Exam 2 (Respiratory, Cardio, CNS)

Question 1

When a heart valve does not shut completely, allowing blood to continue to flow when the valve Is closed and/or permitting the backflow of blood.

regurgitation
infiltrating
iatrogenic
endocarditis

Answer 1

regurgitation

Valvular disease may cause a narrowing of the valve, known as valvular stenosis, or valvular regurgitation (Insufficiency or incompetence), occurring when the valve cusps do not shut completely, allowing blood to continue to flow when the valve is closed or permitting the backflow of blood.

Iatrogenic: reactions to medical treatment

Infiltrating: Spreading Into surrounding tissue.

Endocarditis: the formation of nodules or vegetations on heart valves by deposits of bacteria or fungi.

Question 2

What Is atherosclerosis?

Loss of arterial wall elasticity
Calcification of the aorta caused by metabolic error.
Fatty deposits on the inner lining of arteries.
Sudden, acute arterial collapse.

Answer 2

Fatty deposits on the inner lining of arteries.

Question 3

What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor?

Glioma
Meningioma
Chondroma
Acoustic neuroma

Answer 3

Glioma

Gliomas are the most common primary malignant brain tumors, consisting of glial cells (supporting connective tissues in the CNS) that still have the ability to multiply. They spread by direct extension and can cross from one cerebral hemisphere to the other through connecting white matter tracts, such as the corpus callosum. Gliomas have a peak Incidence in middle adult life and are infrequent in individuals younger than 30 years of age.

Question 4

Tetralogy of Fallot involves four abnormalities.

True or False

Answer 4

True

Tetralogy of Fallout- Narrowing of the pulmonary valve prevents passage of a sufficient volume of blood from the right ventricle to the lungs

Tetra Is a prefix that means “four,” so this is a congenital condition of four simultaneous abnormalities.

Tetralogy of Fallot is a combination of four defects:
(1) pulmonary stenosis
(2) ventricular septal defect
(3) overriding aorta
(4) hypertrophy of the right ventricle.

Ventricular Sepal Defect- a defect in the ventricular septum, allows the blood to be shunted (passange) between the two chambers, mixing pulmonary and systemic blood.

Question 5

A weakened or torn annulus fibrosus is subject to rupture, which allows the nucleus pulposus to protrude and compress spinal nerve roots:

herniated disk
osteoporosis
osteophyte formation
discogenic pain

Answer 5

herniated disk

A herniated nucleus pulposus, or herniated disk, may result from advanced Degenerative Disk Disease or trauma. A weakened or torn annulus fibrosus is subject to rupture, which allows the nucleus pulposus to protrude and compress spinal nerve roots. The disk may prolapse In any direction and, In some instances, may not produce pain. The most common locations for disk herniation are in the lower cervical and lower lumbar regions, In the lumbar region, over 80% occur at the L5-S1 nerve roots, and In the cervical region, C6-C7 herniations are most common.

Question 6

A group of disorders that cause chronic airway obstruction, the most common forms are chronic bronchitis and emphysema:

CPAP
PPV
COPD
BIPAP

Answer 6

COPD

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) refers to a group of disorders that cause chronic airway obstruction. The most common forms are chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and bilevel positive airway pressure (BIPAP) devices are specialized, nonventilator masks used to controlled oxygen therapy.

A mechanical positive pressure ventilator (PPV) Is used for individals who are Intubated for oxygen therapy.

Question 7

What is a pulmonary embolus?

when the left ventricle of the heart cannot pump an amount of blood equal to the venous return in the right ventricle.

when blood clot forms or becomes lodged in a pulmonary artery, resulting in an obstruction of blood supply to the lungs.

a localized “ballooning” or outpouching of a vessel wall, classified as saccular, fusiform, or dissecting.

a degenerative condition that affects the major arteries of the body.

Answer 7

when blood clot forms or becomes lodged in a pulmonary artery, resulting in an obstruction of blood supply to the lungs.

Question 8

What Is a myocardial infarction?

