extra anatomy Q's (midterm) Flashcards
In the anatomical position, where are the palms facing?
a. facing backward
b. facing the body
c. facing frontward
c. facing frontward
Which of the following positions does the patient lie on his stomach?
a. prone
b. supine
c. lithotomy position
a. prone
Which of the following is more distal?
a. shoulder
b. toes
b. toes
Which of the following is more proximal?
a. shoulder
b. toes
a. shoulder
Which of the following is defined as nearer to the trunk or the point of origin?
a. lateral
b. medial
c. distal
d. proximal
d. proximal
medial= nearer to the median line
the villi of the small intestine are considered as
a. evagination
b. invagination
a. evagination
Eversion of the foot involves raising which foot border?
a. medial border
b. lateral border
b. lateral border
Which end of the muscle shows more movement?
a. origin
b. belly
c. insertion
c. insertion
a= less movement
Which end of the muscle is known as the proximal attachment?
a. origin
b. belly
c. insertion
a. origin
Which phase of gametogenesis is the same in males and females?
a. first phase
b. second phase
c. meosis phase
d. maturation phase
a. first phase
What happens when primordial germ cells lose their way or don’t migrate properly?
forms into teratomas
What is atresia?
a. when spermatogonia degenerate
b. when spermatogonia stop being able to divide
c. when oogonia degenerate
d. when oogonia stop being able to divide
c. when oogonia degenerate
What kind of epithelial cells surround primordial follicle?
a. squamous
b. cuboidal
a. squamous
b=primary follicle
At which stage are primary follicles paused?
a. prophase of meiosis I
b. metaphase of meiosis I
c. prophase II of meiosis II
d. metaphase II of meiosis II
a. prophase of meiosis I
Which of the following is most exterior of a follicle
a. granulosa cells
b. zona pellucida
c. theca
c. theca
How long does it take to make haploid spermatids?
a. 35 days
b. 44 days
c. 55 days
d. 64 days
d. 64 days
Which of the following is characterized by cleft lip, mental retardation, deafness, and eye defects?
a. trisomy 13
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 21
a. trisomy 13
Which of the following is characterized by premature aging, thyroid dysfunction, and intellectual disabilities?
a. trisomy 13
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 21
c. trisomy 21
Which of the following is characterized by congenital heart problems and flexion of fingers and hands?
a. trisomy 13
b. trisomy 18
c. trisomy 21
b. trisomy 18
At which stage are ovulated oocytes paused?
a. prophase of meiosis I
b. metaphase of meiosis I
c. prophase II of meiosis II
d. metaphase II of meiosis II
d. metaphase II of meiosis II
In which of the following does the zona pellucida and granulosa cells first appear?
a. early primary follicle
b. late primary follicle
c. secondary follicle
b. late primary follicle
Which characterizes week 9 of pregnancy?
a. part of the embryonic period
b. part of the fetal stage
b. part of the fetal stage
fetal stage= 8 weeks to birth
Which of the following does LH do?
a. decrease collagenase activity
b. corpus luteum degradation
c. increase prostaglandin
c. increase prostaglandin
Which of the following causes muscular contractions of the ovarian wall?
a. progesterone
b. prostaglandin
b. prostaglandin
Which TWO develop the Corpus Luteum?
a. FSH
b. LH
c. progesterone
d. prostaglandin
b. LH
&
c. progesterone
Where does capacitation occur?
a. ovaries
b. uterine tube
c. uterus
b. uterine tube
When does the acrosomal reaction occur?
a. when the sperm contacts thecal cells
b. when the sperm contacts granulosa cells
c. when the sperm contacts the zona pellucida
c. when the sperm contacts the zona pellucida
the actin fibers of the sperm elongate and trigger it
Which protein of the oocyte membrane does the sperm bind to first?
a. alpha protein
b. beta protein
b. beta protein
beta protein binds the sperm to the membrane and then alpha protein inserts it into the membrane
When Na+ diffuses into the oocyte, what occurs?
a. cortical reaction
b. slow block
c. membrane depolarization
d. ZIPs destroy sperm receptors
c. membrane depolarization
When Ca+ is released from the ER into the oocyte, what occurs?
a. cortical reaction
b. sperm binding receptors turn off
c. membrane depolarization
d. fast block
a. cortical reaction
The cortical reaction is a part of
a. fast block to polyspermy
b. slow block to polyspermy
b. slow block to polyspermy
depolarization is the fast block
Which of the following adheres into the endometrium?
a. blastomere
b. morula
c. blastocyst
d. embryoblast
c. blastocyst
the trophoblast cells of the blastocyst integrate
Which of the following secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
a. Cytotrophoblast
b. Syncytiotrophoblast
b. Syncytiotrophoblast
What does hCG do?
a. stimulates the corpus luteum
b. produce progesterone and estrogen
a. stimulates the corpus luteum
the corpus luteum makes progesterone and estrogen
When is hCG is at its peak?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 10 weeks
b. 8 weeks
2nd to 3rd month the placenta starts making progesterone and estrogen making it useless
What’s FALSE about the basement membrane?
a. it’s polysaccharide-rich
b. it has no vascularity
c. it acts as a filter
d. it regenerates slowly
d. it regenerates slowly
it’s highly regenerative
The glomerulus of kidney is made up of
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple squamous epithelium
Which of the following synthesizes hormones?
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
Which of the following characterizes the ovary ducts, or fallopian tubes?
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated
Which of the following is most likely to be found in the respiratory tract?
a. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
b. Transitional ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
c. Stratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
a. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells
Which of the following characterizes the intestinal lining?
a. Simple columnar epithelium ciliated with goblet cells
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
b. Simple columnar microvilli epithelium with goblet cells
Which of the following release hormones?
a. Exocrine glands
b. Endocrine glands
c. Paracrine glands
b. Endocrine glands
Which of the following describes Simple glands?
a. only secrete hormones
b. only have a tubular secretory parts
c. only have unbranched ducts
c. only have unbranched ducts
Which of the following gland type release their product via exocytosis?
a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine
b. Merocrine
Sebaceous glands of hair follicles are classified as
a. Apocrine gland
b. Merocrine gland
c. Holocrine gland
c. Holocrine gland
Mammary glands are
a. Apocrine
b. Merocrine
c. Holocrine
a. Apocrine
Which of the following have serous demilunes?
a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
d. Myoepithelial cells
c. Seromucous cells
ex/ sublingual gland
Which of the following are described as pyramid-shaped, with its apex at the lumen
a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
a. Serous cells
Which of the following is star-shaped?
a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
d. Myoepithelial cells
d. Myoepithelial cells
Which of the following is most likely found respiratory and genital tract?
a. Serous cells
b. Mucous cells
c. Seromucous cells
d. Myoepithelial cells
b. Mucous cells
What is on the tip of actin filaments?
a. villin
b. spectrin
a. villin
Actin filaments are stabilized by
a. villin
b. spectrin
b. spectrin
Which of the following look like finger-like projections?
a. cilia
b. microvilli
b. microvilli
Which of the following look like hair-like projections?
a. cilia
b. microvilli
a. cilia
A pair of arms that extends off the “A” microtubule to form cross-bridges with the “B” microtubule in the adjacent doublet is called
a. nexin
b. dynein
c. myosin
b. dynein
Which of the following links doublets together?
a. nexin
b. dynein
c. myosin
a. nexin
Stereocilia are long…
a. cilia
b. microvilli
b. microvilli
Flaggellum are long…
a. cilia
b. microvilli
a. cilia
What does the Erzin of Stereocilia do?
a. at the tip of stereocilium
b. anchors actin bundles together
c. anchors the actin bundles to plasma membrane
c. anchors the actin bundles to plasma membrane
Where are Flagella found?
a. receptor hair cells in the ear
b. sperm
c. male reproductive tract
b. sperm
the rest are Stereocilia
Which of the following interacts with actin filaments?
a. desmosomes
b. belt desmosome
c. hemi-desmosomes
b. belt desmosome
the rest interact with intermediate filaments
Which of the following interacts with intermediate filaments?
a. zonula adherens
b. maculae adherenes
b. maculae adherenes
Which of the following interacts with actin filaments?
a. zonula adherens
b. maculae adherenes
a. zonula adherens
Gap junctions are made of which protein?
a. nexus
b. connexons
b. connexons
Which of the following make up Lamina Densa?
a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none
b. Type IV collagen
Which of the following makes up the anchoring plaque?
a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none
b. Type IV collagen
Which of the following makes up the anchoring fibrils?
a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none
c. Type VII collagen
Lamina Reticularis is made up of?
a. Type III collagen
b. Type IV collagen
c. Type VII collagen
d. none
a. Type III collagen
Where is Erzin found?
a. flagella
b. cilia
c. stereocilia
d. microvilli
c. stereocilia
Where is Spectrin found?
a. flagella
b. cilia
c. stereocilia
d. microvilli
d. microvilli
When does implantation occur?
a. day 4
b. day 7
c. day 14
b. day 7
Which part of the germ disc does primitive streak from?
a. cranial region
b. caudal region
b. caudal region
The primitive node occurs at which end of the primitive streak?
a. cephalic end
b. caudal end
a. cephalic end
What’s the function of the Anterior Visceral Endoderm (AVE) cells?
a. express genes essential for head formation
b. express genes essential for limb formation
a. express genes essential for head formation
Which of the following aim to ventralize the mesoderm?
a. Brachyury (T) gene
b. Goosecoid
c. BMP4
d. noggin and follistatin
c. BMP4 (and FGF ventralize)
the rest antagonize it to dorsalize the mesoderm
Where does the nodal protein accumulate?
a. on the right side of the node
b. on the left side of the node
b. on the left side of the node
Why does serotonin (5HT) increase in concentration on the left side?
a. its metabolized by MAO on the right
b. MAO is expressed on the left & is attracting it
c. LEFTY-1 is expressed on the left & is attracting it
a. its metabolized by MAO on the right
Which of the following is the midline barrier of the notochord?
a. serotonin (5HT)
b. MAO
c. Brachyury (T)
d. SHH
e. PITX 2
d. SHH
Which of the following causes Malformation of the head region?
a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
Which of the following causes Situs inversus?
a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects
d. Laterality defects
Which of the following causes sirenomelia (caudal dysgenesis)?
a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects
a. maternal diabetes
Which of the following causes Sacrococcygeal teratomas?
a. maternal diabetes
b. Over- or underexpression of Goosecoid
c. remnants of the primitive streak
d. Laterality defects
c. remnants of the primitive streak
Which is the most abundant cell type in all connective tissue proper?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Mesenchymal Cells
c. Fibroblasts
c. Fibroblasts
Which of the following is found in tendons & ligaments?
a. Collagenous fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Reticular fibers
a. Collagenous fibers
Which of the following is found around the liver & bone marrow?
a. Collagenous fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Reticular fibers
c. Reticular fibers
Which of the following is found in the aortic wall and the vocal cords?
a. Collagenous fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Reticular fibers
b. Elastic fibers
Which of the following is the origin of all CT?
a. mesenchyme
b. hematopoietic stem cell
a. mesenchyme
Which is most likely to be found in infants?
a. uniocular adipocyte
b. multiocular adipocyte
b. multiocular adipocyte
Describe mesenchymal cells (in embryonic CT)
a. large cytoplasm, small nucleus
b. large nucleus, small cytoplasm
c. round shaped nucleus
b. large nucleus, small cytoplasm
big, oval shaped nucleus in small cytoplasm
Which of the following is rich in rER & Golgi?
a. fibroblast
b. fibrocyte
a. fibroblast
branched cytoplasm is a characteristic of
a. fibroblast
b. fibrocyte
a. fibroblast
describe fat cells under osmotic acid stain
a. white
b. blue
c. black
d. silver
c. black
T/F: Reticular Tissue holds blood vessels and
capillary beds
false, that the job of areolar tissue
Which of the following is also known as white fibrous CT?
a. Dense regular connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Dense elastic connective tissue
a. Dense regular connective tissue
Which of the following is the white of the eyeball made of?
a. Dense regular connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Dense elastic connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
Which of the following is most abundant and widely distributed?
a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII
a. Collagen Type I
Which of the following anchors the basal lamina to lamina reticularis?
a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII
e. Collagen Type VII
Which of the following is made by Schawnn cell?
a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII
d. Collagen Type IV
found in basal lamina
Which of the following is made by chondroblasts?
a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III
d. Collagen Type IV
e. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen Type II
makes cartilage; car-TWO-lage
In tropocollagen, every third amino acid is
a. serine
b. proline
c. glycine
c. glycine
A collagen fiber is made out of
a. tendon
b. bundle
c. fibril
d. three alpha chains
e. tropocollagen
d. fibrils
A collagen fibril is made out of
a. tendon
b. bundle
c. fiber
d. three alpha chains
e. tropocollagen
e. tropocollagen
A collagen bundle is made out of
a. tendon
b. fibril
c. fiber
d. three alpha chains
e. tropocollagen
c. fibers
Tropocollagen is made out of
a. tendon
b. fibril
c. fiber
d. three alpha chains
e. bundle
d. three alpha chains
Which of the following is argyrophilic, which means easily stained black by silver salts
a. Reticular Fibers
b. Elastic Fibers
c. Collagen Fibers
a. Reticular Fibers
Smooth muscle cells produce which of the following?
a. Reticular Fibers
b. Elastic Fibers
c. Collagen Fibers
b. Elastic Fibers
Which stain makes Elastic Fibers appear purple?
a. Orcein
b. Resorcin-fuchsin
c. Weigert’s
b. Resorcin-fuchsin
glomerulonephritis and hematuria may be indicators of a genetic disorder affecting which collagen type?
a. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen type I
c. Collagen Type IV
d. Collagen type III
c. Collagen Type IV
Alport syndrome (AS)
Kindler’s Syndrome is a disorder of which collagen type?
a. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen type I
c. Collagen Type IV
d. Collagen type III
a. Collagen Type VII
Blue sclera, discolored or fragile teeth, and nose bleeds are indicators of a deficiency of which collagen type?
a. Collagen Type VII
b. Collagen type I
c. Collagen Type IV
d. Collagen type III
b. Collagen type I
Haversian system is
a. functional unit of spongy bone
b. functional unit of compact bone
b. functional unit of compact bone
coccyx & sacrum are examples of
a. long bones
b. short bones
c. flat bones
d. Irregular bones
d. Irregular bones
sesamoid bone is a type of
a. long bones
b. short bones
c. flat bones
d. Irregular bones
b. short bones
phalanges are type of
a. long bones
b. short bones
c. flat bones
d. Irregular bones
a. long bones
the bones of the skull undergo
a. intramembranous ossification
b. endochondral ossification
a. intramembranous ossification
long bones undergo
a. intramembranous ossification
b. endochondral ossification
b. endochondral ossification
The nutrient artery nourishes the inner 2/3 of the cortex, Which of the following enter Volkmann’s canals to nourish the rest of the cortex?
a. Metaphyseal arteries
b. Epiphyseal arteries
c. Periosteal arteries
c. Periosteal arteries
Which is the most common classification of joint within the human body?
a. Synarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Amphiarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
AKA Synovial Joints
When bones are joined by hyaline they’re classified as
a. synchondroses joint
b. symphyses joint
a. synchondroses joint
synchondroses= almost immovable joint symphyses= immovable joint
When two bones joined by fibrocartilage they’re classified as
a. Primary Cartilaginous joints
b. Secondary Cartilaginous joints
b. Secondary Cartilaginous joints
Primary Cartilaginous joint= synchondroses
Secondary Cartilaginous joints= symphyses
Which of the following is found between the ulna and the radius?
a. gomphosis
b. syndesmoses
b. syndesmoses
Which of the following jioint that binds the teeth to bony teeth sockets?
a. gomphosis
b. syndesmoses
a. gomphosis
ribs 11 and 12 are
a. true ribs
b. floating ribs
b. floating ribs
An extra rib which arises from the seventh cervical vertebra characterizes
a. Cervical rib syndrome
b. Thoracic outlet syndrome
a. Cervical rib syndrome
The scalene muscle is attached to
a. clavicle
b. rib 1
c. rib 2
b. rib 1
Which of the following attach to the bottom/top of the vertebrae?
a. tubercle
b. facet
b. facet
tubercle= attach to the transverse process of vertebrae
Which of the following is the most anterior structure of hte thoracic aperture?
a. superior vena cava
b. subclavian vein
a. superior vena cava
Which of ht following enter through the tendon of the diaphragm?
a. aorta
b. esophagus
c. inferior vena cava
c. inferior vena cava
Where is the aortic arch located?
a. Superior mediastinum
b. Anterior mediastinum
c. Middle mediastinum
d. Posterior mediastinum
a. Superior mediastinum
Where is the azygous vein arch located?
a. Superior mediastinum
b. Anterior mediastinum
c. Middle mediastinum
d. Posterior mediastinum
c. Middle mediastinum
Where is the esophagus located?
a. Anterior mediastinum
b. Middle mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum
Where is the descending aorta located?
a. Anterior mediastinum
b. Middle mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum
Which of the following is at vertebral level L5?
a. Subcostal plane
b. Transtubercular plane
c. Midclavicular plane
b. Transtubercular plane
Which of the following is at the inferior border of the 10th costal cartilage and vertebral level L3?
a. Subcostal plane
b. Transtubercular plane
c. Midclavicular plane
a. Subcostal plane
Which of the following passes through the anterior superior iliac spine?
a. interspinous plane
b. transpyloric plane
a. interspinous plane
Which of the following is more superficial?
a. scarpa fascia
b. tranversalis fascia
c. camper fascia
c. camper fascia
Which of the following is more deep?
a. scarpa fascia
b. tranversalis fascia
c. camper fascia
b. tranversalis fascia
Which of the following is NOT retroperitoneal? a. duodenum b kidneys c. pancreas d. stomatch
d. stomatch
stomach and spleen are intraperitoneal
What induces the ectoderm to form the neural plate?
Notochord
neural folds fuse and form somites at the cervical region, which somite is the first to form?
a. 1st somite
b. 5th somite
c. 8th somite
d. 13th somite
b. 5th somite
Which of the following closes first?
a. anterior neuropore
b. posterior neuropore
b. posterior neuropore
anterior neuropore= day 25
posterior neuropore= day 28
Which of the following are odontoblasts derived from?
a. exoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
d. neural crest
d. neural crest
Which of the following forms the dermis of the skin?
a. Intermediate mesoderm
b. Splanchnic mesoderm
c. Somatic mesoderm
c. Somatic mesoderm
epidermis= ectoderm derived
Which of the following forms the urinary and reproductive systems?
a. Intermediate mesoderm
b. Splanchnic mesoderm
c. Somatic mesoderm
a. Intermediate mesoderm
urinary bladder= endoderm derived
When will the mother feel the fetus kicking?
a. 2nd month
b. 3rd month
c. 4th month
c. 4th month
Which is an ectodermal germ layer derivative?
a. Schwann cells
b. Glial cells
c. central nervous system
d. Odontoblasts
c. central nervous system
& enamel of the teeth
Which is a paraxial mesoderm derivative?
a. vertebra
b. central nervous system
c. mammary glands
d. glial cells
a. vertebra
paraxial mesoderm become somites
Femoral nerves (L2-L4) are located in
a. Lesser pelvis
b. Greater pelvis
b. Greater pelvis
Pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-S4) are located in
a. Lesser pelvis
b. Greater pelvis
a. Lesser pelvis
Which of the following characterizes a male pelvis?
a. more circular shape
b. ischial spines less projected
c. smaller pubic arch angle
c. smaller pubic arch angle
the femoral artery is derived from
a. internal iliac artery
b. external iliac artery
b. external iliac artery
What separates the urogenital and anal triangle?
ischial tuberosity
Which of the following is multinucleated?
a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
Which of the following forms primary villi?
a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
a. cytotrophoblast
Which of the following forms trophoblastic lacunae?
a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
Which two of the following fuse together?
a. decidua basalis
b. decidua capsularis
c. decidua parietali
b. decidua capsularis
&
c. decidua parietali
What separates the placenta from the amniochorionic membrane?
chorionic plate
Which two of the following forms the maternal part of the placenta?
a. decidua basalis
b. decidua capsularis
c. decidua parietali
a. decidua basalis
Which of the following is formed in the second week?
a. primary vilius
b. secondary vilius
c. tertiary vilius
a. primary vilius
Which of the following is formed in the fourth week?
a. primary vilius
b. secondary vilius
c. tertiary vilius
c. tertiary vilius
Which of the following can pass from the mother to the fetus?
a. heparin
b. bacteria
c. IgS
d. IgG
d. IgG
What’s true about monozygotic twins?
a. one chorionic sac
b. one amniotic sac
a. one chorionic sac
Which of the following has low amniotic fluid?
a. Oligohydramnios
b. Polyhydramnios
a. Oligohydramnios
Which of the following blocks the birth canal?
a. placenta accreta
b. placenta percreta
c. placenta previa
c. placenta previa
Which of the following burrows deeper into uterus?
a. placenta accreta
b. placenta percreta
b. placenta percreta
Which of the following is characterized by fused feet?
a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot
b. sirenomelia
Which of the following is caused by Radioiodine therapy?
a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
Which of the following is caused by Oligohydramnios?
a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot
d. club foot
Which of the following is characterized by a collar looking malformation?
a. cystic hygroma colli
b. sirenomelia
c. fetal thyroid deficiency
d. club foot
a. cystic hygroma colli
Which of the following has the longest average life span?
a. Trisomy 13
b. Trisomy 18
c. Trisomy 21
c. Trisomy 21
low serum alpha-fetoprotein indicates it
