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extra biochem Q's (endterm) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following releases pepsinogen?

a. parietal cells
b. chief cells
c. somatic cells

A

b. chief cells

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2
Q

Common activator of pancreatic zymogens

a. carboxypeptidase
b. elastase
c. chymotrypsin
d. trypsin

A

d. trypsin

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3
Q

Which of the following convert trypsinogen to trypsin?

a. endopeptidase
b. exopeptidase
c. enteropeptidase

A

c. enteropeptidase

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4
Q

Which characterizes an aminopeptidase?

a. endopeptidase
b. exopeptidase
c. enteropeptidase

A

b. exopeptidase

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5
Q

How are tripeptides absorbed into the intestine?

a. Na+ linked secondary transport system
b. H+ linked transport system
c. Facilitated diffusion

A

b. H+-linked transport system

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6
Q

Which characterizes pepsin?

a. endopeptidase
b. exopeptidase
c. enteropeptidase

A

a. endopeptidase

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7
Q

Where do you find more amino acids?

a. in cells
b. in extracellular space

A

a. in cells

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8
Q

How do free AA’s go into the portal system?

a. Na+ linked secondary transport system
b. H+ linked transport system
c. Facilitated diffusion

A

c. Facilitated diffusion

released into general circulation

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9
Q

How do free AA’s go into the intestinal enterocytes?

a. Na+ linked secondary transport system
b. H+ linked transport system
c. Facilitated diffusion

A

a. Na+ linked secondary transport system

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10
Q

What’s FALSE about cystinuria?

a. leads to cystine stones in the urinary tract
b. a disorder of the glomerulus
c. cystine, ornithine, arginine, & lysine cannot be reabsorbed

A

b. a disorder of the glomerulus

a disorder of the proximal convoluted tubule

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11
Q

Location of pepsin

a. pancreas
b. stomach
c. intestine

A

b. stomach

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12
Q

Location of trypsin

a. pancreas
b. stomach
c. intestine

A

a. pancreas

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13
Q

Why do the active transport systems of AA require ATP?

A

The concentration of AA is lower in ECM than in cells

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14
Q

What’s the function of aminopeptidases?

a. Cleave C terminal of oligopeptides
b. Cleave N terminal of oligopeptides
c. Cleave side chain of oligopeptides

A

b. Cleave N terminal of oligopeptides

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15
Q

Acetyl CoA is synthesized into fatty acids when it goes to the…

a. mitochondria
b. golgi
c. cytoplasm

A

c. cytoplasm

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16
Q

Acetyl CoA is synthesized into ATP when it goes to the…

a. mitochondria
b. golgi
c. cytoplasm

A

a. mitochondria

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17
Q

Which of the following does Acetyl CoA get turned into so it can cross the mitochondrial membrane?

a. oxaloacetate
b. citrate
c. coA

A

b. citrate

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18
Q

What’s the rate-limiting enzyme of fatty acid synthesis

A

Acetyl CoA Carboxylase (AAC)

needs biotin coenzyme

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19
Q

Which of the following inhibits Acetyl CoA Carboxylase (AAC) function?

a. citrate
b. insulin
c. G6P
d. glucagon

A

d. glucagon

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20
Q

How does Acetyl CoA Carboxylase (AAC) react to being phosphorylated?

a. gets activated
b. gets inhibited

A

b. gets inhibited

it hates phosphates!

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21
Q

how many FA synthesis cycles does it take to make palmitate (16C)?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

A

d. 7

requires 14 NADPH

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22
Q

Which of the following can humans make?

a. omega 3
b. omega 6
c. omega 9

A

c. omega 9

monounsaturated

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23
Q

Where can free glycerol be converted to G3P via glycerol kinase?

a. adipose tissue
b. liver
c. pancreas

A

b. liver

this is the second pathway of G3P synthesis

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24
Q

The product of transamination is mostly

a. arginine
b. glutamate
c. glutamine
d. aspartate

A

b. glutamate

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25
Q

Which co-enzyme do transaminases need?

a. Cu
b. biotin
c. pyridoxal phosphate
d. vitamin D

A

c. pyridoxal phosphate

a B6 derivative

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26
Q

Where does oxidate deamination take place?

