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Anatomy 317 > Exam Questions > Flashcards

Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

For thick skin, list the order of the strata of the epidermis from deep to superficial.

a. basale, spinosum, gransulosum, lucidum, corneum
b. spinosum , grandulosum, basale, lucidum, corneum
c. corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
e. basale, granulosum, spinosum, lucidum, corneum

A

a. basale, spinosum, gransulosum, lucidum, corneum

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2
Q

Choose the incorrect statement. Keratinocytes are:

a. the least abundant cell type in the epidermis
b. found throughout all epidermal layers
c. sometimes alive and sometimes dead, depending on where they are found
d. able to synthesize the protein keratin
e. all are correct

A

a. the least abundant cell type in the epidermis

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3
Q

Which of the following cell junctions would allow cardiac muscle cells to pass ions from one cell to another, resulting in synchronized contractions?

a. adhering junctions
b. desmosomes
c. gap junctions
d. tight junctions
e. hemidesmosomes

A

c. gap junctions

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4
Q

The shaft of a long bone is properly called the:

a. epiphysis
b. perioseum
c. diaphysis
d. compact bone
e. metaphysis

A

c. diaphysis

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5
Q

The part of the sternum that articulates at the sternal angle are the:

a. xiphoid and body
b. xiphoid and manubrium
c. manubrium and body
d. manubrium and costal cartilages
e. manubrium and clavicle

A

c. manubrium and body

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6
Q

The lateral malleolus is the

a. proximal protion of the fibula
b. distal portion of the tibia
c. distal end of the fibula
d. proximal portion of the tibia
e. distal portion of the femur

A

c. distal end of the fibula

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7
Q

The intermal and external acostic meatuses are opening in which bone?

a. sphenoid
b. temporal
c. occipital
d. ethmoid
e. zygomatic

A

b. temporal

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8
Q

What is the major function of the clavicle?

a. it provides attachment for the humerus
b. it stabilizes the sternum
c. it braces the upper limb and holds it away from them midline of the body
d. it prevents the trapezius muscle from pulling the shoulders posteriorly
e. ligaments between the clavicle and humerus limit shoulder joint movement

A

c. it braces the upper limb and holds it away from them midline of the body

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9
Q

Which of the following is not found at the distal end of the humerus?

a. capitulum
b. lateral epicondyle
c. coronoid process
d. olecranon fossa
e. trochlea

A

c. coronoid process

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10
Q

Which of these regions is not part of the upper limb?

a. plantar
b. carpal
c. cubital
d. brachial
e. palmer

A

a. plantar

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11
Q

Which of the following would normally be impossible to palpate on a living person?

a. the mental process
b. the occipital condyles
c. the zygomatic arch
d. the mastoid process
e. the supraorbital rigde

A

b. the occipital condyles

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12
Q

An aggregation of cells and extracellular material that works together to perform a specific function is know as a(n)_____

a. tissue
b. organ
c. organelle
d. cell
e. organ tissue

A

a. tissue

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13
Q

The four primary tissue types found in adult organs include the following except _____ tissue.

a. connective
b. fibrous
c. nervous
d. epithelial
e. muscular

A

b. fibrous

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14
Q

The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and axial skeleton is where the _____ articulates with the _____

a. humerus; scapula
b. scapula; clavicle
c. scapula; thoracic cage
d. clavicle humerus
e. clavicle; sternum

A

e. clavicle; sternum

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15
Q

In the hair growth cycle, what is the period of growth called?

a. anagen
b. telogen
c. telophase
d. catagen
e. anaphase

A

a. anagen

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16
Q

Which of the following is true of tight junctions?

a. they are formed by connexons
b. they seal off intercellular space and prevent substances from passing between cells
c. they contain channels of diffusion of solutes from one cell to the next
d. they are patches that are formed when J-shaped proteins protrude toward the plasma membrane from the exoskeleton

A

b. they seal off intercellular space and prevent substances from passing between cells

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17
Q

Glands that release their product to a surface via a duct are referred to as a _____ gland

a. exocrine
b. holocrine
c. apocrine
d. endocrine
e. eccrine

A

a. exocrine

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18
Q

Which of the bones below does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?

a. clavicle
b. coxal
c. sacrum
d. ulna
e. fibula

A

c. sacrum

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19
Q

The ______ region of the lower limb is proximal to the _____ region

a. carpal; palmar
b. femoral; crural
c. antebrachial; brachial
d. tarsal; crural
e. brachial; femoral