An accumulation of fatty material on the myocardium
Neoplastic proliferation of myocardial cells
Death of myocardial cells
A drastic increase in the size of myocardial cells

Answer 8

Death of myocardial cells

Question 9

An atelectasis is defined as:

Incomplete expansion of the lung
increased elasticity of the alveoli
fluid surrounding the heart
fluid in the pleural space

Answer 9

Incomplete expansion of the lung

Atelectasis- condition where alveoli in your lung or a part of your lung deflates, causing a partial or complete collapsed lung.

Pneumothorax- condition where air leaks into the space around your lung, compressing it and causing it to collapse.

Pleural effusion- fluid in the pleural space

Question 10

Degenerative wear and tear on the joints and disks of the spine that cause pain and stiffness in the neck and/or back; AKA arthritis of the spine.

subluxation
spondylosis
spina bifida
spondylolisthesis

Answer 10

spondylosis

Spondylolisthesis- Anterior slipping of the body of the vertebra
Spondylolysis- breaking down of vertebral body between the superior and inferior articular processes

Question 11

Vertebral disks are covered by a tough outer covering called the nucleus pulposus.

True or False

Answer 11

False

They are composed of a tough outer covering, known as the annulus fibrosus, and a pulpy center called the nucleus pulposus.

Question 12

Viral Inflammation of the brain is termed:

Meningitis.
Encephalitis.
Subdural empyema.
Brain abscess.

Answer 12

Encephalitis.

Encephalitis, a viral Inflammation of the brain and meninges (meningoencephalitis), produces symptoms ranging from mild headache and fever to severe cerebral dysfunction, selzures, and coma.

Meningitis is most frequently due to a fungal infection.

Subdural empyema is a collection of pus below the dura layer of the meninges.

Brain abscess A collection of Immune cells, pus, and fluid within the brain in response to a bacterial or fungal infection.

Question 13

Which of the following is the best description of pleural effusion?

An accumulation of fluid in the cavity between the lungs and the chest wall.
An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
A collection of pus below the dura layer of the meninges.
A collection of blood within the lung parenchyma.

Answer 13

An accumulation of fluid in the cavity between the lungs and the chest wall.

Ascites- An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
Subdural Empyema- A collection of pus below the dura layer of the meninges.
Hemothorax- A collection of blood within the lung parenchyma.

Question 14

A condition of abnormal or irregular heartbeats:

Arrhythmia
Asthma
Atheroma

Answer 14

Arrhythmia

Question 15

Which benign CNS tumor arises from arachnoid lining cells and is attached to the dura?

Oligodendrocytoma
Meningioma
Ependymoma
Astrocytoma

Answer 15

Meningioma

Meninglomas are tumors that arise from arachnoid lining cells, are attached to the dura, and are almost always benign. It is the most common nonglial tumor.
Astrocytoma, Oligodendrocytoma, Ependymoma are all glial cell tumors. Gliomas are a relatively rare form of cancer and they are very dangerous. There are many subtypes of gliomas,

Question 16

Low oxygen levels within the arterial blood and resulting from a failure of the gas exchange function best describe:

hypoplasia.
ischemia.
hypercapnia.
hypoxemia.

Answer 16

hypoxemia.

Hypoxemia is a condition in which arterial blood is insufficiently oxygenated.

Question 17

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) Is a primary source of pulmonary embolism.

True or False

Answer 17

True

Question 18

MRI is considered the best imaging modality for suspected brain tumors.

True or False

Answer 18

True

MRI Is the best Imaging modality for detection and evaluation of brain tumors.
CT is best for trauma to the head.

Question 19

Hypertension is defined as a consistent and sustained elevation of arterial blood pressure as measured by a systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg or higher or a diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg or higher.

True or False

Answer 19

False

Hypertension- 130/80
Normal 120/80
Hypotension- 90/50

Question 20

Deterioration of the myelin sheath is a characteristic abnormality of:

neoplasm.
multiple sclerosis.
meningitis.
osteomyelitis.

Answer 20

multiple sclerosis.