a. kidney
b. pancreas
c. small intestine
d. bowl

A

a. kidney (and the liver)

oxidate deamination= liberation of free ammonia from glutamate

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27
Q

Urea gets the oxygen from CO2 and one of the nitrogens from free ammonia. Where does it get the second nitrogen from?

a. arginine
b. glutamate
c. glutamine
d. aspartate

A

d. aspartate

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28
Q

Rate limiting enzyme of urea cycle

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

NAG allosterically activates it

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29
Q

Which of the following can only enter the mitochondria?

a. L-Citrulline
b. L-Ornithine

A

b. L-Ornithine

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30
Q

Which of the following can only leave the mitochondria?

a. L-Citrulline
b. L-Ornithine

A

a. L-Citrulline

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31
Q

How can you treat Ornithine Transcarbamoylase (OTC) Deficiency?

a. limit lactose
b. limit protein
c. limit fructose

A

b. limit protein

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32
Q

What does the spin restriction of an oxygen biradical achieve?

a. unstability
b. low reactivity
c. high reactivity

A

b. low reactivity

“barrier to reaction”

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33
Q

How is the half-life related to reactivity?

a. directly proportional
b. inversely proportional

A

b. inversely proportional

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34
Q

Which of the following is more reactive?

a. singlet oxygen
b. biradical oxygen

A

a. singlet oxygen

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35
Q

Which of the following ROS is neutralized by beta carotene?

a. superoxide
b. singlet oxygen
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. hydroxyl radical

A

b. singlet oxygen

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36
Q

Which of the following ROS releases iron from Fe-S clusters?

a. superoxide
b. singlet oxygen
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. hydroxyl radical

A

a. superoxide

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37
Q

When (the antioxidant enzyme) superoxide dismutase stops superoxide from release iron from the Fe-S protein, it produces…

a. superoxide
b. singlet oxygen
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. hydroxyl radical

A

c. hydrogen peroxide

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38
Q

Which of the following enzymes is the best against hydrogen peroxide (has the highest catalytic activity)?

a. CAT
b. GPx

A

a. CAT

CAT= Chloramphenicol acetyltransferase
GPx= Glutathione peroxidase
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39
Q

Which of the following enzymes is most used against hydrogen peroxide?

a. CAT
b. GPx

A

b. GPx

CAT has a high Km, it needs hydrogen peroxide to be high to work

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40
Q

Which of the following ROS reacts with everything & has no selectivity?

a. superoxide
b. singlet oxygen
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. hydroxyl radical

A

d. hydroxyl radical

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41
Q

How are antioxidants helpful if they also produce radicals?

A

they produce radicals with lower reactivity, and their radical product can be recycled

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42
Q

Which of the following is linked to a ribose sugar?

a. adenine
b. adenosine

A

b. adenosine

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43
Q

Which of the following positively activates PRPP synthase (5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate synthase)?

a. AMP
b. purine ribonucleotides
c. phosphate

A

c. phosphate

control PRPP= control purine synthesis

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44
Q

Which of the following is acted on by ribonucleotide reductase so it can be converted into a deoxynucleotide?

a. ribonucleoside monophosphate
b. ribonucleoside diphosphate
c. ribonucleoside triphosphate

A

b. ribonucleoside diphosphate

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45
Q

Which of the following acts on the “substrate specificity sites” of ribonucleotide reductase?

a. ribonucleoside monophosphate
b. ribonucleoside diphosphate
c. ribonucleoside triphosphate

A

c. ribonucleoside triphosphate

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46
Q

Which best describes pyrimidine biosynthesis?

a. ring first then the sugar
b. sugar first then the ring

A

a. ring first then the sugar

purine is the opposite

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47
Q

Describe the purine nucleotide cycle

A

occurs when there’s a high demand for energy on skeletal muscle

AMP is made into IMP, then the IMP is used to convert aspartate (which has a high concentration) into fumarate. Fumarate is used make more ATP via the Krebs cycle.