A

b. femoral; crural

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20
Q

Which cell type is not found in the epidermis?

a. keratinocyte
b. melanocyte
c. adipocyte
d. dendritic cells
e. tactile cell

A

e. tactile cell

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21
Q

The reticular layer of the dermis consists of what kind of tissue?

a. reticular connective tissue
b. stratified squamous epithelium
c. dense regular connective tissue
d. dense regular connective tissue
e. areolar connective tissue

A

d. dense regular connective tissue

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22
Q

The membrane that lines the passageways that open to the exterior environment is called ____

a. the lamina propria
b. endothelium
c. a synovial membrane
d. a serous membrane
e. a mucous membrane

A

e. a mucous membrane

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23
Q

Which of the following bones does not contribute to the wall of the orbit?

a. sphenoid
b. frontal
c. maxillary
d. zygomatic
e. nasal

A

e. nasal

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24
Q

Looking at a slide of axillary skin under a microscope, you notice the presence of ______ glands that are absent on slides of the scalp.

a. eccrine
b. apocrine
c. sebaceous
d. ceruminous
e. mucus

A

b. apocrine

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25
Q

In an adult, which of the following bones would be producing the largest number of red blood cells?

a. ulna
b. metacarpals
c. calcaneus
d. femur
e. tibia

A

d. femur

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26
Q

Which bones are the crural region are weight bearing?

a. tibia
b. fibula
c. tibia and fibula
d. radius
e. ulna

A

a. tibia

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27
Q

What would you find in the marrow cavity of the diaphysis of an adult humerus?

a. periosteum
b. hematopoitic tissue
c. red bone marrow
d. yellow bone marrow
e. compact bone

A

d. yellow bone marrow

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28
Q

The head of a long bone is properly called the;

a. epiphysis
b. periosteum
c. diaphysis
d. compact bone
e. metaphysis

A

a. epiphysis

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29
Q

The medial malleolus is the

a. proximal portion of the fibia
b. distal portion of the tibia
c. distial portion of the fibula
d. proximal portion of the tibia
e. distal portion of the femur

A

b. distal portion of the tibia

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30
Q

Which of the following is considered to be the “functional unit” of skeletal muscle fibers?

a. sarcomere
b. Z disc
c. myofilaments
d. sarcoplasmic reticulim
e. neuromuscular junction

A

a. sarcomere

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31
Q

While sitting at your desk, you drop your pencil onto the floor. You bend over to pick up the pencil. In order to straighten up and continue your exam, you must use which of the following muscles?

a. tibialis anterior
b. erector spinae
c. semimembranosus
d. soleus
e. extensor hallucis longus

A

b. erector spinae

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32
Q

Which cells would you expect to increase in number during a bacterial infection of the CNS?

a. oligodendrocytes
b. asrtocytes
c. microglia
d. ependymal cells
e. schwann cells

A

c. microglia

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33
Q

The proximal radioulnar joint is a _____ joint

a. ball and socket
b. saddle
c. hinge
d. pivot
e. condylar

A

d. pivot

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34
Q

If a muscle that acts on the hand also has both of its attachment points in the hand, it is considered an _____ muscle

a. antagonistic
b. synergistic
c. convergent
d. extrnsic
e. intrinsic

A

e. intrinsic

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35
Q

Which cells form myelin in the spinal cord?

a. Schwann cells
b. astrocytes
c. satellite cells
d. oligodendeocytes
e. microglia

A

d. oligodendeocytes

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36
Q

Which of the following is not anatomical component of synovial joint?

a. articular cartilage
b. joint cavity
c. interosseous membrane
d. fibrous capsule
e. synovial membrane

A

c. interosseous membrane

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37
Q

Which of the following is not true of elastic filaments?

a. they are composed of titin
b. they run through the core of thin myofilaments
c. they attach to z disc
d. they prevent overstretching of muscle fibers
e. they help to stabilize thick myofilaments

A

b. they run through the core of thin myofilaments

38
Q

The deltoid helps the pectoralis major flex the arm. In this example, the deltoid is which of the following?

a. an antagonist
b. a fixator
c. a synergist
d. an agonist
e. a good friend

A

c. a synergist

39
Q

Cartilaginous joints are predominantly made up of what specific types of tissue?

a. hyaline cartilage
b. fibrocartilage
c. elastic cartilage
d. dense irregular connective tissue
e. dense regular connective tissue

A

b. fibrocartilage

40
Q

What comprises a motor unit?

