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Small Parts/specialized > Final Q4 Review > Flashcards

Final Q4 Review Flashcards

1
Q

When bowel prolapses into the distal bowel and is propelled in an ante grade fashion, this condition is known as:

A

Intussusception

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2
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis most commonly occurs most commonly occurs in:

A

Males, between 2-6 weeks, bile free projectile vomiting

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3
Q

In patients with appendicitis, the outer diameter should measure at greater than ___mm

A

7mm

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4
Q

Findings that may indicate appendicitis includes:

A
  • free peritoneal fluid
  • loculated fluid in lower abdomen
  • appendicoloth
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5
Q

Children with intussusception exhibit:

A
  • colicky abdominal pain
  • vomiting
  • bloody stools
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6
Q

The length of the pediatric gallbladder should not exceed

A

The length of the kidney

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7
Q

An abdominal ultrasound may be ordered in the neonate when jaundice persists beyond:

A

2 weeks

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8
Q

The most common causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice include:

A

Biliary atresia, hepatitis, choledochal cysts

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9
Q

The most common type of choledochal cyst is

A

Fusiform dilation of CBD

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10
Q

Infantile for of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hepatoblastoma

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11
Q

The pylorus muscle connects the _____ with the duodenum

A

Antrum of the stomach

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12
Q

The most common acute abdominal disorder in early childhood

A

Intussusception

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13
Q

Condition may occur when fetus is stressed during a difficult delivery or during a hypoxia insult

A

Adrenal hemorrhage

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14
Q

Thin structure in neonate with echogenicity similar to or slightly greater than the normal liver parenchyma

A

Renal cortex

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15
Q

Most common cause of renal cystic disease in the neonate

A

MCDK

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16
Q

This structure should not be mistaken for dilated calyces or cysts in the infant?

A

Medullary pyramids

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17
Q

If the ipsilateral renal is absent or ectopic in location, the adrenal gland:

A

Remains in the renal fossa

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18
Q

Genitourinary problem commonly is commonly associated with prune belly syndrome

A

Uteral reflux

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19
Q

Neuroblastoma is typically a malignant tumor of the

A

Adrenal gland

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20
Q

The most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in the male neonate is

A

PUV

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21
Q

The normal renal length in the pediatric patient varies with ____

A

Age

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22
Q

The left adrenal gland extends _____ to the kidney

A

Medially

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23
Q

The adrenal medulla in the neonate appears as an

A

Echogenic stripe

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24
Q

Obstruction that demonstrates a pelvocaliceal dilation without ureteral dilation

A

UPJ

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25
Q

Bilateral renal enlargement is seen with which condition

A

ARPKD

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26
Q

Peak age range for Wilms tumor

A

2-5 years

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27
Q

What 3 mechanisms account for development of hydrocephalus?

A

Outflow obstruction

Decreased absorption

Overprotection of CSF

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28
Q

Sonography of the neonatal brain is initially evaluated through the:

A

Anterior fontanelle

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29
Q

What structure produces 40% of the CSF

A

Choroid plexus

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30
Q

Convolutions on the surface of the brain are called

A

Gyri

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31
Q

The most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus is

A

Aqueductal stenosis

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32
Q

most likely the result of a germinal matrix hemorrhage

A

Subependymal cyst

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33
Q

The hip bones:

A

Ilium, ischium, pubis

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34
Q

Bending of hip backwards:

A

Extension

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35
Q

The articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the hip bone forms the

A

Hip joint

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36
Q

Indications for sonography of the neonatal hip

A

Rule out hip dysplasia

Breech birth

Abnormal hip examination

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37
Q

Sonographic examination of the infant hip is performed with a _____ transducer

A

Linear array

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38
Q

In the _______ maneuver, down and outward pressure is applied with the patient lying in a supine position with the hip adducted and flexed 90 degrees

A

Barlow

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39
Q

Moving sideways outward

A

Abduction

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40
Q

The physical signs of the development of a displacement of the hip

A
  • extreme abduction
  • shortening of femur
  • asymmetric skin folds
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41
Q

Sonography is able to image the spinal cord because

A

Ossification of the posterior spinal elements is incomplete

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42
Q

Pathological fixation of the spinal cord in an abnormal caudal location is known as

A

Tethered cord

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43
Q

Indications for spinal sonography;

A
  • back mass
  • midline cutaneous deformities
  • large collection of hair on the back
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44
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are in the vertebral column

A

5

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45
Q

Typical signs of biliary atresia

A
  • distended abdomen
  • persistent jaundice
  • dark urine
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46
Q

The presence of ______ is associated with biliary atresia

A

Polysplenia

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47
Q

Most common benign pediatric liver tumor is

A

Hemangioendothelioma

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48
Q

2nd most common malignant tumor in childhood

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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49
Q