Question 21

The most common primary malignant lung neoplasm originating in the mucosa (epithelium) of the bronchial tree:

Bronchogenic carcinoma
Lymphogenous metastasis lung disease
Hematogenous metastatic lung disease
Interstitial pneumonia

Answer 21

Bronchogenic carcinoma

Question 22

For a Chest X-ray on a patient with a history of emphysema, what technical changes should the radiographer consider?

remove the grid and Increase technical factors
an increase In technical factors
a decrease in technical factors
decrease the SID with no change to technical factors

Answer 22

a decrease in technical factors

Emphysema- limited airflow, decreased elastic recoil of the alveoli

Any condition that increases the aeration of the chest (eg., emphysema) reduces the amount of radiation required for proper exposure to be achieved and may require a decrease in technical factors.

Question 23

Radiography of the skull for fractures is essential to the diagnosis of associated brain injury.

True or False

Answer 23

False

Skull radiography cannot indicate the extent of injury to the brain in trauma.
CT is necessary.

Question 24

Congenital disorder affecting exocrine gland function, with respiratory effects, including excessive secretions, obstruction of the bronchial system, infection, and tissue damage:

pneumonia
sinusitis
cystic fibrosis
bronchiectasis

Answer 24

cystic fibrosis

Question 25

This type of cancer Is much more common than primary lung neoplasms. The most common primary sites for these tumors are the breast, GI tract, female reproductive system, prostate, skin, and the kidneys:

pulmonary metastases
adenocarcinoma
bronchogenic carcinoma
bronchial adenoma

Answer 25

pulmonary metastases

Cancer is a general term often used to denote various types of malignant neoplasms. Note that the terms cancer and carcinoma are not synonymous. A carcinoma is one type of cancer and is derived from epithelial tissue, for example, adenocarcinoma arises from glandular epithelial tissue. Carcinoma is a primary (originating site) malignant growth comprised of epithelial cells that tend to Invade surrounding tissues and give rise
to metastases.

Metastases are the spread or migration of cancer cells from one part of the body (the organ In which it first appeared) to another. The secondary tumor contains cells that are like those in the original (primary) tumor.

Pulmonary metastases are much more common than primary lung neoplasms. Many malignancies progress to pulmonary metastases. The most common primary sites for these tumors are the breast, gastrointestinal tract, female reproductive system, prostate, skin (melanoma), and kidneys.

Bronchogenic carcinoma is the most common fatal primary malignancy of the epithelium of the bronchial tree. Adenocarcinomas are the most common type of bronchogenic cancers.

Question 26

The presence of air or gas under the skin:

subarachnoid hematoma
subcutaneous emphysema
subdural empyema
subdural hematoma

Answer 26

subcutaneous emphysema

Subdural empyema A collection or pus below the dura layer or the meninges

Hematoma- A localized collection of blood in an organ, space, or tissue as a result of a break In the wall of a blood vessel
-Subdural hematoma- A hematoma positioned between the dura mater and the arachnoid meningeal layer
-Subarachnold hematoma- A hematoma that accumulates between the brain’s arachnoid layer and its pia mater

Question 27

Lateral decubitus chest radiographs can better detect smaller amounts of fluid in the pleural space than an erect lateral chest radiograph.

True or False

Answer 27

True

Question 28

Which fluoroscopic procedure is closely associated with diagnosing conditions of the spinal cord?

arthroscopy
myelography
thoracentesis
arthrography

Answer 28

myelography

The fluoroscopic procedure of myelography has been a staple of radiology for years, allowing visualization of conditions (such as herniated disks) that impinge on the spinal cord.

Arthography involves Injecting a contrast dye into a joint and taking X-rays to evaluate the joint’s structure and function. May be followed by a CT or MRI scan.

Arthroscopy is a procedure that uses a fiber-optic camera to diagnose and treat joint problems.

Thoracentesis is a procedure used to remove excess fluids for alleviating symptoms and laboratory analysis and to confirm the presence and type of fluid present In the pleural cavity.

Question 29

Chest Radiography is the best modality to image the plaque buildup in the coronary arteries in patients with CAD.