a. one neuromuscular junction
b. the distance from one z disc to the next
c. one thick myofilament and all thin myofilaments with which it forms cross-bridges
d. one nerve fiber and all muscle fibers innerveste by it
e. one myofibril of muscle fiber

A

d. one nerve fiber and all muscle fibers innerveste by it

41
Q

Epidural anesthesia is introduced to the epidural space between the ____ to block pain signals during pregnancy.

a. skin and vertebral bones
b. dural sheath and vertebral bones
c. dura mater and arachnoid mater
d. arachnoid mater and pia mater
e. dura mater and pia mater

A

b. dural sheath and vertebral bones

42
Q

A basketball player jumps to shoot the ball and feels a pop as she goesup. When she comes down, she has lost her ability to plantar flex er foot. Which structure has she likely injured?

a. calcaneal tendon
b. anterior cruciate ligament
c. posterior cruciate ligametn
d. quadriceps femoris tendon
e. patellar ligament

A

a. calcaneal tendon

43
Q

Which of the following structures is not part of the temporomandibular joint?

a. articular disc
b. schenomandibular ligament
c. lateral ligament
d. annular ligament
e. mandibular ligament

A

d. annular ligament

44
Q

The secretion of ACh at neuromuscular junctions innervating the gluteus maximus muscle would lead to which of the following?

a. contraction of skeletal muscle fibers and thigh abduction
b. relaxation of skeletal muscle fibers and thigh abduction
c. contraction of skeletal muscle fibers and thigh adduction
d. relaxation of skeletal muscle fibers and thigh adduction
e. none of the above

A

a. contraction of skeletal muscle fibers and thigh abduction

45
Q

Which of the following nerve fiber would the have fastest conduction speed?

a. large myelinated fiber
b. small myelinated fiber
c. large unmyelinated fiber
d. small unmyelinated fiber
e. small fiber with mutiple schwann cells

A

a. large myelinated fiber

46
Q

Which muscle acts synergistically with the masseter?

a. levator scapulae
b. splenius capitis
c. buccinator
d. glenoid labrum
e. temoralis

A

e. temoralis

47
Q

What role does the first order neuron play in the passage of sensory signal to the brain?

a. the first order neuron carries the sensory signal to the thalamus
b. the first order neuron detects the stimulus and transmits a signal to the spinal cord or brain stem
c. the first order neuron carries the signal to the sensory area of the cerebral cortex
d. the first order neuron has no role in sensory signal transmission

A

b. the first order neuron detects the stimulus and transmits a signal to the spinal cord or brain stem

48
Q

What is the connective tissue covering that wraps around a muscle fascicle?

a. epimysium
b. epineurium
c. perimysium
d. perineurium
e. endomysium

A

c. perimysium

49
Q

Which attribute do skeletal and cardiac muscle tissue have in common?

a. the presence of striations
b. the position of cell nuclei
c. the number of intercalated discs
d. the length of the fibers
e. they’re both involuntary

A

a. the presence of striations

50
Q

Which of the following attaches to the M line of a sarcomere?

a. thin myofilaments
b. titin
c. thick myofilaments
d. actin
e. troponin

A

c. thick myofilaments

51
Q

The antagonist to the triceps brachii is the ____

a. deltoid
b. anconues
c. brachialis
d. supinator
e. teres minor

A

c. brachialis

52
Q

Loss of equilibrium, the ability to maintain equilibrium and posture, and the fine-tuning of skeletal movements would most likely be related to a lesion in which area?

a. Limbic system
b. pons
c. pituitary gland
d. medulla oblongata
e. cerebellum

A

e. cerebellum

53
Q

This portion of the brain secretes the hormone meletonin, which helps to regulate the body’s circadian rhythm.

a. habenular nucleus
b. anterior nucleus
c. pineal gland
d. mammillary gland
e. paraventricular nucleus

A

c. pineal gland

54
Q

Which of the following organs is not retroperitoneal?

a. the liver
b. pancreas
c. duodenum
d. ascending colon
e. descending colon

A

a. the liver

55
Q

The horizontally oriented fold of the dura matar that separates the occipital and temporal lobes of the cerebrum from the cerebellum is the,

a. diaphragma sellae
b. falx cerebelli
c. tentorium cerebrelli
d. superior sagittal sinus
e. falx cerebri

A

c. tentorium cerebrelli

56
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the occipital lobe?

a. it is chiefly concerned with mood, memory, and emotions
b. it is the principal visual center of the brain
c. it is the primary site for receiving and interpreting signals from the general senses
d. it is concerned with voluntary motor functions
e. it is likely to play a role in understanding spoken language

