Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AUDE 5260 Human Anatomy & Neuroanatomy > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

what are NTs of the AVS

A

acetycholine (efferent)
glutamate aspartate - excite AVS
gaba glycine - inhibit in AVS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a NT of the neuromuscular

A

acetycholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain the process of stimulus all the way to synapsing of neurons

A

Neuron is sitting at resting membrane potential with all ion channels closed and inner voltage resting at -70 mV.
Outside trigger (like a spider brushing up against a knee, or a finger touching the hand) causes the mechanically gated ion channels (sodium channel) to open and sodium rushes in the membrane causing the cell to become depolarized
RP stays local where the stimulus was
RP are graded (amplitude modulated) signals with the amount of depolarization representing the strength of the signal.
Stimulus is strong enough to cause a threshold reach of the RP (about -55 mV)
AP (all or none, NO degradation, forward propagating, saltatory conduction)
at the axon hillock, Voltage-gated ion channels open at the first node of Ranvier and sodium rushes in, depolarizing that spot. Then the next (forward) node is stimulated and sodium rushes in so the AP propagates forward by saltatory conduction.
AP propagates down a neuron, activating sodium and potassium channels in a wave, it eventually reaches the presynaptic terminal
Reaching this terminal activates the voltage-gated calcium channels (Ca2+) to open and release calcium into the neuron’s cytoplasm (inside terminal bouton)
The flow of positively charged calcium ions causes the tiny synaptic vesicles (w/ NT) to fuse with the cell membrane and release those chemical messengers
these NT’s diffuse across the synaptic gap and bind to receptor sites on the postsynaptic neuron
Depending which NT binds to which receptor, the post neuron can either be excited or inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

correct order that they would occur during sensory transduction for a receptor in the skin and neuron of the ascending sensory pathway

A

Cell is at rest with a resting membrane potential of -65mV
2. Stimulus triggers a receptor potential
3. depolarization during the receptor potential initiates the action potential
4. Action potential reaches the terminal bouton and triggers synaptic transmission.
5. neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

purpose of the sodium potassium pump

A

for every two potassium ions that come in from the extracellular fluid ot the cytoplasm inside the membrane (pumps in), 3 sodium ions are pumped out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what cells create myelin in PNS & CNS

A

PNS - schwann cells, one axon per cell
CNS - oligodendrocytes, many axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does an AP encode intensity of a stimulus?

A

frequency modulation
a weak stimulus tends to trigger less frequency AP’s (like picking up an egg)
an intense stimulus increases the frequency of APs (like crushing a can)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

explain 4 things of an AP

A

all or none, NO degradation, forward propagating, saltatory conduction)

Action potentials can be conducted along neurons quickly due the presence of myelin and saltatory conduction.
The AP can carry information over relatively long distances without degrading (without getting weaker) so it does not degenerate or lose information on its way to or from the brain
an action potential is all or none
Action potentials carry information about the stimulus as a frequency modulated signal with faster firing rates for stronger stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

period when it cannot respond to any other stimulus no matter how strong (helps prevent signals from traveling in both directions down the axon at once)

A

absolute refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is A1

A

A1 is located on the transverse gyri of the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe, inside the lateral fissure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe Spiral ganglia and Scarpa’s ganglia

A

Scarpa’s -
The cell bodies of the bipolar afferent vestibular CN VIII fibers located in the internal auditory canal
Spiral ganglia - cochlea nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does ectoderm form

A

outer ear (skin) and inner ear (sense organs), membranous labyrinth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does mesoderm form

A

ossicles, temporal bone and bony labyrinth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does endoderm form

A

middle ear epithelial lining, aerated mastoid cavities, & ET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

first sign outside of embryo that inner ear is forming?

A

otic cyst that invaginated from ectoderm and became inner ear
all 3 germ layers contribute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ME cavity - primordial structure that becomes middle ear

A

tubotympanic recess - tubo becomes ET, tympanic is the middle ear cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which arches contribute to Ossicles?

A

1&2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how is outer ear/pinna formed

A

6 hillocks at 6 weeks that form this shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is the canal formed

A

form bw 1 & 2 arches
only opens later in development because it has meatal plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how does the TM develop its 3 layers

A

from all 3 germ layers
ecto outside, meso in middle, endo in middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During embryologic development, six hillocks of tissue form around both sides of the first branchial groove. What do these hillocks eventually become?

A

pinna of external ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

During embryological development of the central nervous system, which secondary vesicle of the neural tube becomes the pons, cerebellum and a portion of the fourth ventricle?

A

metencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which branchial arches play a major role in development of ear structures?

A

1&2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Embryologically, the central nervous system (including the brain and spinal cord), sense organs such as the cochlear and vestibular hair cells, and the skin are derived from which of the germ layers?

A

ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the generic term that describes defects of the spinal cord, during embryologic development when the caudal neuropore does not properly close?

A

spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

With respect to neuroembryology, the term gastrulation refers to

A

Formation of the three primary germ layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

During embryologic development, which germ layer gives rise to the skeletal structures, circulation structures, meninges, and cartilage (including the ossicles and temporal bone)?

