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Extra stuff Flashcards

1
Q

Pentosan

A

Relieves pain the bladder

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2
Q

In non-hodgkins lymphoma what correlates with disease activity?

A

LDH

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3
Q

Hodgkins dosing is done by

A

MUGA or nuclear scan (doxorubicin is cardiotoxic)

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4
Q

Protease inhibitors adverse affects

A

Increase lipids and glucose

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5
Q

Zidovudine causes

A

AnaemiaW

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6
Q

What can cause an increased haemoglobin

A

Dehydration
Erythropoietin
Androgens
DHEA tumour

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7
Q

Syphilis confirmatory tests

A

FTA, MHA

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8
Q

How do you treat neurosyphilis/pregnancy and syphilis

A

Desensitization

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9
Q

How do you investigate HIT?

A

Platelet factor 4 with ELISA

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10
Q

Treat Waldenstrom

A

Plasmapheresis

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11
Q

Treat multiple myeloma

A

Dexamethasone + lelalidomide / bortezomib
Molphanan for old people

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12
Q

Malaria testing (thick/thin)

A

Thick is for detection
Thin is for specialization

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13
Q

What do you need to test for before you use primaquine?

A

G6PD

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14
Q

Do not use _____umab in Hep B

A

Rituxumab

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15
Q

Treat hairy cell leukemia

A

Cladribine
Pentostatin

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16
Q

What is phenazopyridine used for?

A

Anaesthetic for pain in UTI

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17
Q

S/E of interferon

A

Anaemia, depression, myalgias

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18
Q

What two organisms in colon cause endocarditis?

A

Clostridium
Strep Bovis

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19
Q

What do you use for PrEP?

A

Cabotegravir injection every 2 months

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20
Q

Treat stage 3 or 4 hodgkins

A

ADVB, a (doxorubicin), b (bleomycin), V (vinisterin) D (dacarbazine)

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21
Q

Non-embolitic cardiac ischemia

A

Anaemia

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22
Q

CLL refractory treatment

A

Cyclophosphanamide

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23
Q

CLL in geriatric patients treat

A

Bendamustine

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24
Q

You can’t use doxorubicin if EF

A

<50%

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25
Q

Coccidomyo seems like diagnosis

A

Valley fever, desert rheumatism
Sputum culture

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26
Q

Histo seems like treatment

A

Soil in caves, oral ulcers, resembles TB
Treat with amphortericin and itraconazole

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27
Q

Blastococci seems like

A

Budding yeasts, wart like

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28
Q

Chronic pancreatitis test

A

Secretin test

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29
Q

Methylhaemalobinuria

A

Caused by nitrates dapsone and anesthetics

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30
Q

Bradycardia and cannon A waves

A

AV type 3 block

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31
Q

If it is ani oxides tick

A

TREAT RIGHT AWAY

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32
Q

Treat gastroparesis

A

Erythromycin

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33
Q

HLA B57 test for

A

SJS

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34
Q

Cor pulmonale is specific to

A

Lungs

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35
Q

Increased O2 from RA to RV

A

Septal rupture

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36
Q

S3 + breathlessness

A

Pulmonary oedema

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37
Q

HIV can cause a false positive

A

Hep C

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38
Q

When do you give PPI to prevent stress burns?

A

TRauma
increased ICP
Coagulation
Sepsis
Intubated

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39
Q

Previous heart surgery is a risk for what heart pathology?

A

Constrictive pericarditis

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40
Q

Treat AIP attacks?

A

Glucose and Haem

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41
Q

When can celiac be falsely negative?

A

IgA deficiency

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42
Q

Sporotrichosis

A

Nodular skin lesions on a farmer or gardener

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43
Q

Handgrip manoeuvre increases

A

LV

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44
Q

PBC diagnosis vs PSC

A

Biopsy
MRCP

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45
Q

Invasive aspergillosis investigations and treatment

A

Serum galac, B-D, PCR
Ivraconazole (NOT AMPHOR)

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46
Q

Lemiere syndrome caused by

A

Fusobacterium

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47
Q

“Haemorrhagic lymphadenitis”

A

Anthrax

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48
Q

Test for babesia

A

Blood smear

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49
Q

Treat burns?