A

b. it is the principal visual center of the brain

57
Q

What is one function or parietal cells in the stomach?

a. they produce gastric lipase
b. they produce chemical messengers that regulate digestion
c. they produce hydrochloric acid
d. they produce mucus
e. they produce amylase

A

a. they produce gastric lipase

58
Q

The pair of thick anterior bulges (pyramids) in the medulla oblongoata are formed by the:

a. corticopyramidal tracts
b. nucleus cuneatus
c. anterior bulbar tracts
d. basal nuclei
e. corticospinal tracts

A

e. corticospinal tracts

59
Q

Which of the following locations has cells containing receptors for antidiuretic hormone?

a. smooth muscle of the urinary bladder
b. ovaries and testes
c. cells of the kidney tubules
d. smooth muscle of male reproductive tract
e. adrenal cortex and thyroid gland

A

c. cells of the kidney tubules

60
Q

Which connective tissue structure forms a sheath around an entire nerve?

a. epimysium
b. endoneurium
c. epineurium
d. perimeurium
e. Nerve capsule

A

c. epineurium

61
Q

Which of the cranial meninges consists of dense irregular connective tissue in two layers?

a. pia mater
b. arachnoid layer
c. dura mater
d. episural mater
e. subarachnoid mater

A

c. dura mater

62
Q

While on a peaceful morning walk, you pass a construction site where a person suddenly starts using a jackhammer. Unconsciously, you turn your head towards the noise. What structure is responsible for this movement?

a. the middle cerebellar peduncles
b. thalamus
c. inferior colliculi
d. superior colliculi
e. substantia nigra

A

c. inferior colliculi

63
Q

Where are the upper motor neurons that control skeletal muscle found?

a. posterior horn of spinal cord
b. anterior horn of spinal cord
c. motor association cortex of the cerebrum
d. postcentral gyrus of cerebrum
e. precentral gyrus of the cerebrum

A

e. precentral gyrus of the cerebrum

64
Q

Which is not correct regarding the parathyroid glands?

a. each parathyroid gland is composed of chief cells and oxyphil cells
b. parathyroid hormone (PTH) is produces by chief cells
c. there are usually four parathyroid glands in the human body
d. the parathyroid glands are embedded in the anterior surface of they thyroid gland
e. the parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone in response to low blood calcium levels

A

d. the parathyroid glands are embedded in the anterior surface of they thyroid gland

65
Q

Which of these hormone pairs have antagonistic (opposite) effects?

a. thyroxine and triiodothyronine
b. melatonin and insulin
c. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
d. antidiuretic hormone and growth hormone
e. oxytocin and follicle-stimulating hormone

A

c. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

66
Q

Mechanical digestion of carbohydrates begin in the ______. Chemical digestion of carbohydates ______

a. oral cavity; also begins in the oral cavity
b. oral cavity; begins in the stomach
c. stomach; begins in the small intestine
d. oral cavity; begins in the small intestine
e. stomach; also begins in the stomach

A

a. oral cavity; also begins in the oral cavity

67
Q

Almost all sensory signals pass through which structure on the way to the cerebrum?

a. tectal plate
b. thalamus
c. hypothalamus
d. corpus callosum
e. corticospinal tracts

A

b. thalamus

68
Q

Which of the following situations is most likely to result in stimulation of the adrenal medulla by the hypothalamus?

a. running from a bear
b. taking an afternoon nap
c. walking on a beach
d. relaxing after a big meal
e. reading a book

A

a. running from a bear

69
Q

The fibrous connective tissue layer surrounding the pharynx, most of the esophagus, and rectum is called the _____.

a. adventitia
b. mucosa
c. peritoneum
d. serosa
e. submucose

A

a. adventitia

70
Q

Which of the following does not contribute to the Brain Barrier System?

a. endothelial cells
b. meninges
c. astrocytes
d. tight junctions
e. ependymal cells

A

b. meninges

71
Q

Which of these functions is not associated with the retiular formation?

a. cardiovascular control
b. habituation
c. pain modulation
d. sleep
e. hunger

A

e. hunger

72
Q

A stroke patient can understand when you tell her to do something, but she is not able to produce grammatical, comprehensible speech. Which specific area of her brain is damaged?

a. the globus pallidus
b. language cortec of the occipital lobe
c. limbic system
d. wernicke area
e. broca area

A

e. broca area

73
Q

The thymus gland is located within the mediastinum, ____ to the heart and ______ to the sternum.

a. posterior; inferior
b. inferior; posterior
c. superior; posterior
d. superior; anterior
e. inferior; anterior

A

c. superior; posterior

74
Q

Which of the following types of papillea could be removed from the tongue without affecting the ability to taste food at any point in your life?

a. vallate
b. foliate
c. filiform
d. fungiform
e. papiform

A

c. filiform

75
Q

Which of the following tissue types contributes to the mucosa of the esophagus?

a. nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
b. simple squamous epithelium
c. stratified columnar epithelium
d. Simple columnar epithelium
e. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

A

a. nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

76
Q

A spinal nerve consists of both ______ and ______

a. myelinated; unmylinated fibers
b. oligodendrocytes; schwamm cells
c. afferent; efferent fibers
d. association; integration neurons
e. spinal; cranial fibers

A

c. afferent; efferent fibers

77
Q

The brain ventricle located in the diencephalon, beneath the corpus callosum, is the ______ ventricle.

a. third
b. lateral
c. fourth
d. median
e. falx

A

a. third

78
Q

Cerbrospinal fluid is formed by the

a. choroid plexus
b. arachnoid villi
c. arachnoid granulation
d. septum pellucidum
e. mesencephalic aqueduct

A

a. choroid plexus

79
Q

After a brain injury, a patient complain about a lack of muscular control in her right foot. The injury most likely affected which part of the the brain?

a. precentral gyrus in the right frontal lobe
b. postcentral gyrus in the left parietal lobe
c. precentral gyrus in the left frontal lobe
d. postcentral gyrus in the right temporal lobe
e. postcentral gyrus in the left frontal lobe

A

c. precentral gyrus in the left frontal lobe

80
Q

What protein are bone matrix fibers are primarily composed of?

a. collagen
b. elastin
c. keratin
d. fibrin
e. osteon

A

a. collagen

81
Q

Which feature are found only on thoracic vertebrae?

a. costal facets
b. transverse foramina
c. spinous processes
d. ventebral foramina
e. laminae

A

c. spinous processes

82
Q

The narrow zone of dead skin overhanging the proximal end of the nail is called the ______

a. eponychium
b. lunule
c. nail plate
d. nail body
e. free edge

A

a. eponychium

83
Q

Which of the following are not considered facial bones?

a. ethmoid
b. maxillae
c. lacrimal bones
d. nasal bones
e. palatine bones

A

a. ethmoid

84
Q

If it were not for the _____, osteocytes in the outer lamellae of an osteon would not be able to transport their wastes to the bloodstream for removal.

a. matrix
b. nutrient canals
c. canaliculi
d. trabeculae
e. lamallae

A

c. canaliculi

85
Q

The joint between the first costal cartilage and the sternum is a _______, whereas the other costal cartilages are joined to the sternum by ______ joints.

a. syndesmosis; synovial
b. synchondrosis; synovial
c. synostosis; cartilaginous
d. synarthrosis; cartilaginous
e. symphysis; cartilaginous

A

b. synchondrosis; synovial

86
Q

The absence or inhibition of acetylcholinestresterase at the synapse of a NMJ would lead to ______.

a. flaccid paralysis (inability to contract)
b. continued muscle contraction
c. atrophy
d. numbness
e. twitching

A

b. continued muscle contraction

87
Q

Which part of the spinal cord contains somas of somatic motor neurons?

a. posterior root ganglion
b. posterior horns
c. anterior horns
d. anterior funiculus
e. posterior funiculus

A

d. anterior funiculus

88
Q

The _____ deepens the socket of the glenohumeral joint and helps stabilize the joint.

a. fovea capitis
b. greater trochanter
c. greater tubercle
d. glenoid labrum
e. acetabular labrum

A

e. acetabular labrum

89
Q

The _____ is not part of the tibiofemoral joint

a. lateral meniscus
b. anterior cruciate ligament
c. tibial collateral ligament
d. fibular collateral ligament
e. posterior tibiofibular ligament

A

e. posterior tibiofibular ligament

90
Q

Motor neurons, or _____ neurons, send signals predominantly to muscle and gland cells, which are known as the _____

a. efferent; effectors
b. efferent; receptors
c. afferent; effectors
d. afferent; receptors
e. interneurons; processors

A

a. efferent; effectors

91
Q

Which of the following muscles does not attach somewhere on the humerus?

a. latissimus dorsi
b. biceps brachii
c. teres minor
d. brachioradialis
e. pectoralis major

A

b. biceps brachii

Anatomy 317 (19 decks)

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