A

mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Embryologically, development of the inner ear begins with formation of…

A

The otic placodes which are thickenings of ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Embryologically, what structures are derived from the neural tube and its tissues?

A

Central nervous system structures including structures such as the cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, ventricles and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

During embryologic development, what does the tubotympanic recess eventually become?

A

middle ear space and ET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In the embryo, which flexure of the developing neural tube marks the location where the future brainstem meets the future spinal cord, and this bend straightens out over time during development?

A

cephalic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which branchial arches play a major role in development of ear/auditory structures?

A

1&2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

where is regeneration more likely to happen in our body? PNS or CNS?

A

PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does regeneration occur?

A

scwann tube of myelin is in tact and nerve regenerated, new sprout can find the path
attracted to muscle with loss of nerve innervation, grow extra achetecholine receptors and attach

schwann tube to guide the regrowth and attracted to acetecholine on receptors on the muscle to get regrowing nerve back to it causing successful regeneration in PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which type of degeneration involves the distal portion of the axon that has been severed from the cell body and leaves Schwann tubes that may aid in regeneration?

A

orthograde degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

type of degeneration involving the distal portion of the axon that has been severed from the cell body and leaves Schwann tubes that may aid in regeneration

A

Orthograde degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

axonal degeneration occurs proximal to the site of injury -

A

retrograde degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Loss of neurotrophic factors coming from the axon to the cell body

A

retrograde axoplasmic flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

nerve is cut and nerve degenerates, so now cell body creates more production and creates a growth cone and sends out sprouts., if it finds the schwann tube, it gets all the nutrients and regrows and reinnervates the muscle and the other sprouts dont go anywhere

A

regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Main motor area located on the precentral gyrus with direct cortical control over motor neurons

A

M1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

aids in preparation for motor movements through facilitating specific sets of primary motor neuronstate specific sets of neurons

A

PREMOTOR area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

facilitates coordination of complex movements and is not needed for simple repetitive tasks

A

supplemental motor area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

set of nuclei at base of cerebral hemispheres

A

basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what makes up the basal ganglia

A

Putamen, caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, nucleus accumbens, and diencephalic subthalamic nuclei and substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is a group of BN called

A

striatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the whole edge of putamen and GP called

A

lenticular nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

forms loop resulting in involvement in most cortical functions (movment, cognition, emotion)
feedback loop because it gets involved in many things

A

basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

spasms, involuntary movements of limbs or facial muscles, with possible hypotonia (loss of muscle tone)

A

chorea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

characterized by excessive movement

A

hyperkinetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

characterized by diminished or slow movement

A

hypokinetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

“without position”; slow writhing movements (pronounced in hands and fingers); patient may have difficulty holding a limb in a fixed position

A

athetosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

“jumping about”; wild flailing movements of one arm and leg

A

ballismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

increased or abnormal tone in muscles or tissue resulting in a somewhat fixed posture

A

dystonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

loss of muscle tone

A

hypotonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

tone increase in flexors & extensors

A

rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

decreased or slow movements

A

bradykinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

something new that showed up, something added that didn’t use to be there (tremor for ex)

A

positive signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

taking something away, used to be able to do something and now they cannot

A

negative signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Huntingdon’s disease

A

movements that resembled “dancing” - chorea
Neuronal degeneration that is severe in the striatum and especially the caudate nucleus
autosomal dominant inherited disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is parkinson’s disease?

A

hypokinetic disorder
Biochemical disease of basal ganglia (evident in substantia nigra pigmented cells that should produce dopamine and transport it to the striatum)
more rigid and slow, non moving
have a tremor but if they pick up a coffee can and when they are moving the tremor goes away but when they are just sitting at rest, they have a tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what would be a positive and negative sign for Parkinson’s?

A

+ is rigidity
- is bradykinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

major portion of inferior cerebellar peduncle (“ropelike”) with fibers from spinal cord and brainstem

A

restiform body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

additional fibers of the ICP (inferior cerebellar peduncle) connecting cerebellum and vestibular nuclei

A

juxtarestiform body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

largest peduncle and it emerges from the basal pons

A

middle cerebellar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

peduncle that has many decussations and mainly efferent pathways from cerebellum to red nucleus and thalamus

A

superior cerebellar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Involved in equilibrium, control of muscle tone, posture and coordination of voluntary movements

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what creates the dendritic tree seen in the cerebellar cortex

A

purkinje cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

difficulty with rapid alternating movements

A

dysdiadochokinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what would we see in damage to a child’s 4th ventricle?

A

Damage to flocculonodular lobe
Loss of equilibrium, sway side to side, staggering, wide-based gait, falling over, problems with eye movements, can also have noncommunicating hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what could we see with damage to cerebellum?

A

Can have changes in muscle tone (hypotonia), reflexes (hyporeflexia) and coordination of voluntary movements ipsi to side of lesion
Broad-based stagger, general incoordination or ataxia (“lack of order”), often in leg movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Problems stopping or changing direction of movement (overshoot or undershoot of targets

A

dysmetria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Thin watery fluid anterior to the lens, between the lens and cornea
contains nutrients for cornea and lens

A

aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

does the cornea and lens have blood supply?