Pediatric condition associated with the palpable “olive mass”

A

Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

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50
Q

Individual pyloric muscle wall thickness of ___ or greater indicates pyloric stenosis

A

Greater than 3mm

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51
Q

The _____ is a long, tubular structure, which connects the dome of the bladder to the umbilicus

A

Urachus

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52
Q

Sonographic findings of a unilateral mass represents a “cluster of grapes” with no identifiable renal pelvis suggests

A

MCDK

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53
Q

Most common renal tumor of neonate

A

Mesoblastic nephroma

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54
Q

Most common disorder of neonatal brain is

A

Hydrocephalus/ventriculomegaly

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55
Q

Maneuver that requires neonatal hip to be flexed 90 degrees and thigh to be abducted

A

Ortolani

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56
Q

The _____ forms the bony spine, meninges, and muscle

A

Mesoderm

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57
Q

There are ____ cervical vertebrae

A

7

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58
Q

Middle layer of spinal cord

A

Arachnoid mater

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59
Q

Patient position for neonatal spine exam

A

Supine

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60
Q

Right hepatic lobe shouldn’t extend more than ____ below the costal margins in an infant

A

1cm

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61
Q

CBD should measure less than ____ in neonates and less than ____ in adults

A

1mm , 7mm

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62
Q

In infants the gallbladder should measure:

A

1.5cm-3cm

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63
Q

The sonographic findings of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis will demonstrate a channel length of _____ or greater

A

15mm

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64
Q

Neonatal hepatitis may reach the liver from:

A

Placenta, vagina, catheters

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65
Q

Acholic stools is a clinical sign of

A

Biliary atresia

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66
Q

Hypoplastic remnant of a biliary stucture appears as a small triangular structure seen anterior to the porta hepatis with this condition

A

Biliary atresia

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67
Q

Serum alpha fetoprotein will _____ with an adenoma of liver

A

Remain unchanged

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68
Q

Hepatoblastoma is associated with why syndrome?

A

Beckwith-widemann syndrome

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69
Q

Differential diagnosis or appendicitis

A

Intussusception
Ovarian torsion
Ovarian cyst

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70
Q

Reasons for non-visualization of the appendix:

A

Overlying bowel

Retrocecal position

Overdistended urinary bladder

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71
Q

Inflammed appendix is compressible/noncompressible

A

Noncompressible

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72
Q

Peristalsis is normally “not/is” seen in the appendix

A

Not

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73
Q

Sandwich sign appearance describes what condition

A

Intussusception

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74
Q

Which gastric bezoar is made up of vegetable matter

A

Phytobezoar

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75
Q

Which gastric bezoar is made up of hair balls

A

Trichobezoar

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76
Q

Urine refluxes into the ureter and kidney with severe swelling and twisting of the ureter in which grade of VUR?

A

Grade 5

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77
Q

Urine refluxes into the ureter and kidney with no swelling indicates which grade of VUR?

A

Grade 2

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78
Q

Results from an ectopic bladder insertion and cystic dilation of the distal ureter of a completely duplicated renal collecting system:

A

Ureterocele

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79
Q

85% of patients with prune belly syndrome have an associated:

A

VUR

80
Q

Renal cysts are associated with what two conditions?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

Von Hillel-Lindau

81
Q

Grooves or depressions in the brain are called

A

Sulci/sulcus

82
Q

The fissure that separates the two cerebral hemispheres is

A

Interhemispheric fissure

83
Q

During which study/plane is it critical to obtain symmetrical images of the brain?

A

Coronal

84
Q

Which classification of intraventricular hemorrhage corresponds with minimal venticular enlargement:

A

Grade 2

85
Q

Which classification of intraventricular hemorrhage corresponds with moderate ventricular enlargement

A

Grade 3

86
Q

Germinal matrix intraventricular hemorrhage lesions affect what percent of infants less than 34 weeks gestation

A

40-70%

87
Q

The ____ hip is most often affected by DDH

A

Left

88
Q

The outer layer of the spinal cord

A

Dura mater

89
Q

The spinal cord should terminate at which level

A

L3

90
Q

The horse tail appearance of the spine refers to which anatomical location

A

Cauda equina

91
Q

Nerve roots appear ______ and the spinal cord appears ________ sonographically

A

Echogenic

Hypoechoic

92
Q

A dimple like opening in the midline of the spine connecting deep into the spinal cord is:

A

Dermal sinus tract

93
Q

The functional portion of the breast consists of ______ lobes

A

15-20

94
Q

Forms a fibrous skeleton that is responsible for maintaining the shape of the breast