True or False

Answer 29

False

Coronary angiography is considered the criterion standard for evaluating coronary artery stenosis. Invasive Coronary angiography has been considered the Gold standard In the diagnosis & assessment of coronary artery disease for stable angina patients for decades.

Noninvasive modalities used to image the coronary arteries include echocardiography, myocardial perfusion Imaging via nuclear scintigraphy, magnetic resonance Imaging (MRI), and computed tomography (CT).

Question 30

The most common bacterial pneumonia, because this type of bacteria is often present In healthy throats and generally affects an entire lobe of a lung:

aspiration pneumonia
pneumococcal pneumonia
viral pneumonia
legionnaire’s disease

Answer 30

pneumococcal pneumonia

Question 31

An ___ is a localized dilation of an artery that most commonly involves the aorta, especially its abdominal portion.

anthracosis
embolism
infarction
aneurysm

Answer 31

aneurysm

aneurysm- localized “ballooning” or outpouching of a vessel wall

Question 32

Along with exercise, quitting smoking, maintaining a healthy weight and reducing hypertension; it is also recommended to decrease LDL and increase HDL to reduce risk of atherosclerotic disease.

True or False

Answer 32

True

Risk factors that can be altered include:
-Decreased serum low-density lipoprotein (LDL), which Is known as “bad” cholesterol. High levels of LDL can lead to plaque build-up in the arteries.
-Increased levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL), “good” cholesterol, can reduce the risk of heart disease and stroke.

Other risk factors that can be controlled are hypertension, cigarette smoking obesity, and a sedentary lifestyle. In addition, some other disease processes such as diabetes mellitus predispose Individuals to atherosclerotic disease.

Risk factors assoclated with this disorder that cannot be controlled include increased age and a strong family history of atherosclerosis.

Question 33

Pulmonary fibrosis from inhalation of foreign inorganic dust, most commonly from a work environment, including silicosis, anthracosis, and asbestosis:

aspergillosis
cystic fibrosis
fungus disease
pneumoconiosis

Answer 33

pneumoconiosis

Aspergillosis Is a fungal infection caused by Inhaling the mold Aspergillus, which is commonly found in the environment.

Cystic fibrosis is a congenital disorder affecting exocrine gland function, with respiratory effects, including excessive secretions, obstruction of the bronchial system, infection, and tissue damage.

Question 34

A decrease in tissue blood supply is termed:

infarction
atheroma
necrosis
Ischemia

Answer 34

Ischemia

Question 35

Inflammation of the meninges caused by a bacterial or viral agent:

meningioma
medulloblastoma
meningocele
meningitis

Answer 35

meningitis

Medulloblastoma- Soft, Infiltrating tumors of neuroepithelial tissue that are highly malignant

Meningioma- A hard, usually vascular tumor that occurs mainly along meningeal vessels and the superior longitudinal sinus

Meningocele- Hernial protrusion of the meninges through a defect of the skull or vertebral column

Question 36

Chest X-rays taken without a good inspiration:

makes visible all 12 anterior sets of true ribs against the lung field.
increases the OID needed to magnify the heart.
cause the heart to rotate on its axis.
distort heart shape and size.

Answer 36

distort heart shape and size.

Question 37

An encapsulated accumulation of pus within the cranium in response to a bacterial or fungal Infection:

brain abscess
meningitis
multiple sclerosis
dementia

Answer 37

brain abscess

Question 38

The inner protective layer of the central nervous system is composed of three layers. The tough, outermost covering is called the:

pia mater.
arachnoid membrane.
myelin sheath.
dura mater.

Answer 38

dura mater.

Dura mater is the outermost layer.
Arachnoid mater is the middle layer.
Pia mater is innermost membrane and adheres directly to the cortex of the brain and the spinal cord.

Question 39

Why Is it recommended to use a minimum of 100 kVp of chest radiography?

to overcome the anode heel effect.
to provide adequate penetration of the mediastinal structures.
to reduce magnification of the heart shadow.
to allow the use of a 72” SID.