A

no, lacks this
aqueous humor provides nutrients for it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Thick, jelly-like semifluid found posterior to the lens, between the lens and the retina
Important for maintaining the shape of the eye/orbit

A

vitreous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

white part of eye

A

sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

clear portion of eye
nonadjustable “lens” of the eye

A

cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

contains the blood vessels and nerves for the eye

A

choroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

pigmented portion and consists of smooth muscles for constricting and dilating the pupil

A

iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pupillary constriction is mediated by the parasympathetic component of

A

CN III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Dilation is mediated by sympathetic neurons from

A

spinal cord segments T1 and T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

suspended behind the iris by zonula fiber (thin guide ropes) that are anchored in the ciliary body

A

lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

contains involuntary muscles that vary the tension exerted on the lens by the zonula fibers

A

ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Adjusting the shape of the lens to make it more rounded is called

A

accomodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what does accomodation of the eye help us do

A

Enables us to focus on near and far objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

light-sensing portion of the eye

A

retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

extension of the diencephalon

A

retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

are there multiple types of cells in teh retina?

A

yes, including bipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

describe the retinogeniculostriate pathway

A

Retinal ganglion cells (getting information for receptors known as rods and cones)
CN II
Optic chiasm
Optic tract
Lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
Internal capsule as thalamocortical projections
Optic radiations
Primary visual cortex (V1, Brodmann’s area 17, aka Striate cortex) either above or below the calcarine sulcus, in the cuneus or lingual gyrus respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

represented in the occipital lobe in the left hemisphere

A

right visual field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

represented in the occipital lobe in the right hemisphere.

A

left visual field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

represented inferior to the calcarine sulcus (in the lingual gyrus)

A

upper visual field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

represented superior to the calcarine (in the cuneus).

A

lower visual field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what does convergence of the eye help us do?

A

help both eyes look at the same object and focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

describe the light reflex

A

ganglion cells in retina pick light up, signal carried down CN 2 (optic), crosses the optic chiasm and optic tract to the lateral geniculate, then the superior colliculus stimulating the ciliary ganglion cells of CN 111 (occulomotor) to cause pupil constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

do we need the cortex for light reflex?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

do we need the cortex for the acoustic reflex

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

is there cortical involvement for the accommodation convergences reflex

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

how is the lens for distance vision

A

flattened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

describe the accomodation convergence reflex

A

Adjustments of the lens by activation of the ciliary body to bring close objects into focus
There is cortical involvement
After stimulus info reaches the visual cortex, impulses descend from V1 to the superior colliculus to activate the preganglionic parasympathetic neurons of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus
Activation of the ciliary ganglion follows
To cause smooth muscles of the ciliary body to round the lens for near vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Free nerve endings
Detecting stimuli that caused damage to tissue or that may cause damage

A

Nociceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What happens at the site of tissue damage

A

chemicals are released that cause dilation of arterioles—redness, leakage of plasma from venules—swelling, and attraction of phagocytes—cleaning up debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

inability to sweat and feel pain

A

CPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

if you are under stress, which part of ANS is active and what would it control

A

sympathetic, send harder pumping from heart to big muscles for ff response, reducing digestion and widening of eyes and stimulating sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Protective mechanism that is normal
Signaling tissue damage
Localized to the site of tissue damage

A

acute pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Caused by inflammation, arthritis, nerve entrapment, gun shot wounds, surgery, migraine, cancer, spinal cord injury, stroke, tumors and more

A

chronic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

pain located inside of our organs
ex: from gallstons, kidney stones, ulcers, etc.

A

visceral pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Superficial pain is pain that arises from the skin (cutaneous receptors)

A

somatic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

type of pain described by someone feeling pain in the chest wall or left arm when the stimulation is from the heart due to myocardial ischemia (a heart attack)

A

referred pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

pain that is projected to areas that are innervated by nerves that are compressed or damaged
With a shoulder injury, the pain may be projected to the wrist or elbow

A

projected pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

spontaneous pain that occurs in waves or sudden attacks following a noxious stimulus that has acted on the sensory neurons for a long period of time
Generally restricted to the regions supplied by the affected nerve or nerve root

A

neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is trigeminal neuralgia

A

intractable facial pain along one or more branches of CN V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Maladaptive
from damage to nervous system that changes CNS connections

A

neuropathic/intractable pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what kind of pain is phantom pain categorized as

A

neuropathic/intractable pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

direct stimulation of nociceptors
pain from pinpricks, cuts, minor burns etc

A

physiological pain (nociceptive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what are the results of physiological pain

A

reflexive withdrawal away from the stimulus
Pain that is intensified by peripheral and central mechanisms helps to modify behavior to protect the affected areas during healing (like limping with a sprained ankle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what is the gate theory

A

Developed in 1965 by Melzack and Wall
suggested there is a sort of “gate” in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord (specifically, in Rexed’s lamina II, the substantia gelatinosa) that either allows or does not allow pain transmission from afferents to the spinothalamic tract
can either enhance pain by fear and emotional status or we can inhibit this pain through our emotional status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Hitting the thumb with a hammer causes initial and delayed pain
Rubbing the thumb stimulates non-nociceptive cutaneous receptors and their afferents and helps to reduce the pain that is felt

A

gate theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what is involved cortically with pain