A

Ringer lactate or saline

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50
Q

Treat medeterannian fever? Gene?

A

Colchicine, MEFV

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51
Q

Multifocal atrial tachycardia happens in

A

Chronic lung disease / COPD

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52
Q

Recurrence of MI/arrythmia do a

A

Echo

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53
Q

What test for SOURCE of Ventricular arrythmia

A

EP studies

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54
Q

What is a Swan catheter?

A

Intracardiac pressure and CO

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55
Q

Zika can cause

A

GB

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56
Q

J-H reaction, spirochete, no syphilis =

A

Leptospirosis

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57
Q

For ALL what do you add to treatment?

A

Intrathecal methotrexate

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58
Q

When is manometry used?

A

Achalasia, spasm, scleroderma

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59
Q

Treat squamous cell hyperplasia of vagina

A

Sitz bath

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60
Q

Brucella is seen in

A

Returning war veterans

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61
Q

Person with Pelger-Huer, prior chemotherapy

A

Myelodysplasia
5q deletion

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62
Q

If P:Cr and 24 protein are answers, what do you choose?

A

P:Cr

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63
Q

Glazmann

A

2b/3a mutation, no big platelets

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64
Q

Bernard

A

1b/IX BIG PLATELETS

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65
Q

Dysmorphic RBC

A

Glomerulonephritis

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66
Q

AIN stains

A

Wright
Hansel

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67
Q

What test for AKI

A

Renal sonogram

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68
Q

What drug increases creatinine

A

Trimetheprim

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69
Q

ERCP pancreatitis can be prevented by

A

Rectal NSAIDS

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70
Q

HRT can only be used for

A

5 years

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71
Q

First to be positive Hep B

A

surface antigen

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72
Q

No risk of transmission when Hep B

A

surface antigen -

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73
Q

Interferon for

A

Hep D

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74
Q

Sickle cell reticulocyte count

A

Should be increased so when it is normal that is a poor sign

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75
Q

CLL needs what prophylaxis?

A

PCP

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76
Q

Treat CLL

A

Fludarabine (rituxumab + bendamustine)
cyclophosphanamide

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77
Q

Acute tubular necrosis UNa FeNa Specific gravity

A

Most: Increased urine Na, increased FeNa, decreased specific gravity
Contrast induced: Decreased Na, decreased Fe Na, increased specific gravity

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78
Q

CJD diagnosis

A

Biopsy

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79
Q

Tuberose sclerosis

A

Cardiac rhabdomyomas
Seizures
Face nodules

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80
Q

Ethyl glycol electrolyte abnormality

A

Calcium is low because of the calcium oxalate stone

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81
Q

AKI from NSAIDS has no

A

Eosinophils

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82
Q

NF2 features

A

2 eyes (gliomas)
2 ears (VS)
2 brain tumours (ependymona, meningioma)

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83
Q

What drug causes distal renal tubular acidosis?

A

Topiramate!

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84
Q

Distal renal tubular acidosis causes acidotic / alkaline urine

A

alkaline

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85
Q

What causes rhabdomyolysis

A

Cocaine
Decreased K
Decreased Phosphate
Statins
Viruses

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86
Q

Hepatorenal syndrome treatment

A

Midrodine

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87
Q

Sturg Weber on biopsy

A

Tram track in angiomas

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88
Q

Calcineuriun inhibitors side effects

A

Glucose intolerance, tremors, kidney injury

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89
Q

Bartter syndrome

A

Furosemide, decreased BP, ascending limb

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90
Q

Liddle syndrome

A

Aldosterone, DCT, eNAC channel, increased BP

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91
Q

Gitelman syndrome

A

Thiazide like, decreased BP, DCT

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92
Q

Distal RTA is type

A

1

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93
Q

T1RTA causes

A

Stones ! nephrocalcinosis

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94
Q

Treat T1RTA

A

Bicarb

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95
Q

Treat type 4 RTA

A

Fludrocortisone

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96
Q

Who gets type 4 RTA

A

Diabetes

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97
Q

Type 2 RTA causes

A

Osteomalacia

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98
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors cause what RTA

A

2

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99
Q

Outdated tetracyclines cause RTA

A

2

100
Q

Analgesic nephaopathy causes what RTA

A

1

101
Q

What stones can only be seen on CT

A

Uric acid

102
Q

What acid is from methanol?

A

Formic

103
Q

What is Ketorolac

A

NSAID

104
Q

Treat 0.5-2cm stones

A

Lithotripsy

105
Q

Stents in kidney stones

A

Relieve hydronephrosis

106
Q

Renal artery stenosis investigations

A

MR angio

107
Q

Thrombolytics cause

A

Angiooedema

108
Q

Migraine treat

A

Triptans, CGRPs, lasmiditan

109
Q

Cluster headache treat

A

Octreotide
Prevent: verapamil,prednisolone

110
Q

COMT in Parkinsons?

A

Increased duration of levodopa

111
Q

Istradefylline in Parkinsons?

A

Decreases off affect

112
Q

Caudate atrophy

A

Huntingtons

113
Q

Emotional incontinence treat

A

Dexamethasone

114
Q

Neurogenic (weak) bladder treat

A

Bethanechol`

115
Q

2 ALS drugs

A

Riluzole
Edavarone

116
Q

Face feels stiff

A

CN7 palsy

117
Q

Common CN7 palsy complication

A

Corneal ulcer

118
Q

Goodell sign

A

soft uterus (4weeks)

119
Q

Ladin sign

A

soft midline uterus (6 weeks)

120
Q

Chadwick

A

blue vagina (6-8 weeks)

121
Q

Pregnancy and RV

A

Decreased

122
Q

Bloods in pregnancy

A

Leukocytosis, anaemia, thrombocytopenia

123
Q

In pregnancy, when should you see a sac?

A

bhCG > 1500

124
Q

Periventricular calcifications buzzword for

A

CMV

125
Q

Test for diabetes in pregnancy

A

Glucose load
Glucose tolerance (2nd)

126
Q

Arrest of dilation in labour is defined as

A

No increase in 2 hours

127
Q

Who gets lung cancer screen?

A

50-80, 20 year pack history, hasn’t quick in past 15 years

128
Q

Don’t use ondansetron with what ECG change

A

Increased QT

129
Q

What is most accurate for detecting diabetic retinopathy

A

Angiofluoroscein

130
Q

AC Separation 1-6

A

1-2 sling
3-6 ORIF

131
Q

Babies eyes by time

A

1 day irritation
2-7 days gonorrhea
7 days chlamydia
3 weeks herpes

132
Q

Most common skull fracture neonates

A

Linear

133
Q

Most fatal skull fracture neonates

A

Basilar

134
Q

Can Hep B/C breast feed?

A

Yes!

135
Q

What are some drugs that can induce serotonin syndrome?

A

Meperidine, linezolid, lithium, metaclopramide

136
Q

+ symptoms vs - in schiz receptor

A

Dopamine
Muscarinic

137
Q

Psychosis in parkinsons is treated with

A

Pimavanserin

138
Q

Alprazolam is used for

A

Panic attacks

139
Q

What drug for narcolepsy

A

Pitolistat

140
Q

Night terrors/sleepwalking happen in what stage of sleep?

A

3 and 4

140
Q

Nightmares happen in what stage of sleep?

A

REM

141
Q

Paraphilia: exhibition

A

Expose to stranger

142
Q

Paraphilia: masochism

A

Humiliate

143
Q

Paraphilia: sadism

A

Suffering

144
Q

Paraphilia: frotteurism

A

Rubbing against non-consensual person

145
Q

What is decreased in suicidal people?

A

5-HIAA

146
Q

Diagnosis of asthma? 2 challenge tests

A

PFTs
FEV increase 12% albuterol
FEV decrease with metacholine (better if they are asymptomatic)

147
Q

Test for allergic asthma

A

FeNO as detects eosinophils

148
Q

What is a measure of the severity of asthma?

A

RR

149
Q

Who gets home O2?