Answer 39

to provide adequate penetration of the mediastinal structures.

Adequate penetration of the mediastinal structure is also critical in chest radiography and requires the use of a relatively high kilovoltage. A minimum of 100 kilovolts peak (kVp) should be used.

Conventional chest radiographs are generally obtained using a 72-inch SID to decrease magnification of the heart to an approximate factor of 10%.

The anode-heel effect can be used to distribute the radiographic density more evenly throughout the chest radiograph by placing the anode over the apical region and the cathode toward the base of the lungs when possible.

Question 40

Which of the following is a slow-growing, benign tumor that occurs on the vestibulocochlear (8th cranial) nerve also called a schwannoma?

Glioblastoma
Pinea tumor
Oligodendrocytoma
Acoustic neuroma

Answer 40

Acoustic neuroma

An acoustic neuroma is a slow-growing, benign tumor that arises from the Schwann cells on the eighth cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve), It is also called a schwannoma. All of the other choices are malignancies. The Imaging method of choice for acoustic neuromas is MRI, but CT may be ordered If the skull base is affected or the tumor has a calcified matrix.

Question 41

An accumulation of free air or gas in the pleural space that compresses the lung tissue:

pneumococcal pneumonia
pneumothorax
pneumonia
pneumoconiosis

Answer 41

pneumothorax

Question 42

The radiographer can Influence the size of the heart on an image by changing the following three positioning criteria:

1. increasing SID
2. performing AP versus PA projections
3. using less than 100 kVp
4. recumbent versus upright positioning

1 only
1, 2, and 4 only
2 and 3 only
2, 3, and 4 only

Answer 42

1, 2, and 4 only

increasing SID
performing AP versus PA projections
recumbent versus upright positioning

Question 43

Hemorrhagic strokes in the brain are caused by:

compression of a nerve root

inadequate blood supply to a region of the brain

atherothrombotic brain infarction

a weakened vessel that ruptures and bleeds into the surrounding brain

Answer 43

a weakened vessel that ruptures and bleeds into the surrounding brain

Ischemic stroke- A stroke in which a blood clot blocks a blood vessel in the brain.

atherothrombotic brain infarction (ABI)- An infarct caused by thrombosis of a cerebral artery

Question 44

A fracture of the arch of the second cervical vertebra and Is usually accompanied by anterior subluxation of the second cervical vertebra on the third cervical vertebra, resulting from acute hyperextension of the head:

Jefferson Fracture
hangman’s fracture
wedge fracture
seat-belt fracture

Answer 44

hangman’s fracture

Jefferson fracture- A burst type fracture of the vertebral arch of the 1st cervical vertebrae resulting from a severe axial force (hitting at the top of the head) that causes compression, as in a diving accident.

Wedge fracture- A wedge fracture of the spine, also known as a vertebral compression fracture, occurs when the front of a vertebra collapses and takes on a wedge shape.

Question 45

Systole is defined as the ___ of the myocardium.

contraction phase
resting phase
relaxation phase

Answer 45

contraction phase

Systole is the contraction phase of the heartbeat cycle.
Diastole is the relaxation phase.

Question 46

Obstructive lung condition In which the lung’s alveoli become distended due to loss of elasticity and the alveolar walls are destroyed. It is characterized by an increase in the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles.

pneumonia
pneumothorax
miliary tuberculosis
emphysema

Answer 46

emphysema

Question 47

A congenital posterior defect of the spinal canal resulting from failure of the posterior elements to fuse properly. Large defects may result in herniation of the meninges and a portion of the spinal cord or nerve roots.

hydrocephalus
pyogenesis
spina bifida
meningitis

Answer 47

spina bifida

Large defects in the lumbar or cervical spine may be accompanied by herniation of the meninges (meningocele) or of the meninges and a portion of the spinal cord or nerve roots (myelomeningocele)

hydrocephalus- enlargement of the head resulting from an abnormal increase in fluid within the ventricular system

ryogenesis- the process of pus formation.

meningitis- Inflammation of the coverings of the brain and spinal cord