A

Limbic system - These regions are thought to play a role in the affective response to painful stimuli
emotional response to pain - will we cry, will we get mad, what are we going to feel with that pain

cortex and frontal lobe also play a role in the affective response to pain - Evaluation of painful input in terms of past experience is also important in determining the response to painful input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

lines the heart

A

endocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

outermost layer of the heart

A

epicardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

middle muscular layer of heart

A

myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what is endocarditis

A

an infection of the inner lining of the heart usually involving the heart valves
occurs when bacteria, fungi or other germs from another part of your body, such as your mouth, spread through your bloodstream and attach to damaged areas in heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

has 3 leaflets, flow from left ventricle to the aorta and then to the body
prevents backflow

A

aortic semilunar valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

has 2 leaflets between left ventricle and atrium, flow from lungs into left atrium and then to left ventricle
between L atrium and L ventricle

A

mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

has 3 leaflets, flow from right ventricle to pulmonary artery

A

pulmonary semilunar valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

3 leaflets, allows flow from right atrium to right ventricle,

A

tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what are arteries

A

blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart to other parts of the body
Primarily oxygenated blood, higher pressure
thicker and stronger than veins

128
Q

what are veins

A

blood vessels that carry blood toward the heart from other parts of the body
Carries blood that is low in oxygen, lower pressure
less elastic than arteries
contain valves

129
Q

superficial vein of the neck that drains blood from the parotid gland, most of the scalp, side of the face, Takes blood back to the heart.
It assists more with drainage if internal jugular is compressed/compromised

A

external jugular vein

130
Q

how many laters are in arteries and veins

A

3

131
Q

blood vessel cavity (opening)

A

lumen

132
Q

junction of blood vessels (forming a group or connections, circle of willis)

A

anastomosis

133
Q

smaller arteries attach to capillaries

A

arterioles

134
Q

gas nutrient and waste exchange
Any of the fine branching blood vessels that form a network between the arterioles and venules
Smallest blood vessels of the body
Sites of the transfer of oxygen and other nutrients from the bloodstream to other tissues in the body; they also collect carbon dioxide waste

A

capillaries

135
Q

Where do muscles of mastication receive vascular supply?

A

maxillary artery and facial artery

136
Q

where does the facial artery also supply?

A

muscles of facial expression

137
Q

what supplies the temporal muscle?

A

superficial temporal artery

138
Q

What supplies the sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, and deep muscles of the back?

A

occipital artery

139
Q

an arrangement of interconnected vascular channels that ensure that the (oxygenated) blood flow to the brain continues unimpeded, in case any of the principal suppliers are obstructed by injury, physical pressure or disease.

A

circle of willis

140
Q

what are erythrocytes

A

Red blood cells- makes up 95% of the blood cells) - predominant part of the blood cells
bioconcave disks
no nucleus
contains hemoglobin & iron (appears bright red when carrying O2 and appears darker red when carrying CO2)

141
Q

what is blood made of

A

erythrocytes leukocytes and thrombocytes

142
Q

the protein contained in red blood cells that is responsible for delivery of O2 to the tissues

A

hemoglobin

143
Q

what are leukocytes

A

White blood cells) - to do stuff for immune system like phagocytize (pac man to dead tissue and chomping it up), these are all immune system responses

144
Q

what is another name for platelets

A

thrombocytes

145
Q

What do thrombocytes do

A

help produce coagulation/blood clotting and prevent from blood loss continuing

146
Q

what are the types of leukocytes

A

granular (phagocytes, antihistamin heparin, histamine and serotonin producers)
agranular (phagocytes, T&B cells)

147
Q

monocytes and lymphocytes

A

agranular

148
Q

neutrophils
eosinphils
basophils

A

granular

149
Q

what are the basics of blood clotting

A

cut and ruptured blood vessel attracts thrombocytes
chemicals and processes happen to get fibrin & platelets component of thrombocytes to produce a clot of red blood cells and fibrin to plug up the hole with a netlike pattern and this is a scab

150
Q

attached connected clot to opening of lumen, unwanted clotting

A

thrombosis

151
Q

floating around the blood vessels, circulating blood clot

A

embolus

152
Q

Tissues killed as a result of loss of blood supply, area that wont get blood through it and tissue will be killed due to loss of blood, dead area

A

infarction

153
Q

foreign body (blood clot) that travels within the body and can constrict blood flow (could be detached thrombus)

A

embolus

154
Q

a blood clot, a lesion attached to the inner vessel wall, can block partially or fully the flow of blood. (attached)

A

thrombus

155
Q

what is albumin

A

prominent plasma protein
helps with osmotic pressure and water balance
happens to be protein which chemicals (drugs/hormones) will bind to it in the plasma to get carried around in our system and bounce off so they can transfer across the cell membrane to the tissues

156
Q

immune function or transportation

A

globulin

157
Q

for clotting

A

fibrinogen

158
Q

what is the function of blood

A

Transports: O2, CO2, nutrients, waste, hormones
Regulates: body pH, body temperature
Clotting mechanism
Protection against foreign microbes and toxins
Osmosis - moving fluids between tissues