A

<55 or <88%
If cardiomyopathy, PHTN, increased HCT <60 <90%

150
Q

COPD exacerbation drugs

A

SAMA (ipratropium), SABA, steroid, antibiotics

151
Q

When is MAI found? (lung pathogen) What is treatment?

A

Bronchiectasis, old people with COPD
Rifampicin, ethambutol, azithromycin

152
Q

Treat a long QT syndrome

A

BB

153
Q

What prevents breast cancer in those with multiple relatives?

A

SERM

154
Q

Vascular ring happens in? What is observed?

A

DiGeorge, Downs
Biphasic stridor

155
Q

TEF that is most common

A

EA with distal TEF

156
Q

3 signs for pyloric stenosis

A

String, mushroom, shoulder

157
Q

Congenital abnormalities seen together

A

Coloboma of eyes/CNS defects
Heart defects
Atresia of chonae
Retardation of growth
Genital/urinary defects
Ear abnormalities

158
Q

VACTERL syndrome

A

Vertebral, anal atresia, CVD, TEF, Esophageal atresia, Renal anomalies, limb anomalies

159
Q

Intussuception diagnosis

A

US initial barium enema diagnostic and therapeutic

160
Q

Vit D dependent rickets

A

Decreased 1, 25

161
Q

Lead poisoning management

A

Capillary level, then venous level and remove from environment

162
Q

Diaper rash vs candida

A

Diaper rash spares skin folds

163
Q

Whooping cough CXR

A

Butterfly pattern

164
Q

Zoster at what age?

A

50

165
Q

Neuroactive steroid for post party depression?

A

Brexanolone

166
Q

What is the single most effective treatment for depression?

A

ECT

167
Q

Is ECT safe in pregnancy?

A

Yes!

168
Q

CF what can be used for mucus plugs?

A

rhDNAse

169
Q

Chlamydophilia presents with

A

Hoarseness

170
Q

Consolidation vs effusion tactile and breathing sounds

A

Consolidation - increased tactile, increased breath
Effusion - decreased tactile, decreased breath

171
Q

PCP what is elevated in ALL patients

A

LDH

172
Q

PCP diagnosis

A

BAL

173
Q

Always combine a carbapenems with a

A

Anti-pseudomonal penicillijn

174
Q

Ventillator associated pneumonia most accurate test

A

Biopsy

175
Q

Daptomycin is inactivated by

A

Surfactant

176
Q

Over 65 get what pneumococcal vaccine

A

23

177
Q

Immunocompromised get what pneumococcal vaccine

A

13 then 23

178
Q

COPD, cirrhosis, etc, pneumococcal vaccine

A

23 then 23 5-10 years later

179
Q

TB investigations

A

CXR initial
Pleural biopsy is diagnostic

180
Q

PCP if TMP causes rash

A

Clinda and primaquine

181
Q

PCP if TMP rash and G6PD deficiency

A

IV pentamidine

182
Q

When can you stop PCP prophylaxis?

A

CD4>200 for multiple months

183
Q

TB PDD
>5mm
>10mm
>15mm

A

HIV, steroids or anti-TNF, close contact active TB, transplant
Immigrant, healthcare worker, haematology malignancy, alcoholic, DM
No risk factors

184
Q

Contaminated water at dentist organism

A

M abscess, chelonae, fortiuitums

185
Q

M.kasai is similar to … treat like

A

TB
MAI

186
Q

ABPA treat

A

Oral steroids
Itraconazole for episodes

187
Q

Mouldy sugar cane organism

A

Bagassosis

188
Q

Electronics organism

A

Beryllosis

189
Q

Sand, rocks, tunnels organism

A

Silicosis

190
Q

Ships, pipes organism

A

Asbestosis

191
Q

What is most accurate test for sarcoidosis?

A

Lymph node biopsy

192
Q

V/Q scan is only superior to CTPA in what condition?