A

Coopers ligaments

95
Q

As a woman ages, the glandular breast tissue is replaced with:

A

Fat

96
Q

Coopers ligaments are best characterized as

A

Echogenic line interfaces in all breast layers

97
Q

The retromammary layer sonographical appearance:

A

Hypoechoic

98
Q

The most important signs to look for in determining a cystic lesion of the breast include

A

Well defined borders

Good through transmission

Anechoic

99
Q

Clinical findings of lumpy, painful, tender breasts that vary with monthly cycles usually represent

A

Fibrocystic disease

100
Q

Most common solid benign tumor of the breast

A

Fibroadenoma

101
Q

Sonographic characteristic of a fibroadenoma

A

Uniform, low-level homogeneous echoes

102
Q

Lymphatic drainage from all parts of the breast generally flows to the ___ lymph nodes

A

Axillary

103
Q

The most common malignant neoplasm of the breast

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

104
Q

Characteristic findings of breast carcinoma

A

Taller than wide mass

Noncompressible

irregular margins

heterogeneous low level internal echo patterns with calcifications

105
Q

Skin dimpling may be caused by ______ of tissue caused by _____

A

Retraction of tissue secondary to tumor infiltration

106
Q

The most common clinical sign of breast carcinoma is

A

Palpable lump

107
Q

Primary purpose of breast screening exam is

A

Provide for early detection of breast carcinoma

108
Q

The mid portion of the right medial and left lateral breast would be annotated as which clock position?

A

3

109
Q

A normal extension of breast tissue into the axillary region is called

A

Tail of Spence

110
Q

Artery responsible for supplying blood to more than half of the breast

A

Internal mammary

111
Q

Benign pathology that often occurs during lactation and causes red and tender breasts

A

Acute mastisis

112
Q

The thyroid gland consists of ____ lobes

A

2

113
Q

The lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by the

A

Isthmus

114
Q

All of the following structures form neighboring structures for the thyroid gland except the:

Longest colli muscle

Strap muscles

Sternocleidomastoid muscle

Parotid muscle

A

Parotid muscle

115
Q

The pyramid of Lobov the thyroid gland extends from the

A

Superior isthmus

116
Q

Structure that lies medial to the left thyroid lobe

A

Esophagus

117
Q

The most common cause of thyroid disorders worldwide is

A

Iodine deficiency

118
Q

Decreased levels of T3 and T4 and increased levels of TSH should indicate

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

119
Q

Most common sonographic feature of a thyroid adenoma

A

Hypoechoic peripheral halo

120
Q

The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that affects the

A

Kidneys, bones and gastrointestinal tract

121
Q

The normal parathyroid glands are located on the ______ and the _______ surface of the thyroid gland

A

Posterior, medial

122
Q

Usually ______ parathyroid glands exist

A

4

123
Q

A solitary thyroid nodule in the presence of ipsilateral lymphadenopathy suggests

A

Follicular carcinoma

124
Q

The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is

A

Parathyroid adenoma(PTA)

125
Q

A palpable anterior midline mass between the hyoid bone and the isthmus

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

126
Q

The longus coli muscle lies ______ to the thyroid gland

A

Posterolateral

127
Q

Hyper function of all parathyroid glands with no apparent cause occurs with:

A

Primary hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands

128
Q

Increased vascularity with color Doppler termed the thyroid inferno is observed in

A

Graves’ disease

129
Q

The most common thyroid malignancy

A

Papillary carcinoma

130
Q

And abnormal lymph node demonstrates _____ shape/contour

A

Round

131
Q

A cystic formation located lateral to the thyroid gland in the neck, in the submandibular region is:

A

Branchial cleft cyst

132
Q

The risk of malignancy ________ with the presence of multiple thyroid nodules

A

Decreases

133
Q

The esophagus lies _____ to the left lobe of the thyroid

A

Medial

134
Q

The internal jugular vein lies _____ to the common carotid

A

Medial

135
Q

Which muscle lies posterior to the thyroid gland

A

Longus coli

136
Q

T3 and T4 amounts are elevated while TSH levels are decreased in:

A

Hyperthyroidism

137
Q

Chronic renal failure is associated with(thyroid):

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

138
Q

Which two lab values are elevated in patients with primary hyperparathyroidism

A

PTH and serum calcium

139
Q

The diameter of a varicocele measures more than ____ mm

A

2mm

140
Q

the testes are covered by a fibrous capsule formed by the:

A

tunica albuginea

141
Q

the body of the epididymis coures ______ to the testis

A

superior and posterolaterally

142
Q

linear stripe of variable thickness and echogenicity running through the testis in a craniocaudal direction represents:

