Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AHS 202 Medical Mircobiology > Final Exam Review Sheet > Flashcards

Final Exam Review Sheet Flashcards

1
Q

HSV1

A

Mouth cold soars
Herpes Simplex Virus-1
Treated by: Acylivere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HSV2

A

Known as Herpes simplex virus-2
The main cause of Genital Herpes and Neonatal Herpes
Can result in ulcers after infection
Goes dormant in peripheral nerve, near where lesions developed
No cures for herpes
Teardrop on rose pedal soars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HPV

A

cause the most common STI in the world
HPV causes ~90% of cervical cancers
>200 known subtypes of HPV, 40 subtypes are sexually transmitted
Types 6 and 11 are best known for causing genital warts
Detected for PAP Smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chancroid

A

Disease caused by Gram-negative nonmotile rod Haemophilus ducreyi
more common in men than women
Common cofactor for HIV transmission
Ulcerative lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Trachoma

A

A biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis
responsible for the blindness or visual impairment of about 1.9 million people
Infection spreads through personal contact (via hands, clothes or bedding) and by flies that have been in contact with infected person
Leads to permanent damage to the cornea
Treatment: Erythromycin eyedrops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TORCH pathogens: how do they cause disease

A

vertically transmitted to a developing fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pap smears, advantages and disadvantages?

A

Cervical brush removes cervical cells for microscopic evaluation
Easy and cheap evaluation of the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which STI have vaccines available?

A

Human papilloma viruses (HPVs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which can be easily treated with antibiotics?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis
Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which organism is most often responsible for neonatal bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

Gonorrhea, uses erythromyesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ureteritis

A

inflammation of the ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cystitis

A

inflammation of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

inflammation of the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Urethritis

A

inflammation of the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Condylomata lata

A

Associated with: Syphillis (Trepedima pallidum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Uncomplicated UTI

A

occurs in otherwise healthy individuals with normal urinary tract structure; tends to resolve quickly, without recurrence, using first-line drugs
E.coli is an example

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Complicated UTI

A

usually occurs in people with catheters, urinary tract malformations, or immune-compromised people; may not respond to first-line drug therapies, and tends to recur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Secondary bacteremia

A

Common places: Bladder and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can Urinary catheters increase the chance of CAUTIs?

A

they provide a surface for bacterial biofilms to establish and they can introduce bacteria from the skin, anal, or external genital areas into the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Urine cultures

A

Sheep Blood Trypticase Soy Agar (BAP) & MacConkey Agar
Calibrated Loop 0.001 ml or 1ul

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Quantification methods for bacteria

A

<1,000 cfu/ul = negative urine culture= negative / no growth
1,000- 9,000 cfu/ul = clinically insignificant
10,000- 50,000 cfu/ul = positive urine culture = ID + Sensi
>100,000 cfu/ul = acute positive urine culture = ID + Sensi

22
Q

Urine Dipstick test – what does it indirectly measure?

A

Indirectly assesses WBC levels by checking for an enzyme called leukocyte esterase
Nitrite Levels

23
Q

Most common bacteria in UTIs

A

Proteus mirabilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa*
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Citrobacter Species

Gram-positive:
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Enterococcus faecalis
Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
Staphylococcus aureus

Common E.coli

24
Q

Encephalomyelitis

A

Inflammation of both brain and meninges

25
Q

Meningitis

A

inflammation of the meninges

26
Q

Endocarditis

A

Inflammation of the lining of the heart

27
Q

Encephalitis

A

inflammation of the brain

28
Q

CNS

A

Integrates information received
Sends back an “action plan”
Composed of the spinal cord and brain

29
Q

PNS

A

Inputs and transmits information
Composed of nerves

30
Q

What diagnostic tool is used to confirm a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?

A

A lumbar puncture allows for CSF analysis to differentiate between viral and bacterial meningitis
Lookin under a microscope

31
Q

How do we detect presence of viral agents (antigens or antibodies)?

A

Through antigens

32
Q

Can any organism cause meningitis? Think about the Blood brain barrier theory

A

No, Bacteria require a very special set of virulence factors in order to slip through this barrier
Viruses have an easier time invading the CNS, but still encounter challenges

33
Q

Erysipelas

A

A common condition in children and elderly
Impetigo spreads to surrounding skin and lymph nodes
Symptoms include:
Fever, Chills, Leukocytosis, If untreated, erysipelas may be fatal

34
Q

Cellulitis

A

A deeper Staphylococcus infection of the lower dermal and subcutaneous fat
Seen in adults
Characterized by red, swollen, painful skin
Accompanied by fever, leukocytosis, and lymphangitis

35
Q

Impetigo

A

Highly contagious skin infection by Staphylococcus aureus, Secondary bacterial infections possible
Pus filled vesicles on face, lips or extremities
signs and symptoms:
Superficial pus-filled vesicles, Reddened skin (face, lips, or extremities), Itchy vesicles can rupture and ooze, Crust over into honey-colored lesions

36
Q

Pseudomonads opportunistic pathogens or true pathogens?

A

opportunistic pathogens

37
Q

What organism causes scalded skin syndrome?

A

Exfolative toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus

38
Q

How does infection with streptococcal toxic shock syndrome affect the body?

A

Bacterial toxins are released into the bloodstream
Causes drop in blood pressure and organ failure
May manifest with a skin rash

39
Q

Food poisoning

A

Bacteria don’t actively grow in the host
Symptoms are triggered by ingested enterotoxins (a type of exotoxin), They may be emetic (trigger vomiting)
Causes inflammation of intestinal cells, Prevents water absorption, Leads to diarrhea and abdominal pain

40
Q

Food infection

A

Infection that results from ingesting food that harbors live bacterial pathogens that infect the GI tract.
Most common are caused by:
E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella species, Campylobacter species

41
Q

Lower GI Endoscopy

A

Aka colonoscopy
can’t confirm the specific pathogen
Colonoscope is entered through anus and used to view rectum and large intestine

42
Q

Upper GI Endoscopy

A

can’t confirm the specific pathogen
Endoscope is inserted through the mouth and used to view the esophagus, stomach and small intestine

43
Q

Vitamin K production in the intestines is from the help of which organism?

A

Escherichia coli

44
Q

In the lab which tests help identify the pathogen responsible for a GI infection?

A

Collecting fecal samples for:
Culturing on selective and differential media (e.g., MacConkey agar)
Molecular diagnostic analysis
Microscopic examination to identify parasites or their eggs

45
Q

Sepsis

A

Not an infection, overwhelming response to a toxin or pathogen

46
Q

Septic shock

A

Dangerously low blood pressure
O2 and nutrients cut off
Necrosis and organ failure
Look up proper definition

47
Q

DIC

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Deregulated formation of blood clots throughout the body
Blocks blood flow and promotes organ failure and tissue necrosis

48
Q

Lymphangitis

A

Look up later

49
Q

What type of virus is Ebola?

A

Filoviridae family
Ebola virus, single-stranded RNA virus

50
Q

What can septic shock lead to?

A

Dangerously low blood pressure
O2 and nutrients cut off
Necrosis and organ failure

51
Q

What are the signs that a patient is sepsis?

A

Diarrhea, Vomiting, Pale skin, Sleepiness, Confusion/delirium, Lymphangitis
High white blood cell count, High lactate levels, High C-reactive protein levels, Low blood oxygen levels , Blood culture results

AHS 202 Medical Mircobiology (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions