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HISTOPATHOLOGY > EXFOLIATIVE CYTOLOGY > Flashcards

EXFOLIATIVE CYTOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Histology of exfoliated, abraded, or desquamated cells. study or histology of the cells that are being removed from the body.

A

Cytology

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2
Q

Study of cells directly taken from surfaces of excised specimens by touching them

A

Imprint/Abraded Cytology

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3
Q

Microscopic study of desquamated cells from epithelial surfaces. Study of cells that have been shed or physically removed.

A

Exfoliative Cytology

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4
Q

test to identify this asymptomatic cancer.

A

Papsmear

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5
Q

distance of spray fixative

A

12 inches or 1 foot away

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6
Q

optimal time of smear preparation

A

1 hour

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7
Q

Best (yet flammable) fixative

A

95% Ethanol-Ether

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8
Q

Routinely used fixative

A

95% Ethanol

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9
Q

If smears cannot be made immediately, place the
collected material in … and replaced by

A

50% alcohol; saccamono’s preservative

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10
Q

Saccamono’s preservative

A

50% Ethanol
2% Carbowax

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11
Q

storage for smear prep

A

add ROH and refrigerate

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12
Q

% for pleural/peritoneal

A

50%

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13
Q

% for sputum

A

70%

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14
Q

% for urine, bronchial, gastric

A

95% alcohol

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15
Q

air-dry for 10-15 minutes after 2
hours of fixation and place it in a container

A

Mailed Specimen

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16
Q

if there is a huge amount of specimen you must centrifuge it at what rpm and how many minutes

A

2000; 2 minutes

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17
Q

specimens needed in general processing

A

viscous specimen
mucoid specimen
bloody specimen
watery specimen

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18
Q

in viscous specimen you must immerse it in

A

ether alcohol

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19
Q

how to destroy rbc

A

adding 2-5 mL of concentrated
Acetic Acid per 100 mL of the
specimen.

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20
Q

For adequate adhesion of smeared material.

A

adhesion

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21
Q

not recommended because it will retain the OG (Orange Green) of Pap stain.

A

albumin

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22
Q

Specimens that require adhesives:

A

Urinary sediment
Bronchialveolar lavage
Specimens with proteolytic enzymes (saliva)
Concentrated sputum

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23
Q

Examples of good adhesives

A

Pooled serum/Plasma
Celloidin Ether Alcohol
Leuconostoc Culture

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24
Q

2 major areas of specimens

A

non-gynecologic specimens
gynecologic specimens

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25
Q

Demonstrate abnormal cells early in disease

A

Sputum

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26
Q

how many samples of sputum is needed and what time of the day and interval per sample

A

3; morning; 1 hour interval

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27
Q

Patients unable to produce sputum

A

induced sputum inhalation of aerosol solution for 20 minutes

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28
Q

Absence of … and … indicates that only saliva was collected.

A

histiocytes
alveolar macrophages

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29
Q

what technique should be used in bronchial brushing

A

pull-apart technique

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30
Q

Performed in patients with AIDS to rule out Pneumocystis jirovecci infection

A

Bronchoalveolar Lavage/Bronchial Washing

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31
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecci

A

causative agent of
pneumonia

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32
Q

old name of Pneumocystis jirovecci

A

Pneumocystis carinii

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33
Q

how should you collect broncial aspirate

A

aspiration
washing

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34
Q

in bronchial aspirate, you should centrifuge the specimen for how many minutes

A

20-30minutes

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35
Q

an indication of the doctor that is really a bronchial aspirate

A

presence of cilia

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36
Q

methods to be used in gastrointestinal specimens

A

through the mouth
levine method

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37
Q

collection mode of gastrointestinal specimens

A

irrigation
aspiration

38
Q

how long do we need to wait before collecting gastrointesinal specimens

A

8 hours fasting before gastric washing

39
Q

For the extraction of peritoneal, pleural, pericardial fluid

A

Paracentesis

40
Q

Presence of malignant cells usually indicate

A

metastasis

41
Q

in ppp smears, how many units of heparin do we need per 100mL of aspirate to avoid clots

A

300 units

42
Q

test used to differentiate transudate and exudates in patients

A

revalta’s test

43
Q

first sample of urine in men is not acceptable because?

