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Final Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the bones of the instep?

A

Metatarsals

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2
Q

What are the arches of the foot?

A
  • Transverse
  • Longitudinal
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3
Q

Where are the MTP joints located on the metatarsals?

A

Metatarsal heads

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4
Q

Which tarsal articulates with the 4th or 5th metatarsals & calcaneus?

A

Cuboid

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5
Q

Which surface of the foot are sesamoid bones located?

A

Plantar

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6
Q

Where is the lateral malleolus located?

A

Fibula

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7
Q

Where is the CR for an AP axial foot?

A

3rd metatarsal base

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8
Q

How many degrees is the foot rotated for a medial oblique view?

A

30

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9
Q

How many degrees is the tube angled for a plantodorsal heel view?

A

40-degrees cephalic

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10
Q

What must the foot do for all ankle view?

A

Dorsiflex

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11
Q

What is located between the two tibial condyles on the superior surface of the tibia?

A

Intercondylar eminence

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12
Q

What is the most proximal end of the fibula called?

A

Apex

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13
Q

What is the anterior surface of the femur called?

A

Patellar

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14
Q

What joint is classified as a fibrous syndesmosis joint?

A

Distal tibiofibular joint

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15
Q

Where is the intercondylar fossa located on the femur?

A

Posterior aspect

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16
Q

What is the angle of the CR for an axiolateral mandible?

A

25 degrees cephalic

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17
Q

Where does the CR exit for a PA projection of the mandibular rami?

A

Acanthion

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18
Q

Where is the CR for an axialateral TMJ (shuller)?

A

1/2” anterior & 2” superior to EAM

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19
Q

Where does the CR enter for a lateral view of the nasal bone?

A

Inner canthus

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20
Q

Which view of the nasal bones is performed table top?

A

Lateral

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21
Q

Where is the CR perpendicular to for an SMV view of the facial bones?

A

IOML

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22
Q

What is the anterior end of the mandibular notch called?

A

Coronoid process

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23
Q

What forms the inferior part of the nasal septum?

A

Vomer

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24
Q

What part of the palatine bone helps to form the posterior nasal cavity?

A

Vertical plate

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25
Q

Where is the anterior nasal spine found?

A

Maxillary bone

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26
Q

What is the smallest facial bone?

A

Lacrimal bone

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27
Q

What is the best view to demonstrate a blowout fracture?

A

Waters

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28
Q

Which sinuses are best seen in a SMV projection?

A
  • Sphenoid
  • Ethmoid
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29
Q

What view best demonstrates the frontal sinuses?

A

PA Caldwell

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30
Q

Which bone forms most of the orbital roof?

A

Frontal

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31
Q

What separates the superior orbital fissure and optic canal?

A

Sphenoid strut

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32
Q

The orbits project _____ degrees ______ from the OML

A
  • 30
  • Superiorly
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33
Q

Where do the sphenoid sinuses lie directly below?

A

Sella turcica

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34
Q

Where do the posterior ethmoid sinuses drain into?

A

Superior nasal meatus

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35
Q

What is the only facial bone to contain a paranasal sinus?

A

Maxillary

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36
Q

When positioning the patient a lateral skull view, what is perpendicular to the edge of the cassette?

A

IOML

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37
Q

Where does the CR exit for a townes skull view?

A

Foramen magnum

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38
Q

When evaluating an AP caldwell skull view, what is seen in the lower 1/3 portion of the orbits?

A

Petrous pyramids

39
Q

If your using the GML to position for a PA caldwell skull view, how many degrees should the CR be angled?

A

23-degrees caudal

40
Q

What bone is the zygomatic process found on?

A

Temporal bone

41
Q

What is the most vulnerable portion of a skull to fracture?

A

Squamous portion of temporal bone

42
Q

What is the posterior boundary of the sella turcica?

A

Dorsum sellae

43
Q

What is the thick conical process projecting from the cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone?

A

Crista galli

44
Q

What does the basilar portion of the occipital bone articulate with?