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48
Q

Which enzyme is used to make uric acid?

a. xanthine oxidase
b. adenyl kinase

A

a. xanthine oxidase

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49
Q

uric acid has a higher solubility in

a. acidic ph
b. alkaline ph
c. cold environments

A

b. alkaline ph

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50
Q

Which of the following is a bad treatment of gout?

a. inhibit xanthine oxidase
b. stimulate uric acid secretion kidneys
c. eliminate meat from the diet
d. alkalize the blood

A

d. alkalize the blood

inhibit xanthine oxidase via allopurinol

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51
Q

Which of the following converts triglycerides into diglycerides?

a. monoglyceride lipase (MGL)
b. hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)
c. adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL)

A

c. adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL)

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52
Q

Which of the following converts monoglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids?

a. monoglyceride lipase (MGL)
b. hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)
c. adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL)

A

a. monoglyceride lipase (MGL)

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53
Q

Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme?

a. monoglyceride lipase (MGL)
b. hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)
c. adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL)

A

b. hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)

diglyceride into monoglyceride

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54
Q

Which TWO of the following inhibit hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)?

a. glucagon
b. insulin
c. perilipin
d. dephosphorylation

A

b. insulin
&
d. dephosphorylation

(HSL likes phosphorus!)

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55
Q

After triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and free fatty acids, where is glycerol broken down?

a. plasma
b. muscle
c. liver

A

c. liver

the only place that has glycerol kinase

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56
Q

After triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and free fatty acids, where do free fatty acids go?

a. plasma
b. muscle
c. liver

A

b. muscle

specifically into the mitochondria

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57
Q

Which of the following carnitine shuttle enzymes removes CoA and adds carnitine?

a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I)
b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPT-II)
c. Carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase

A

a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I)

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58
Q

Which of the following carnitine shuttle enzymes removes carnitine and adds CoA?

a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I)
b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPT-II)
c. Carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase

A

b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPT-II)

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59
Q

Which of the following carnitine shuttle enzymes transports the palmitoyl-carnitine complex into the mitochondrial
matrix?
a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I)
b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPT-II)
c. Carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase

A

c. Carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase

brings it in, in exchange for a free carnitine

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60
Q

Which of the following can produce the most ATP’s?

a. GTP
b. NADH
c. FADH2

A

b. NADH

NADH= 3 ATP's
FADH2= 2 ATP's
GTP= 1 ATP
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61
Q

What does each FA oxidation cycle produce?

a. 2C + 2NADH + FADH(2)
b. 2C + NADH + FADH(2)
c. 3C + 2NADH + FADH(2)

A

b. 2C + NADH + FADH(2)

totals to 17 ATP’s

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62
Q

What does each Acetyl CoA produce?

a. 1NADH + 2FADH(2) + 1GTP
b. 2NADH + 2FADH(2) + 1GTP
c. 12 ATP’s
d. 15 ATP’s

A

c. 12 ATP’s

3NADH + 2FADH(2) + 1GTP

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63
Q

What does the 3 carboned propionyl CoA produce?

A

1 NADH + 1 FADH2 + 1 GTP = 6 ATP’s

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64
Q

What’s the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?

A

HMG CoA reductase

makes HMG CoA into mevalonate

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65
Q

Which of the following activates HMG CoA reductase?

a. SCAP
b. SREB-2
c. INSIG
d. SRE

A

b. SREB-2

INSIG stops it from binding

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66
Q

Which of the following activates HMG CoA reductase?

a. glucagon
b. insulin
c. ubiquitin

A

b. insulin

insulin dephosphorylates it

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67
Q

What enzyme esterifies cholesterol?

A

Acyl CoA Cholesterol Acyl Transferase (ACAT)

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68
Q

Where are bile acids are converted into bile salts?

a. liver
c. intestine
d. kidney

A

a. liver

conjugating with glycine and taurine

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69
Q

Where are bile salts are converted into bile acids?

a. liver
c. intestine
d. kidney

A

c. intestine

removing glycine and taurine

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70
Q

Where are primary bile salts are secreted?

a. duodenum
b. ileum
c. jejunum

A

a. duodenum

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71
Q

Rate-limiting enzyme of bile acid synthesis

A

Cholesterol-7-α-hydroxylase

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72
Q

Which of the following has the highest protein content?

a. Chylomicrons (CM)
b. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

A

d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

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73
Q

Which of the following has the highest triglyceride content?

a. Chylomicrons (CM)
b. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

A

a. Chylomicrons (CM)

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74
Q

Which of the following activates Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL)?

a. ApoA-1
b. Apo B-48
c. Apo B-100
d. Apo C-II
e. Apo E

A

d. Apo C-II

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75
Q

What does Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL) do?

a. converts VLDL into LDL
b. converts LDL into VLDL
c. hydrolyzes the triacylglycerol (TAG) into free fatty acids and glycerol

A

c. hydrolyzes the triacylglycerol (TAG) into free fatty acids and glycerol

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76
Q

Which of the following is important to be for hepatic receptor recognition?

a. ApoA-1
b. Apo B-48
c. Apo B-100
d. Apo C-II
e. Apo E

A

e. Apo E

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77
Q

Which of the following gives Apo C-II & Apo E to Chylomicrons and VLDL’s?

a. Chylomicrons (CM)
b. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

A

d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

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78
Q

What membrane protein aids in endocytosis of LDL?

A

clathrin

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79
Q

Which of the following is responsible for reverse cholesterol transport?

a. Chylomicrons (CM)
b. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

A

d. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

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80
Q

Which of the following is HDL specific?

a. ApoA-1
b. Apo B-48
c. Apo B-100
d. Apo C-II
e. Apo E

A

a. ApoA-1

activates LCAT

81
Q

Which type of HDL gives cholesterol esters to VLDL via cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP)?

a. HDL 2
b. HDL 3

A

a. HDL 2

because it’s cholesteryl ester rich

82
Q

LCAT and ACAT both esterify cholesterol. What’s the difference?

A

LCAT uses phosphatidylcholine (PC) to estrify it while ACAT uses acyl-CoA

83
Q

How does HDL 2 (cholesteryl ester rich) become HDL 3 (cholesteryl ester poor)?

a. by giving it’s cholesterol esters and lipids to VLDL
b. by giving it’s cholesterol esters and lipids to the liver

A

b. by giving it’s cholesterol esters and lipids to the liver

84
Q

Which of the following characterizes cardiolipin?

a. sphingophospholipid
b. glycerophospholipid

A

b. glycerophospholipid

cardiolipin= 2 Phosphatic acids + glycerol

85
Q

Where is cardiolipin found?

a. RER
b. outer mitochondrial membrane
c. inner mitochondrial membrane
d. the nucleus

A

c. inner mitochondrial membrane

86
Q

Which of the following characterizes ceramide?

a. sphingophospholipid
b. glycerophospholipid

A

a. sphingophospholipid

87
Q

Which of the following is characterized by fatty liver, mental retardation, and neural degeneration?

a. Sphingomyelinase deficiency
b. Ceramidase deficiency

A

a. Sphingomyelinase deficiency

Niemann-Pick disease

88
Q

What causes Farber’s disease?

a. Sphingomyelinase deficiency
b. Ceramidase deficiency

A

b. Ceramidase deficiency

symptoms= joint deformities and granulomas

89
Q

Which of the following has ceramide as a precursor?

a. sphingoglycolipid
b. sphingophospholipid
c. both
d. neither

A

c. both

ceramide= sphingo

90
Q

Phosphatidylinositol (PI) is classified as a

a. sphingophospholipid
b. glycerophospholipid

A

b. glycerophospholipid

91
Q

Which of the following makes Arachidonic acid?

a. Phospholipase A1
b. Phospholipase A2
c. Phospholipase C
d. Phospholipase D

A

b. Phospholipase A2

92
Q

Which of the following makes DiacylGlycerol (DAG)?

a. Phospholipase A1
b. Phospholipase A2
c. Phospholipase C
d. Phospholipase D

A

c. Phospholipase C

93
Q

Which of the following makes Stearic acid?

a. Phospholipase A1
b. Phospholipase A2
c. Phospholipase C
d. Phospholipase D

A

a. Phospholipase A1

94
Q

Which of the following eicosanoids inhibit platelet aggregation?

a. prostacyclin
b. thromboxanes
c. leukotrienes

A

a. prostacyclin

95
Q

Which of the following eicosanoids promotes platelet aggregation?

a. prostacyclin
b. thromboxanes
c. leukotrienes

A

b. thromboxanes

96
Q

Which of the following eicosanoids contracts smooth muscle?

a. prostacyclin
b. thromboxanes
c. leukotrienes

A

c. leukotrienes

97
Q

How do you make a sphingosine?

a. stearic acid + proline
b. stearic acid + serine
c. palmitic acid + serine
d. palmitic acid + proline

A

c. palmitic acid + serine

98
Q

Which of the following reach the peripheral tissue before the liver?

a. fats
b. carbs
c. protein

99
Q

Which TWO of the following amino acids can only be used as fuel in the ketogenic pathway?

a. lysine
b. proline
c. serine
d. leucine
e. alanine
f. arginine

A

a. lysine
&
d. leucine

100
Q

What does the glucose-alanine cycle do?

a. give amino acids from liver to muscle, to be used for energy
b. give glucose from liver to muscle, to be used for energy

A

b. give glucose from liver to muscle, to be used for energy

101
Q

Which of the following stimulate insulin release?

a. lysine
b. proline
c. serine
d. leucine
e. alanine
f. arginine

A

f. arginine

102
Q

Why can’t the liver not use ketone bodies?

A

it doesn’t have acetoacetate CoA Transferase (thiaphorase)

103
Q

Which amino acid is most used by the kidney?

a. glutamine
b. leucine
c. alanine
d. arginine

A

a. glutamine

the most important donor of NH(3) in kidney

104
Q

Which of the following is FALSE type 1 diabetes?

a. Decreased glucose uptake
b. High ketone body synthesis
c. Hypolipidemia
d. Mobilization of amino acidsfrom muscle

A

c. Hypolipidemia

105
Q

Which of the following is based on estimates and used when there isn’t enough research?

a. adequate intake (AI)
b. estimated average requirement (EAR)
c. recommended dietary allowance (RDA)
d. upper intake level (UL)

A

a. adequate intake (AI)

106
Q

Which of the following meets the requirement of 50% of healthy individuals?

a. adequate intake (AI)
b. estimated average requirement (EAR)
c. recommended dietary allowance (RDA)
d. upper intake level (UL)

A

b. estimated average requirement (EAR)

107
Q

Which of the following is more dense?

a. muscle
b. fat

108
Q

A man’s BMI is 25, which of the following is his health status?

a. underweight
b. healthy
c. overweight
d. obese

A

c. overweight

109
Q

Which of the following uses oxygen intake to measure energy input?

a. Direct Calorimetry
b. Indirect Calorimetry
c. Bomb Calorimeter

A

b. Indirect Calorimetery

110
Q

Which is a more accurate risk predictor?

a. BMI
b. Waist to hip ratio

A

b. Waist to hip ratio

111
Q

Which of the following induces less thermogenesis after a meal?

a. protein
b. carbs
c. lipids

112
Q

What is TRUE about celiac disease?

a. damaged villi due to celiac can be repaired once gluten is removed from the diet
b. people with latent celiac disease have normal villi
c. the gluten damages the intestine due to celiac disease

A

b. people with latent celiac disease have normal villi

celiac disease is when the body attacks itself due to the gluten

113
Q

Which of the following occurs in Ramadan, when people are fasting?

a. nitrogen intake high
b. nitrogen excretion high

A

b. nitrogen excretion high

114
Q

Which of the following does NOT supply all essential AA?

a. quinoa
b. gelatin
c. soy beans

A

b. gelatin

lacks tryptophan

115
Q

Protein deficiency causes

a. Marasmus
b. Kwashiorkor

A

b. Kwashiorkor

116
Q

Hair and mental changes commonly accompany

a. Marasmus
b. Kwashiorkor

A

b. Kwashiorkor

117
Q

Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

a. Maltose
b. Fructose
c. Lactose
d. Sucose

A

b. Fructose

118
Q

Where does Starch Digestion occur?

a. mouth
b. stomach

A

a. mouth

and it continues in the duodenum

119
Q

Which of the following has the lowest Glycemic index?

a. monosaccharides
b. disaccharides
c. polysaccharides

A

c. polysaccharides

120
Q

Which is more abundant in proteins?

a. tryptophan
b. alanine

A

b. alanine

it’s small and easily incorporated while tryptophan is big and bulky

121
Q

Which of the following helps regulate cholesterol efflux?

a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)

A

b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)

122
Q

Which of the following helps regulate gene expression?

a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)

A

a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)

123
Q

Which of the following helps regulate skin permeability?

a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)

A

a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)

124
Q

Which of the following makes up the plasma membrane of the retina and brain?

a. linoleic acid (18:2N-6)
b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)

A

b. linolenic acid (18:3N-3)

125
Q

Stomach acid inactivates which enzyme?

a. amylase
b. lingual lipase

A

a. amylase

126
Q

chief cells make which enzyme?

a. lingual lipase
b. amylase
c. gastric lipase
d. pancreatic lipase

A

c. gastric lipase

127
Q

Which of the following makes the intestine more alkaline so pancreatic lipase can work?

a. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
b. Secretin
c. Co-lipase

A

b. Secretin

128
Q

Which of the following decreases gastric motility and contracts the gall bladder?

a. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
b. Secretin
c. Co-lipase

A

a. Cholecystokinin (CCK)

129
Q

Where are short chain triglycerides (SCT) absorbed?

a. stomach
b. small intestine
c. large intestine

A

a. stomach

130
Q

Which of the following decrease HDL?

a. monounsaturated fat
b. saturated fatty acids
c. trans fatty acids

A

c. trans fatty acids

131
Q

Which of the following gets absorbed less when eaten with egg whites?

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C

A

c. Vitamin B7

biotin’s absorption decreases when talen with Avidin- which is found in egg whites

132
Q

Which of the following is the least stable?

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C

A

e. Vitamin C

133
Q

Which of the following causes Pellagra when deficient?

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C

A

d. Niacin

Pellagra = 4 D’s (dermatitis, diarrhea,dementia, death)

134
Q

Which of the following helps with iron absorption?

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C

A

e. Vitamin C

135
Q 
Which of the following is a key coenzyme for energy
producing reactions?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C
A

a. Vitamin B1

thiamin

136
Q

Which of the following causes Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome and Beriberi?

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C

A

a. Vitamin B1

137
Q

Which of the following is light sensitive?

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C

A

b. Vitamin B2

138
Q

A deficiency of which of the following can be alcohol induced?

a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin B7
d. Niacin
e. Vitamin C

A

a. Vitamin B1

139
Q

Which of the following inhibits blood clotting?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K

A

b. Vitamin E

140
Q

Which of the following is an antioxidant?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K

A

b. Vitamin E

141
Q

Which of the following causes blindness and kidney stones?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K

A

a. Vitamin A

142
Q

Which of the following increases with age?

a. total body water
b. intracellular compartment
c. extracellular compartment

A

b. intracellular compartment

143
Q

Who is more susceptible to dehydration?

A

infants and the elderly

144
Q

The major cation of EC fluid

a. Na
b. K
c. Ca

145
Q

The major cation in the Cell

a. Na
b. K
c. Ca
d. Phosphorus

146
Q

Which of the following causes headaches, seizures and comas?

a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypernatremia

A

a. Hyponatremia

147
Q

Which of the following causes osteoporosis?

a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypernatremia

A

b. Hypernatremia

high Na stimulates Ca excretion

148
Q

Which of the following is most likely in a person with functioning kidneys?

a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia

A

a. Hypokalemia

K+ is efficiently removed by kidneys

149
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of angiotensin II?

a. Na reabsorption
b. aldosterone secretion
c. increased BP
d. ADH inhibition

A

d. ADH inhibition

ADH secretion; these all increase volume by retaining water and salt

150
Q

Which of the following acts to reduce calcium in the body?