A

CTEPH

193
Q

PHTN vessels

A

Pruning distal vessels

194
Q

Drugs for ILD

A

pirfenidone, nentedanib

195
Q

Crytogenic organizing pneumonia treat

A

Steroids

196
Q

ANCA is also known as

A

Qualitative serum autoantibody

197
Q

PE most common CXR findings

A

Atelectasis

198
Q

PE most common ECG findings

A

Tachycardia, non-specific ST changes

199
Q

ARDS diagnosis and how to manage

A

pO2/FiO2 <300
Keep TV low (6ml/kg)
Increase PEEP to keep FiO2 low (Increased FiO2 above 50% increases risk of toxicity)

200
Q

Treat reactive arthritis

A

NSAIDS

201
Q

MUGA scan for

A

Heart ejection fraction

202
Q

Gallium scan and Indium scan

A

Increased iron deposition and infections, CANCER
Similar but used in abdomen

203
Q

OA can falsely elevate

A

T-score

204
Q

RA gets what syndrome

A

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

205
Q

RA death

A

Coronary artery disease

206
Q

Rituximab in RA

A

Good for RA (CD20 receptor), but decreases effectiveness of vaccines

207
Q

BP in gout management

A

Losartan

208
Q

Anti-Ro detected what do you need to check if pregnant?

A

Baby ECG!

209
Q

Most dangerous complication of sjogrens?

A

Lymphoma

210
Q

Most accurate test sjogrens

A

Biopsy

211
Q

Myositis most accurate test

A

Biopsy

212
Q

MRI C/I

A

Pacemaker

212
Q

Antibody in MCTD

A

Anti-RNP

213
Q

Spinal stenosis and PAD

A

Can cause a PAD like picture but with normal vascular studies

214
Q

PAN diagnosis

A

Biopsy of site

215
Q

GCA complication

A

Aneurysm

216
Q

Non-resolving pneumonia despite mutliple antibiotics think about

A

Wegeners

217
Q

Cyclophosphanamide S/E in bladder

A

Cancer and bleeding

218
Q

Chronic Hep C causes what vasculitis? What is positive? Picture?

A

Cryo
Rheumatoid factor, cold complexes
Joint pain, glomerulo, purport, neuropathy

219
Q

Pathery

A

Skin sterile pustule to minor trauma
Seen in Behchets

220
Q

Tenofovir causes

A

OP

221
Q

Shock, which ones have increased CO?

A

Septic, anaphylaxis

222
Q

Renal failure in OP treat OP

A

Denosumab

223
Q

Recurrent gonorrhoea check for

A

Terminal complement deficiency

224
Q

Osteomyelitis check for response?

A

ESR

225
Q

SHOCK
Cool, pale
Increased PCWP vs decreased

A

Increased - cardiogenic
Decreased - hypovol

226
Q

Blunt abdominal trauma investigation

A

Stable - CT
Unstable - exploratory laporotomy

227
Q

Kehr sign

A

Shoulder pain in splenic rupture

228
Q

HIDA scan for

A

Cholecystitis, BILE LEAK!

229
Q

Gallbladder polyp management

A

<5mm repeat US at 1 year
5-10 yearly US if change cholecystectomy
10-20 remove laparoscopically
>20 remove surgically

230
Q

Ischemic colitis investigations

A

CT and then angio

231
Q

Mesenteric ischemia investigations

A

AXR and CT angio

232
Q

Rectus sheath haematoma

A

CT

233
Q

Fecal incontinence best test

A

Manometry

234
Q

Haemorrhoids most accurate test

A

Anoscopy

235
Q

Olgilvie syndrome management

A

Decompress, if no response in 24-48 hours neostigimine

236
Q

Trigger finger manage

A

Steroid

237
Q

Priapism management ischemic and non-ischemic

A

Aspirate
Non-ischemic conservative
Ischemic Intracaver epinephrine

238
Q

Peyronies <3months treat

A

Pentoxifylline

239
Q

Biggest risk factor for aortic dissection

A

Hypertension

240
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome investigations

A

Initial doppler, most accurate is MRA

241
Q

Post op fever

A

1-3 wind
3-5 water
5-7 walking
7 wound
8-15 wonder drugs and abscess

242
Q

What GI surgery results in dumping syndrome

A

Roux-en-y

243
Q

Post cardiac surgery syndrome

A

After pericardium opens, at risk, treat with NSAIDS + colchinine

244
Q
A

Step2 (22 decks)

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