve
149
Motor innervation to all extrinsic (except palatoglossus) and intrinsic muscles of the tongue
Hypoglossal
150
Cranial nerve associated with tic doloreaux
Trigeminal
151
The lowest fibers of inferior constrictor is called
Cricopharyngeus ma.
152
Tensor of vocal cord
Cricothyroid ms.
153
Embryological origin of thymus
Endoderm lining of 3rd pharyngeal pouch
154
Oxytocin is produced by the ___
Paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
155
What heart valve is at the level of 3rd rib behind left side of sternum
Pulmonary valve
156
What heart valve is at the level of 3rd ICS behind left side of sternum
Aortic valve
157
What heart valve is at the level of 4th rib towards center of back of sternum
Mitral valve
158
What heart valve is at the level of 4th ICS behind the center of sternum
Tricuspid valve
159
The ADH is synthesized from
Supeaoptic nucleus of of hypothalamus
160
Cells of the thyroid gland which secretes t3 and t4
Follicular cells
161
Parafollicular cells of the thyroid secrete what?
Calcitonin
162
Cells of the parathyroid that secrete pth are called
Chief cells
163
Zones of adrenal cortex and hormones secreted
Zona glomerulosa: aldosterone (mineralocorticoids) Zona fasciculata: glucocorticoids Zona reticularis: sex hormones
164
Layer of the adrenal gland secreting catecholamines
Adrenal medulla
165
Cells of the pancreas that secretes somatostatin
D cells
166
Pinealocytes secrete what?
Melatonin