159
Q

what is osmosis

A

movement of fluids between tissues

160
Q

where are all blood cells produced

A

red bone marrow

161
Q

Lymphocytes and monocytes produced by

A

Lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils

162
Q

what do blood cells develop from

A

stem cells (undifferentiated mesenchymal cells)

163
Q

production of blood cells

A

hematopoiesis

164
Q

what is the clumping of RBCs and occurs when blood groups are mismatched
usually a transfusion reaction

A

agglutination

165
Q

what are the blood types

A

A+
O+
B+
AB+
A-
O-
B-
AB-

166
Q

What blood type is the universal blood donor

A

O-

167
Q

what blood type can receive from anyone

A

AB+

168
Q

What is RH

A

protein on the RBCs
inherited through genes

169
Q

what can happen during pregnancy if you are RH- and the baby is RH+

A

blood from your baby can cross into your bloodstream, especially during delivery. If you’re Rh-negative and your baby is Rh-positive, your body will react to the baby’s blood as a foreign substance. It will create antibodies (proteins) against the baby’s blood. These antibodies usually don’t cause problems during a first pregnancy.
But Rh incompatibility may cause problems in later pregnancies, if the baby is Rh-positive. This is because the antibodies stay in your body once they have formed. The antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the baby’s red blood cells. The baby could get Rh disease, a serious condition that can cause a serious type of anemia.

170
Q

The period of time that begins with contraction of the atria and ends with ventricular relaxation is known as

A

cardiac cycle

171
Q

What is the difference between systole and diastole?

A

Systole is the contraction phase of the ventricles in a cardiac cycle and the systolic number in blood pressures measures is the top number.
Diastole is the relaxation phase of the ventricles in a cardiac cycle. The diastolic number is the bottom number in blood pressure measures.

172
Q

have thicker and stronger layers to account for increased pressure

A

ARTERIES

173
Q

Arteries carry (oxygenated / deoxygenated) blood away from the heart and to the body.

A

oxygenated

174
Q

Veins carry (oxygenated / deoxygenated) blood toward the heart from the body.

A

deoxygenated

175
Q

What are the exceptions to arteries carrying oxygenated and veins carrying deoxygenated?

A

THE PULMONARY ARTERIES ARE CARRYING DEOXY. BLOOD AWAY FROM HEART AND TO THE LUNGS
THE PULMONARY VEINS ARE CARRYING OXY. BLOOD AWAY FROM LUNGS AND BACK TO THE HEART

176
Q

What is the purpose of the valves in the heart?

A

TO PREVENT BACKFLOW – BLOOD ONLY FLOWS IN ONE DIRECTION BETWEEN STRUCTURES
when blood is being pumped to the other location, we want the valves to open to allow it through and then to close so it doesn’t go back in that area

177
Q

Briefly describe the flow of blood in and out of the heart.

A

Deoxygenated blood returns from body to right atrium through superior and inferior vena cava (bring used blood in)
Sent to right ventricle, which pumps blood to lungs—through pulmonary trunk and right and left pulmonary arteries
Oxygenated blood returns to left atrium through 4 pulmonary veins
Sent to left ventricle from the left atrium
Left ventricle sends blood to the body via the ascending aorta arches up and sends stuff up and down for upper and lower body
r atrium to r ventricle, to lungs, to l atrium to send to l ventricle and that sends it out to the upper and lower body

178
Q

What is a thrombocyte and what does it do

A

PLATELETS HELP FORM BLOOD CLOTS
Thrombocytes (platelet - clotting factor) or platelets
Disk-shaped cellular fragments with a nucleus
Prevent fluid loss when blood vessels are damaged by forming a mesh/net, catching platelets and forming a barrier/clot
after stopped flow, clot needs to be dissolved so it doesn’t stay there forever or become an embolism that doesn’t float within the blood stream

179
Q

2 components found in the plasma and their functions

A

Plasma proteins: 7%
Albumin (osmotic pressure and water balance), globulin (immune function or transportation, fibrinogen (for clotting)
Plasma solutes: 2%
Ions, nutrients, waste products, gases, enzymes, hormones

180
Q

What are the 4 blood types and 2 Rh factors?

A

A AND A-
B AND B-
AB AND AB-
O AND O-

181
Q

What types of complaints might necessitate that a patient undergo a tilt table exam?

A

LIGHT HEADEDEDNESS
SYNCOPE
HEAVY LEGS

182
Q

how to people get BP measured normally?

A

sitting

183
Q

reported dizzy when laying to standing, measure bp in those positions?

A

20 or more for top
10 or more for bottom

184
Q

what is the name when BP drops when going from one position to another

A

orthostatic hypotension

185
Q

One complete cardiac cycle

A

Atria contract / ventricles relax
Ventricles contract / atria relax

186
Q

contraction phase, pumps blood out

A

systole

187
Q

relaxation phase after contraction

A

diastole

188
Q

abnormal sound/noise from heart/blood flow when listening

A

bruit

189
Q

what portions of the body gets the most blood flow from the arteries?

A

brain, skeletal muscle, kidneys and GI system and spleen

190
Q

what is involved in pulsatile tinnitus?