A

mediastinum testis

143
Q

an undescended testis is always found in the inguinal canal: T/F

A

false

144
Q

most common cause of acute scrotal pain in adolescents

A

torsion

145
Q

varicoceles are common on the ____ side

A

left

146
Q

a spermatocele is always located:

A

epididymis head

147
Q

almost always transpire secondary to epididymitis:

A

orchitis

148
Q

clinical history of vasectomy is associated with:

A

sperm granulomas

149
Q

primary source of blood flow to the testicles is via the ______ arteries

A

testicular

150
Q

a hydrocele develops between:

A

parietal and visceral layers of tunica vaginalis

151
Q

compared with the testis, the epididymis typically appears:

A

hypoechoic

152
Q

the rete testis is located in the _____ of the testis

A

hilum

153
Q

microlithiasis of the testis is associated with a:

A

malignant neoplasm

154
Q

tubular ectasia of the rete testis is associated with:

A

epididymal cyst

155
Q

intratesticular cysts have an association with

A

spermatoceles

156
Q

venous drainage of the scrotum occurs through the veins of the:

A

pampiniform plexus

157
Q

the right testicular vein drains into the

A

IVC

158
Q

acute hematoceles appear

A

echogenic

159
Q

over time, hematoceles show

A

low level/linear, cystic

160
Q

sonographic findings of epididymo-orchitis:

A

enlarged, hypoechoic epididymis and testis

161
Q

______ occurs when the tunica vaginalis completely surrounds the testis, epididymis, distal spermatic cord, allowing them to move and rotate freely within the scrotum

A

bell clapper deformity

162
Q

the _____ lines the inner walls of the scrotum, covering each testis and epididymis

A

tunica vaginalis

163
Q

color doppler will confirm ______ vascularity which epididymo-orchitis

A

increased

164
Q

occurs when pus fills the space between the layers of the tunica vaginalis and usually contains septations or debris

A

pyocele

165
Q

if surgery is performed within 5-6 hours after the oset of pain in a patient with testicular torsion, what percentage can be saved

A

80-100%

166
Q

most scrotal cysts are intratesticular: T/F

A

false

167
Q

Associated with infertility

A

varicocele

168
Q

most common cause of painless scrotal swelling

A

hydrocele

169
Q

which prostate zone is benign prostatic hyperplasia usually found

A

transitional

170
Q

which column of tissue is located on the ventral/anterior aspect of the penis

A

corpus spongiosum

171
Q

a painful erection lasting more than 4 hours:

A

priaprism

172
Q

which prostate zone is the location of most prostate cancers

A

peripheral

173
Q

fibrotic thickening of the tunica albuginea seen in Peyronie’s disease appears:

A

linear, echogenic & calcified with shadowing

174
Q

the ___ of the prostate is the superior portion

A

base

175
Q

which lab value is typically elevated in prostate cancer?

A

PSA(prostate specific antigen)

176
Q

a bursa provides what function:

A

fluid protection to areas subject to friction

177
Q

the crass position is used to evaluate:

A

shoulder

178
Q

imaging artifact that depends on the angle of incidence

A

ansiotropy

179
Q

infringement of the median nerve in the wrist:

A

carpel tunnel

180
Q

pennate pattern in which fibers converge to a central tendon

A

circumpennate

181
Q

band-like structure, flat tendon, connecting muscle to bone

A

aponeurosis

182
Q

the achilles tendon is at an increased risk for injury because:

A

its limited blood supply

183
Q

proximal portion of the muscle is considered:

A

origin

184
Q

the posterior glenoid labrum is a good landmark to help locate:

A

infraspinatus tendon

185
Q

appear sonographically as alternating hyperechoic and hypoechoic parallel lines connecting muscle to bone

A

tendons

186
Q

nerves appear more _____ than tendons

A

hypoechoic

187
Q

nerves appear more _____ than muscles

A

hyperechoic

188
Q

common communicating bursa that is seen in the medial popliteal fossa:

A

bakers cyst

189
Q

artifact that occurs due to sound bouncing between two closely placed reflectors within a structure:

A

comet tail

190
Q

pain over the thumb side of the wrist is termed:

A

de quervians tendonitis

191
Q

the first branch of the aortic arch splits into the right eca and right ica: T/F

A

false

192
Q

the common carotid artery splits into the _______ and ________ arteries

A

internal and external

193
Q

the right and left vertebral arteries travel cephalad to form the ____ artery

A

basilar

194
Q

typically located in the scalp or neck

A

superficial epidermal cyst/sebaceous cyst

195
Q

the two skin layers are distinguishable sonographically: T/F

A

false

196
Q

composed of vascular channels are appears hypoechoic

A

hemangioma

197
Q

most common tumor of the hand and wrist

A

ganglion cyst

Small Parts/specialized (15 decks)

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