A

the urine sits too long in the bladder that’s why we need to collect the 2nd sample in the morning

44
Q

why females need to use a catheter when collecting the urine

A

the vagina is prone to
bacterial contamination

45
Q

mL of urine needed for routine testing

A

50mL

46
Q

mL of urine needed for drug testing

A

60mL

47
Q

For hormonal imbalance testing

A

breast secretion

48
Q

if there is blood present in breast secretion it means there is

A

benign intraductal papilloma

49
Q

how many mL of sample needed in csf

A

1mL

50
Q

manner of extraction in csf; to numb the area

A

lumbar puncture

51
Q

how many urine specimens are needed in prostatic secretion

A

3

52
Q

Screening test for precancerous condition; Recommended for females (35 yrs old and above)

A

vaginal and cervical smears

53
Q

if the female has a child she is recommended to undergo …

A

Pap smear

54
Q

junction of endocervical mucosa

A

Transformation Zone

55
Q

collection of vaginal and cervical smears

A

aspiration of posterior fornix
swabbing

56
Q

Samples of endocervical canal

A

Endocervical brush

57
Q

Patients with hysterectomy

A

Vaginal scrape

58
Q

For hormonal evaluation

A

Lateral vaginal scrape

59
Q

For localization of vaginal
adenosis

A

Four Quadrant vaginal scrape

60
Q

what is adenosis

A

benign type of malignancy

61
Q

For detection of herpetic lesions or carcinoma

A

Vulvar scrape

62
Q

Staining method of choice; Developed by Dr. George Papanicolau; Detects human uterine and cervical CA.

A

papanicolau staining method

63
Q

stains used in papanicolau method

A

hematoxylin
OG6
eosin azure

64
Q

the cell stained is nuclear structure

A

hematoxylin

65
Q

the cell stained is the cytoplasm of matured cell

A

OG6

66
Q

the cell stained is cytoplasm of immature cell

A

eosin azure

67
Q

modified pap’s method

A

Bismarck’s brown dye from
the EA solution

68
Q

Inexpensive
Not commonly used nowadays
Performed regularly even in pregnant women without undue risk

A

vaginal hormonal cytology

69
Q

recommended only in vaginal
hormonal studies

A

wooden spatula

70
Q

Abundant during proliferating phase

A

mature superficial cells

71
Q

Abundant during secretory phase

A

intermediate cells

72
Q

● Boat-shaped
● Folds/curls on edges
● Estrogen-progesterone effect
● Latter half of menstrual cycle, pregnancy, and
menopause

A

navicular cells

73
Q

● Round, oval cells
● Translucent basophilic cytoplasm at the center of
cell due to central glycogen accumulation
● Eccentric nucleus
● Double walled boundary with deep blue stain at the
cytoplasmic periphery

A

pregnancy cells

74
Q

● Smaller than intermediate cells
● Thick, round to oval
● Smaller strongly basophilic cytoplasmic area
● Larger vesicular nucleus than intermediate cells
● 2 weeks of age to puberty, after childbirth, abortions, and after menopause

A

parabasal cells

75
Q

Found before puberty and after menopause

A

basal cells

76
Q

Like parabasal cells; slightly cylindrical; During and 1-4 days after menstruation

A

endometrial cells

77
Q

● Occur in large group or sheets
● Honeycomb appearance
● Finely vacuolated pale blue/gray cytoplasm

A

endocervical glandular cells

78
Q

Most common normal vaginal flora

A

Lactobacillus acidophilus

79
Q

pH of vagina

A

acidic

80
Q

Numerous in: last trimester of pregnancy, infection, estrogen deficiency, DM

A

doderlein bacilli

81
Q

Decreased number of doderlein bacilli leads to increase in population of invasive and with the presence of

A

Lepthothrix species; Trichomonas vaginalis.

82
Q

“fern”/palm-leaf pattern of salt crystals; Basis for diagnosing early pregnancy

A

ferning phenomenon

83
Q

Absence of atypical or abnormal cells

A

CLASS I

84
Q

Atypical Cytologic Picture but no evidence of malignancy

A

CLASS II

85
Q

Cytologic picture suggestive but not conclusive of malignancy

A

CLASS III

86
Q

Cytologic picture strongly suggestive of malignancy

A

CLASS IV

87
Q

Cytologic picture conclusive of malignancy

A

CLASS V

88
Q

The second best choice after Pap’s
staining; Used for hormonal evaluation of gynecologic specimen and for cancer detection

A

phase contrast microscopy

89
Q

Determines the dry weight or individual cells or cellular constituents

A

interference microscopy

90
Q

if AOFT binds to DNA and it increases the result is

A

malignancy

91
Q

if AOFT binds to RNA and it increases the result is

A

growth

HISTOPATHOLOGY (16 decks)

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