A

cardiovascular

191
Q

this disorder has heart condition in kids who also have HL and if we know this they can treat it

A

JLNS

192
Q

dietary and environmental and multifactoral, sugar levels of intake, dietary or medication treatment

A

type 2 diabetes

193
Q

diagnosed in children, more severe, insulin dependent

A

type 1 diabetes

194
Q

what are heart conditions that can lead to lowe blood pressure

A

extremely low heart rate (bradycardia), heart valve problems, heart attack and heart failure

195
Q

slow heart rate

A

bradycardiaf

196
Q

fast heart rate

A

tachycardia

197
Q

why are we concerned of HL in arterial sclerosis

A

more likely to have tiny arteries clogged and are not able to get blood through like to the cochlea and can have HL or vestibular loss

198
Q

should audiologists ask about cardiovascular issues in case history?

A

yes, whole person, whole body health, know it plays a role in vestibular and hearing

199
Q

what part of the body is first to be affected by heart disease

A

inner ear

200
Q

what conditions might we see in audiology or how does cardiovascular relate to audiology?

A

JLNS
POTS
Orthostatic hypotension
Pulsatile tinnitus

201
Q

set of organs that allows a person to breathe and/or exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body.

A

respiratory system

202
Q

what is included in the respiratory system

A

includes the nasal passages, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tubes, and lungs.

203
Q

Diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and pulls downward - opening the cavity to make more space so the pressure in the air is higher and is being pulled into the lungs

A

inhalation

204
Q

Pressure decreases in lungs: air rushes in
ribcage rises
draws gases into the lungs

A

inhalation

205
Q

Diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax - moves back up to arched position, narrower cavity and squeezing lungs so it pushes the air out

A

exhalation

206
Q

Pressure increases in lungs: air rushes out
forces gases out of the lungs

A

exhalation

207
Q

what is the function of the respiratory system

A

Supply the body with oxygen and dispose of carbon dioxide
2. Filter inspired air (air breathed in)
3. Help produce sound (vocalization)
4. Aid in smell (contains receptors for smell)
5. Rids the body of some excess water and heat
6. Helps regulate blood pH

208
Q

what is the respiration process

A

external exchange of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide with the external environment; and internal exchange of the gasses between the lungs and internal tissues at the capillaries

209
Q

what is the importance of the nose

A

Filters out dust; warm and moisturize air, smell, speech tone

210
Q

connects nasal passages to rest of respiratory system

A

nasopharynx

211
Q

connection to mouth

A

oropharynx

212
Q

connects with esophagus and larynx

A

laryngopharynx

213
Q

contains the pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) which aid in the body’s immune defense.

A

nasopharynx

214
Q

back portion of the mouth that contains the palatine tonsils which aid in the body’s immune defense

A

oropharynx

215
Q

what is the larynx function

A

Prevents swallowed materials from entering the
lower respiratory tract.
Conducts air into the lower respiratory tract.
Produces sounds.
Supported by a framework of nine pieces of cartilage

216
Q

what is the epiglottis

A

put air and food in the right places so they go down the right tubes

217
Q

where is the trachea in realtion to the esophagus

A

anteriorly

218
Q

where is the esophagus in relation to the trachea

A

posteriorly

219
Q

flexible tube aka windpipe

A

trachea

220
Q

divided into 2 lobes by oblique fissure

A

left lung

221
Q

accomodates the heart (for the L Lung)

A

cardiac notch

222
Q

divided into 3 lobes by oblique and horizontal fissure
– located more superiorly in the body due to liver on this side

A

right lung

223
Q

where does gas exchange occur

A

in alveoli at the end of bronchioles

224
Q

soft tissue around the organ itself

A

visceral pleura

225
Q

everything else the lung touches is lined with

A

parietal plura

226
Q

why do we need the pleura around the lungs

A

lubrication to ensure minimal friction during breathing

227
Q

pleuritis with too much fluid

A

pleural effusion

228
Q

between pleura, prevents friction

A

pleural cavity

229
Q

what is COPD

A

Umbrella term used to describe progressive lung diseases including emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and refractory (non-reversible) asthma.
Characterized by breathlessness.

230
Q

Where may we encounter COPD

A

nursing home, hospital care setting, elderly, history of chronic smoking, occupational exposure (pesiticides, aspestis, etc.)

231
Q

how is COPD categorized

A

4 stages based on severity (1-4 mild to severe)

232
Q

what is the most common cause of emphysema

A

cigarette smoking

233
Q

involves damage to the air sacs (alveoli) in the lungs. As a result, your body does not get the oxygen it needs. makes it hard to catch your breath. You may also have a chronic cough and have trouble breathing during exercise

A

emphysema

234
Q

is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes, the airways that carry air to your lungs. It causes a cough that often brings up mucus. It can also cause shortness of breath, wheezing, a low fever, and chest tightness.

A

bronchitis

235
Q

A hereditary disease that affects the lungs and digestive system.
The body produces thick and sticky mucus that can clog the lungs and obstruct the pancreas.
can be life-threatening, and people with the condition tend to have a shorter-than-normal life span.

A

cystic fibrosis

236
Q

an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs.
The air sacs may fill with fluid or pus (purulent material), causing cough with phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing.
A variety of organisms, including bacteria, viruses and fungi can cause it

A

pneumonia

237
Q

Build-up of excess fluid between the layers of the pleura outside the lungs.