A

Body of the sphenoid

45
Q

Where is the ethmoidal notch on?

A

Frontal bone

46
Q

What is the posterior extension of the IOML?

47
Q

Whats another name for reids baseline?

48
Q

How many degrees is there a difference between the OML & IOML?

49
Q

What is the medial junction of the upper and lower eyelids called?

A

Inner canthus

50
Q

How many degrees is the CR angled for an AP coccyx?

A

10-degrees caudal

51
Q

In a lateral L-spine, what is seen in profile?

A

Spinous processes

52
Q

What is the the body of the scottie dog?

53
Q

What makes up the eyes of the scottie dog?

54
Q

How many vertebrae fuse to form the cocyx?

55
Q

Where does the spinal cord terminate?

56
Q

What is the the part of the lamina between the superior and inferior articulate processes on a lumbar vertebrae?

A

Pars interarticularis

57
Q

Where is the CR for an AP T-spine?

58
Q

What kVp is used for a soft tissue neck exam?

59
Q

How many degrees is the CR angled for a fuchs view?

A

30-degrees cephalic

60
Q

How many degrees is the CR angled for an AP C-spine at 40” SID?

A

15-20 cephalic

61
Q

Where is the CR perpendicular to for a lateral C-spine?

62
Q

Which view is performed to see the intervertebral foramina in the T-spine?

63
Q

What side of the intervertebral foramina are seen, when performing a 45-degree RPO c-spine?

64
Q

Which vertebrae are the costal facets found in?

65
Q

Whats the inner part of the intervertebral disk?

A

Nucleus pulposus

66
Q

What is formed by the inferior vertebral notch articulating with the superior vertebral notch of an adjacent vertebrae?

A

Intervertebral foramine

67
Q

What is the articulation between the superior and inferior articular processes of the two vertebrae called?

A

Zygapophyseal joint

68
Q

What is the most posterior aspect of the vertebrae?

A

Spinous process

69
Q

Which vertebrae have primary curves?

A
  • Thoracic
  • Pelvic
70
Q

How many degrees is the patient rotated for a PA oblique of the SC joints?

A

10-15 degrees

71
Q

How many degrees is the patient rotated for an RAO sternum?

A

15-20 degrees

72
Q

What breathing technique is used for an AP lower ribs view?

A

Expiration

73
Q

What SID is used for an RAO sternum?

74
Q

Which ribs are the interchondral joints found in?

75
Q

What is the joint between the sternum and costal cartilage of the true ribs?

A

Sternocostal

76
Q

What part of the rib attaches to the body of the thoracic vertebrae?

77
Q

What does the xiphoid process correspond to?

78
Q

What does the jugular notch correspond to?

79
Q

What is the most superior aspect of the sternum?

80
Q

When using the judet method, AP internal oblique, if the patient is in RPO, which hip is demonstrated?

81
Q

Where does the CR enter for a lateral hip?

A

Femoral neck

82
Q

What should be seen in profile on an AP hip?

A

Greater trochanter

83
Q

How many degrees should the legs be internally rotated for an AP pelvis?

84
Q

What aspect of the femur is the intertrochanteric crest seen?

85
Q

The most prominent part of the greater trochanter is in the same plane as _______

A

Pubic symphysis

86
Q

What bones make up the obturator foramen?

A
  • Ischium
  • Pubis
87
Q

What is the most inferior structure on the pelvis?

A

Ischial tuberosity

88
Q

What is the lesser sciatic notch found on?

89
Q

What is the region above the pelvic brim called?

A

False pelvis aka greater pelvis

90
Q

What angle is the CR for a the hughston patella method?

A

45 degrees cephalic

91
Q

How many degrees is the knee flexed for the holmblad knee?

92
Q

Where is the proximal tib-fib articulation seen?

A

Medial oblique knee

93
Q

Where do the femoral condyles appear to the IR when in a true AP projection of the tib-fib?

94
Q

Which ligaments attach at the sides of the knee?

A

Collateral

RAD 2 (38 decks)

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