a. PTH
b. Calcitonin
d. Vitamin D

A

b. Calcitonin

151
Q

The most abundant intracellular anion

a. Na
b. K
c. Ca
d. Phosphorus

A

d. Phosphorus

152
Q

What’s FLASE about PTH?

a. increases Ca reabsorption
b. Increases Phosphorus excretion
c. increases Ca in the body
d. increases Phosphorus in the body

A

d. increases Phosphorus in the body

153
Q

Under-reactive parathyroid gland causes

a. Hypophosphatemia
b. Hyperphosphatemia

A

b. Hyperphosphatemia

under reactive, meaning it doesn’t secrete enough PTH which reduces the Phosphorus

154
Q

Which of the following causes osteomalacia, muscle weakness, and respiratory problems due to bad diaphragm function?

a. Hypophosphatemia
b. Hyperphosphatemia

A

a. Hypophosphatemia

155
Q

Which of the following reduces iron absorption?

a. oxalates
b. gluten
c. vitamin C

A

a. oxalates

156
Q

Which of these elements is used to treat Wilson’s disease?

a. Fe
b. Ca
c. Zinc
d. Iodine

157
Q

Which of the following is more commonly found in the body?

a. T3
b. T4

158
Q

Which of the following is more potent?

a. T3
b. T4

A

a. T3

T4 becomes T3 a couple of days after secretion

159
Q

Goitrogens function

A

disrupts the production of thyroid hormones by interfering with iodine uptake

160
Q

Sprecher’s shunt is a pathway that aims to make

a. arachidonic acid
b. DPA
c. DHA

A

c. DHA

DPA -> DHA

161
Q

Which describes the preference of desaturases?

a. ω3 > ω6 > ω9
b. ω3 > ω9 > ω6
c. ω9 > ω6 > ω3
d. ω9 > ω3 > ω6

A

a. ω3 > ω6 > ω9

162
Q

When the mead acid to the arachidonic acid ratio is above 0.2, which of the following can you conclude?

a. essential fatty acid deficiency
b. non-essential fatty acid deficiency

A

a. essential fatty acid deficiency

163
Q

Can humans turn linoleic acid (C:18:3 9,12,15) into eicosatetraenoic acid (C18:4 6,9,12,15)?

A

Yes, human tissues can express 4,5,6 and -9 desaturases. Use the 6 desaturases to convert it.

164
Q

How is ecosatetraenoic acid (C18:4 6,9,12,15) converted to arachidonic acid (C20:4 8,11,14,17)?

A

elongase reaction adds a 2-carbon unit to the carboxylic end. It would cause all the double bonds to shift.

165
Q

cis- unsaturated fatty acyl chains bend at double bonds and thus make biomembranes…

a. less fluid
b. more fluid

A

b. more fluid

166
Q

Which of the following has hydrophobic a-helices or twisted beta sheets?

a. integral membrane proteins
b. peripheral membrane proteins

A

a. integral membrane proteins

167
Q

Which of the following can be released from the membrane by ph change?

a. integral membrane proteins
b. peripheral membrane proteins

A

b. peripheral membrane proteins

a= you need to destroy the membrane to get them out

168
Q

Where is phosphatidylserine found?

a. extracellular side of plasma membrane
b. cytosolic face of plasma membrane

A

b. cytosolic face of plasma membrane

169
Q

What maintains asymmetric distribution of lipids in the plasma membrane?

a. cytoskeleton
b. phosphatidylserine
c. enzymes
d. caveolae

A

c. enzymes

flippases and floppases

170
Q

What are caveolae?

A

invaginations of the plasma membrane

171
Q

What are microdomains, or membrane rafts?

What is their function?

A

caveolae associated regions that have non-fluid lipids which form “rafts” that float on the fluid membrane

important in cell signaling as well as sorting & delivery of proteins

172
Q

Functional Genomics uses which technique?

a. microarray technology
b. genomic hybridization
c. mass spectrometry

A

a. microarray technology

173
Q

Which omic field can help us silence cancer genes?

a. Proteomics
b. Transcriptomics
c. Metabolomics

A

b. Transcriptomics

using RNA

174
Q

Which omic field deals with the last product of gene expression?

a. Proteomics
b. Transcriptomics
c. Metabolomics

A

c. Metabolomics

175
Q

What occurs to the last residue of the limit dextrin in muscle?

a. hydrolized producing free glucose
b. high hexokinase concentrations phosphorylate it

A

b. high hexokinase concentrations phosphorylate it

176
Q

Which of the following can use G-6-P for energy?

a. muscle
b. liver

A

b. liver

muscle doesn’t have G-6-Pase

177
Q

Which state of Glycogen phosphorylase is more active?

a. T state
b. R state

A

b. R state

178
Q

What activates adenylate cyclase?

a. glucagon
b. glucose
c. insulin

A

a. glucagon

179
Q

Which enzyme causes more glycogen breakdown?

a. glycogen phosphorylase a
b. glycogen phosphorylase b

A

a. glycogen phosphorylase a

it’s the modified version

180
Q

Which of the following causes massive cardiomegaly?

a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease

A

c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease

AKA Pompe disease, aka Alpha-(1-4) glucosidase deficiency

181
Q

Myophosphorylase deficiency causes

a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease

A

e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease

AKA Mcardle syndrome

182
Q

Which of the following is Von Gierke disease, aka glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency?

a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease

A

a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease

characterized by delayed puberty & growth retardation

183
Q

People with __?__ are able to store glucose as glycogen but not able to release it normally

a. Type I Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease

A

a. Type I Glycogen Storage Disease

184
Q

Glucose 6 phosphate translocase deficiency causes

a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease

A

b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease

characterized by growth retardation and neuropenia

185
Q

In which of the following does glycogen have an abnormal structure leading to fasting hypoglycemia?

a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease

A

d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease

AKA Cori disease

186
Q

Which of the following is characterized by temporary weakness & muscle cramping after exercize?

a. Type IA Glycogen Storage Disease
b. Type IB Glycogen Storage Disease
c. Type II Glycogen Storage Disease
d. Type III Glycogen Storage Disease
e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease

A

e. Type V Glycogen Storage Disease

AKA Mcardle syndrome

187
Q

What’s true about partially hydrogenated vegetable oil?

a. they have a shorter shelf life
b. they taste better
c. they’re more expensive

A

b. they taste better

188
Q

Which of the following helps oils isomerize and become trans fast during hydrogenation?

A

nickle catalyst

189
Q

Why do beef and milk contain trans-fats?

A

bacterial fermentation

190
Q

Which is NOT associated with trans fat?

a. cardiovascular disease
b. type 1 diabetes
c. type 2 diabetes
d. cancer risks

A

b. type 1 diabetes

191
Q

What does trans-palmitoleate do?

a. lower insulin resistance & diabetes risk
b. higher insulin resistance & diabetes risk

A

a. lower insulin resistance & diabetes risk

192
Q

Which is more sweet?

a. Regular soft drinks
b. Diet or ‘lite’ soft drinks

A

b. Diet or ‘lite’ soft drinks

193
Q

A regular soft drink is more likely to contain

a. sucrose
b. Sucralose
c. Aspartame

A

a. sucrose

194
Q

Which of the following is the sweetest?

a. Aspartame
b. Acesulfame-K
c. Sucralose
d. Xylitol
e. Steviol glycosides

A

c. Sucralose

195
Q

Which of the following do people with phenylketonuria have to avoid more?

a. Regular soft drinks
b. Diet or ‘lite’ soft drinks

A

b. Diet or ‘lite’ soft drinks

196
Q

Which of the following is suggested to increase insulin sensitivity?

a. Aspartame
b. Acesulfame-K
c. Sucralose
d. Xylitol
e. Steviol glycosides

A

e. Steviol glycosides

197
Q

Which of the following people have a harder time losing weight?

a. pear-shaped body
b. apple-shaped body

A

a. pear-shaped body

198
Q

Which of the following people have more dangerous fat deposition?

a. pear-shaped body
b. apple-shaped body

A

b. apple-shaped body

FB1 - 2nd year (42 decks)

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