A

pleural effusion

238
Q

“water on the lungs”

A

pleural effusion

239
Q

where is there info crossing over for visual and auditory pathway for where optic info goes?

A

temporal lobe

240
Q

what might we see with a lesion in the temporal lobe?

A

can have both auditory and visual symptoms with lesion in this area
due to crossing over of visual and auditory pathways

241
Q

what visual info lands in the cuneus (above calcarine)

A

lower visual field

242
Q

what visual info lands in the lingual (below calcarine)

A

upper visual field

243
Q

describe accomodation and convergence

A

same as retinogeniculate
once at thalamus or pretectal area, some info goes out from optic nerve fibers in thalamus and go into the top of BS to pretectal area (superior/inferior coll) and control our natural eye responses (convergence and accommodation and pupil constriction), leaves thalamus and pre tectal to CN III to control medial rectus (go toward nose) and pupillary constrictors in orange that go to the cilliary muscles to constrict pupil

244
Q

the left temporal hemiretina and the right nasal hemiretina go to which hemisphere in the brain?

A

left brain

245
Q

the right temporal hemiretina and the left nasal hemiretina go to which hemisphere in the brain?

A

right brain

246
Q

the right visual field hits where and lands where?

A

hits the right nasal hemiretina and left temporal hemiretina
lands on the left brain

247
Q

the left visual field hits where and lands where?

A

hits the left nasal hemiretina and right temporal hemiretina
lands on the right brain

248
Q

normal spherical-shaped eye

A

emmetropia

249
Q

elongated eyeball

A

myopia
near sightedness (cannot see far away)

250
Q

flattened eyeball shape

A

hyperopia
far sightedness (cannot see up close)

251
Q

If the cornea gradually thins at the center and protrudes, becoming cone-shaped this results in

A

keratoconus

252
Q

A type of spherical aberration
Affects the ability of the eye to focus
The cornea has various radii of curvature

A

astigmatism

253
Q

loss of accommodation (near vision) due to aging

A

presbyopia

254
Q

causes blood vessels of the retina (and other parts of the body) to become leaky. Protein escapes into the normally clear aqueous humor, making it cloudy and causing light to defract, blurring vision. In advanced stages, blindness results.

A

diabetic retinopathy

255
Q

film/clogging of the eye
opacity (cornea looks milky)
can occur with aging or sped up with genetics

A

cataract

256
Q

front chamber is filled with aqueous and too much of this causes excess pressure on the eye, has to be absorbed through canal of schlem and go out to be absorbed and if it doens’t this occurs
pressure builds up and pushes lens back
puff of air at the eye doctor is checking for this

A

glaucoma

257
Q

vascular lesion, deposit of pigment in the retina, etc.
dancing light in the eye
think migraine with light

A

scotoma

258
Q

could have damage from injury or genetics and retina falls off of the globe and falls forward in the fluid when it should be firmly attached
think of curtain closing in from the sides after a theater show
can lead to permanent blindness if not treated right away

A

detached retina

259
Q

An age-related eye disease affecting the small part of the retina responsible for sharp, straight-ahead vision that is needed for driving and reading small print. This disorder usually occurs in people 65 years of age or older.

A

macular degeneration

260
Q

What part of the nervous system mediates the slow phase?

A

vestibular

261
Q

What part of the nervous system mediates the fast phase?

A

CNS

262
Q

rhythmic eye movements, know which left or right beating

A

nystagmus

263
Q

eye tracking
Following a moving object

A

smooth pursuit

264
Q

Directing the gaze from one target to another (point A to point B)

A

saccades

265
Q

aka railroad nystagmus
eyes track until out of site and then dart back to the middle and repeat and looks just like nystagmus that we would have with a disease

A

OPK

266
Q

can compensation in CNS occur with spontaneous nystagmus?

A

yes if the lesion is to a peripheral vestibular organ and the other side is intact.

267
Q

Brainstem lesions causing nystagmus do not show compensation

A

true

268
Q

How does the body know we are not moving?

A

the paired vestibular system

269
Q

how does it know I am moving?

A

one side of vestibular system is inhibited and the other stimulated

270
Q

why do I not see spontaneous nystagmus with a PT that comes in? How can we override this?

A

can have spontaneous nystagmus that you cannot see in a well lit room with some visual stimulus to fixate on so the vision will override the spontaneous nystagmus
when you take this away, the spontaneous nystagmus can show up when they cannot focus on something

271
Q

when do we see gaze nystagmus?

A

when hold signal is not able to remain in place on an object, the eyes drift back to center and a new saccade is initiated to bring the eye back to the target

272
Q

objects/world spinning

A

objective vertigo

273
Q

self spinning

A

subjective vertigo

274
Q

what is opthalmoplegia

A

disturbance of eye muscles

275
Q

sitting and looking at something, muscles work equally, medial pulls stronger and eye deviates towards the nose with lesion to VI
results in a “lazy eye”

A

nuclear lesion opthalmoplegia

276
Q

lesion in nuclei of CN’s

A

nuclear opthalmoplegia

277
Q

bw nuclei, MLF (Fiber tract), lesion in MLF
multiple sclerosis - depends where lesion is impacted on how the eye movement would be
disoriented/deranged eye movements

A

internuclear opthalmoplegia

278
Q

above the eye, in cerebral cortex
still have reflexes intact (because below the cortex) but voluntary saccades are interrupted (look at this, look at this - cannot do it)

A

supranuclear opthalmoplegia

279
Q

Reflexive movement of the eyes in response to vestibular stimulation

A

VOR

280
Q

Normally the VOR produces conjugate eye movement in the direction opposite the movement of the head

A

TRUE

281
Q

right turn of the head, the eyes go to the left the same degree as the head turn

A

VOR

282
Q

Blood supply to visual fibers and visual cortex

A

choroid
posterior cerebral artery

283
Q

what can trigger free nerve endings?

A

intense mechanical stimulation, intense heat or cold, or various chemicals released by or in response to tissue damage

284
Q

if you are under stress, which part of ANS is active and what it would control

A

sympathetic, send harder pumping from heart to big muscles for ff response, reducing digestion and widening of eyes and stimulating sweat glands

285
Q

what are examples of effector organs?

A

muscle, heart, other things, nerves innervate to control automatically

286
Q

if in sitting down to rest and relaxing what happens to the body

A

parasympathetic, decreased heart rate, increased digestion, pupillary constriction, no effect on sweat glands

287
Q

preparation for strenuous or stressful situation when we need energy, increased heart rate, more blood to skeletal muscle
Activates adrenal medulla to secrete chemical messengers which can provide widespread and relatively long-lasting effects

A

sympathetic system

288
Q

energy storage or decrease in activity, decreased cardiac output and blood pressure, more gut activity for digestion, pupillary constriction (ready to rest)

A

parasympathetic

289
Q

what is HPA axis and what does it do

A

hypothalamus releases a hormone (corticotropin-releasing) that activates the sympathetic nervous system (increases heart rate, sweating, etc.). This also tells the pituitary gland to start releasing its hormone (adrenocorticotropic) into the bloodstream. Through the blood, this hormone makes its way to the adrenal glands in the abdomen binding to them. The adrenal glands then start producing cortisol

290
Q

what is cortisol

A

Cortisol is a steroid hormone that regulates a range of vital processes throughout the body, like metabolism and immune response. It also helps the body respond to stress by sending more blood to muscles, increasing amount of glucose in the blood and increasing blood pressure and turns off the functions in our body that doesn’t help in stressful situations

291
Q

Discuss Tinnitus and involvement of the ANS and limbic system

A

connections and vicious cycle of sound tying in limbic for emotions and responds
become hypersensitive, more emotional, more stressed, more tuned into it and keeps going

292
Q

how many layers does the cortex have

A

6 (1 superficial, 6 deep)

293
Q

what cells are the most abundant in the cerebral cortex?

A

pyramidal cells

294
Q

what are EE fibers in columns of cortex

A

excited by stimuli in both ears

295
Q

what are EI fibers in columns of cortex

A

excited by stimuli in one ear and inhibited by stimuli in the other ear

296
Q

favored for the development of speech and language

A

left hemisphere

297
Q

usually plays a role in happy feelings

A

left pre frontal cortex

298
Q

aiding in negative feelings

A

right pre frontal cortex

299
Q

speech dominant

A

L brain

300
Q

creative dominant

A

R brain

301
Q

why do we have functions in specific areas of the brain rather than having it on both sides?

A

efficiency of the space and can process and do more because it is compartmentalized allowing for more cognitive functions

302
Q

damage to left frontal cortex

A

depression and crying

303
Q

damage to right frontal cortex

A

no negative feelings lack of concern about symptoms, pathological laughing, burst of euphoria

304
Q

what are commissural/interhemispheric fibers and give examples

A

from contralateral hemisphere, connects the hemispheres
CC, anterior commissure, posterior commissure, interthalamic adhesion

305
Q

what are association fibers and give an example

A

other regions within same hemisphere
arcuate fasciculus

306
Q

In the BS where do we find the most crossing over of fibers?

A

decussations in BS are in pyramids in front of the medulla

307
Q

inability to recognize an object or interpret sensory stimuli

A

agnosia

308
Q

interference with planning and performing skilled and complex movements

A

apraxia

309
Q

spoken and written words have no meaning

A

wernicke’s aphasia

310
Q

normal comprehensive but production of speech is impaired

A

broca’s aphasia

311
Q

disturbance of language function

A

aphasia

312
Q

periods of abnormal hyperactive and synchronized neuronal firing in the cortex

A

seizures

313
Q

causes of seizures

A

Many causes, related to cortical damage
Temporary: Concussion, hypoglycemia, meningitis, encephalitis
Sustained: brain tumors, abscesses, intracranial vascular lesions, metabolic disease
Taking drugs or withdrawal form drugs

314
Q

what lesion in cortex is a better prognosis for recovery?

A

supratentorial

315
Q

Slow and stepwise progression

A

supratentorial lesion

316
Q

Dramatic symptoms associated with cranial nerves
Vertigo, nausea and projectile vomiting (vegitative symptoms), deafness, facial paralysis

A

infratentorial lesion

AUDE 5260 Human Anatomy & Neuroanatomy (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions