Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Factors to consider

A

Location, type & number of microbe, risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why control microbial growth?

A

To prevent diseases,
protect the food supply,
create clean areas for research & development

Remember that not all microbes are pathogens and most are beneficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

By killing microbes

A

Cidal agents think “sui-“

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

By inhibiting microbial growth

A

Static agent
“inhibit” meaning that the bacteria stops growing BUT does not kill them. Static=electricity=shocks (things don’t move when they’re shocked)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bactercidal

A

To kill bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sterilization

A

Removing all microbial life

Does not consider prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Disinfection

A

Destroying harmful microbes on a surface or object
Some microbes will remain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Disinfectant

A

Chemicals used for disinfecting inanimate objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antiseptics

A

Destroy harmful microbes on living tissues/people
used on patients before invasive procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Asepsis

A

Free of microbial contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Aseptic techniques

A

Prevention of contamination through procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Decontamination

A

Reduces the number of pathogens to a safer level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sanitation

A

Substantially reducing the microbial population to meet health standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pasteurization

A

Brief heating to reduce the number of spoilage microbes and destroy pathogens without changing the characteristics of the product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Preservation is a form of [?] method

A

bacteriostatic method inhibits the growth of bacteria but does not kill the bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Preservation

A

A process of delaying spoilage
example would be refrigeration, which uses temperature to slow the growth of bacteria.
Chemical preservatives can be added to slow growth even further

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Approaches to microbial growth

A

Depends on the situation: daily life, setting, laboratories, food production facilities, water treatment plants, and any other industries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Daily life requirements for microbial control

A

Washing and soaping and scrubbing and detergent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

most frequently misses spots when handwashing

A

under the nails, wrists, around, jewelry,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how does soap work to remove microbes during handwashing

A

nonpolar tails of micelle soap adhere to the dirt on the skin. Polar groups are soluble in water and help lift the dirt away from the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Soap is beneficial to skin microbiota because

A

the skin is not affected by regular use given that they reside deeper in underlying layers of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

BSL4

A

lethal pathogen for which no vaccine or treatment is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BSL-1

A

Microbes is not know to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Washing your hands

A

Soap aids in the mechanical removal of microbes
The most important step in stopping the spread of many infectious diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Health care associated infection HAIS

A

Patients are often more susceptible to infection due to their weakened condition
Patients may undergo invasive procedures cutting intact skin which exposes it to pathogens
Pathogens are more likely to be found in hospitals (feces, ventilation)
Operating rooms must be monitored
Surgical instruments must be sterilized
Prions are a relatively new concern and are very difficult to destroy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Microbial laboratory

A

Aseptic technique
Sterilization if materials cdc guideline
Bio safety levels range from BSL1-4 (1 microbes not know to cause disease)
(4 being lethal pathogens with no vaccine or treatment existing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Food preparation

A

Perishables retain quality longer when contaminating microbes are destroyed removed or inhibited
Heat treatment (most common), irradiation (kill microbes) chemical additives (prevent growth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Water filtration

A

Ensure that drinking water is free of pathogens
Uses filtration and chemical methods
Chlorine is traditionally used to disinfect water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Selection of an effective antimicrobial procedure depends on

A

The type and number of microbes
Environmental condition
Risk of infection
Composition of the item being treated
Length of exposure needed
Cost and availability
Toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Microbes resistant to treatment

A

Bacterial endospore
Only extreme heat and chemical treatment destroy them

Protozoa cyst and oocytes
Resistant to disinfection but susceptible to boiling

Mycobacterium species

Pseudomonas species
Resistant to disinfectants and can even grow in some of them

Enveloped and non enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Decimal reduction time

A

time required to kill 90% of populations under specific conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

temperature and Ph can

A

influence effectiveness of disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

microorganisms in [?} are more resistant to any anti-microbial treatment

A

biofilm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Bleach is more effective at [?] ph

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dirt grease and body fluids

A

Can interfere with heat penetration action of chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Risk for infection categories for medical instruments

A

Critical= must be sterile (direct body tissues)

Semi critical= must be free of viruses and vegetative bacteria (contact mucous membrane but not body tissues)

Non critical= pose a low risk of transmission (contact unbroken skin only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Actions of antimicrobial agents

A

alteration of membrane permeability
damage proteins
damage nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how does heat kill microbes

A

the cytoplasmic membrane is disrupted/ damaged
proteins and enzymes are denatured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Heat treatment is the best

A

and most useful methods for microbial control
can only be used to disinfect or sterilize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Types of heat

A

Moist heat=destroys microbes by irreversibly denaturing their proteins

Dry heat= less efficient than moist heat at killing microbes; requires longer times and higher temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Moist heat

A

Boiling (100C) after 5 minutes bacteria is killed

Pasteurization; heating to a high temperature for a short time// does not sterilize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Dry heat

A

less effective because it takes longer times and higher temperatures
Incineration= components to ashes

Hot air oven= destroy cell components and irreversibly denature proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Autoclave

A

used to sterilize surgical instruments- increase pressure raises the stream temperature
kills endospores
can destroy prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Commercial canning

A

uses an industrial size autoclave called retort//designed to destroy clostridium botulinum endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Low temperature

A

inhibits growth-bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Desiccation

A

removes water, prevent metabolism,
microbes may remain visible but are dormant for years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Osmotic pressure

A

high sugar/salt causes plasmolysis and inhibits metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Surface tension depressants

A

soaps, detergents (loosens contamination from surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Filtration

A

uses a membrane filter to remove microbes
membrane filters have microscopic pores that allow liquid to pass through
in air, High-efficiency particle air (HEPA) is used to remove airborne particeles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Radiation

A

can be used to destroy microbes
ultraviolet, ionizing, and microwaves are types of radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

limitations to ultraviolet radiation

A

bacterial endospores are resistant to UV lights
poor penetrating power- only kills microbes on the surface
must be used carefully since it can cause skin cancer and damage retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ultraviolet radiation

A

destroy microbes by damaging their DNA
UV light is absorbed by microbial DNA causing thymine dimers to form in DNA
used to destroy microbes in air, water and hard surfaces
UV light is most effective in close range against exposed microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ionizing radiation

A

x rays, gamma rays
damage skin cells
used to sterilize heat-sensitive materials such as foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Microwave

A

low energy wave that does not have a direct effect on microbes
microwaves kill by generating heat via water molecules
cook food unevenly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

High pressure processing

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Types of physical antimicrobial methods

A

Heat treatments
Moist heat, dry heat
Filtrations
Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Soap aids in

A

Mechanical removal of microbes thorough handwashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Transient

A

Pathogens not related to our microbe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Temperatures to kill microbe

A

Cytoplasmic
Denatured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Autoclave

A

121°C at, 15 min
131°C for 1 hr for endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Ultra violet radiation

A

Alters DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Germicide

A

Chemicals used to disinfect & in some cases sterilize (kills microorganisms & inactivates viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sterilants

A

destroy all microbes including endospores and viruses; used to treat heat-sensitive critical instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Disinfection

A

elimination of microbes from inanimate objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Disinfectants

A

agent used to eliminate microbes from inanimate objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Antiseptic

A

an agent that kills or inhibits growth of microbes and is non-toxic enough to use be used on human tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Sanitation

A

an agent that reduces microbial numbers to safer levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Considerations when selecting the appropriate germicide

A

Toxicity )
Length of contact required (contact time)
Concentration
Types & number of microbes present
Activity in presence of organic material
Comparability with materials being treated
Residues
Cost & availability
=~

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Actions of antimicrobial agents can be achieved

A

through physical control methods and chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

why 100% alcohol does not work

A

proteins are more soluble and denature easily in alcohol mixed with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

limitations to alcohols

A

does not reliably destroy endospores and some non-eveloped virus
evaporates quickly, limiting contact time
can damage rubber, some plastics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Alcohol

A

Quickly kills vegetative bacteria & fungi
70% is used in hospitals & laboratories
Proteins are more soluable & denature more easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Soap & water vs hand sanitizer

A

water reduces the amounts of all types of germs
60% hand sanitizer is recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Halogens

A

Chlorine & iodine
Common disinfectants that damage proteins & cellular components
limitations include being too irritating to the skin and mucous membrane to be used as an antiseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Chlorine

A

disinfectant
very low levels are used to disinfect drinking water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Iodine

A

antiseptic; kills vegetative cells, unreliable or endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is added to water to disinfect

A

chlorine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Peroxygens

A

Hydrogen peroxide
Powerful oxidizer used as sterilants
Germicide on living tissue
Leaves no residue
limitations; less effective/potentially irritating gon living tissues due to catalase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Phonolics

A

Phenol one of the earliest disinfectants. kills most vegetative bacteria by destroying cytoplasmic membranes and denaturing proteins; not reliable on all viruses and endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

positive charge of quat attracts

A

negative charges on cell surface of microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

limitations to quats

A

can grow within the solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Quats

A

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds// destroys vegetative bacteria and enveloped viruses but is not effective on endospores
disrupts the cells membrane and negatively charged proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Ethylene oxide

A

destroys all microbes including endospores and viruses by chemically modifying proteins and nucleic acids
used to sterilize sensitive items (pacemakers, artificial hips. fabrics)
IS TOXIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Aldehydes

A

capable of destroying all microbes; inactivates proteins and nucleic acids
toxicity;carcinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

perishable products can be preserved by

A

chemical preservatives
low temperature storage
reducing the available water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

chemicals preservatives

A

weak organic acids (alter membrane function lower Ph) and nitrate and nitrite (inhibit endospore germination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Blacklights

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Thawing food

A

some microbial cells are killed by ice crystal formation but many survive and can grow once thawed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

reducing available water

A

adding sugar or salt which creates a hypertonic solution drawing water out of cell (plasmolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

drying food

A

stops microbial growth, but does not kill it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Discovery of antibodies

A

Alexander flaming identified mold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Antimicrobial medication

A

Drug that inhibits the growth of or kills infectious microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Antibiotics

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Antiviral

A

Drug that

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Characteristics to antimicrobial drugs

A

Selective toxicity to microbes
Antimicrobial action
Spectrum of antimicrobial activity
Tissue distribution, metabolism and excretion of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

therapeutic index

A

lowest dose that is toxic divided by the therapeutic dose (high TI is less toxic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Antimicrobial action

A

bactericidal: drug kills bacteria directly
bacteriostatic : inhibits bacterial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Selective toxicity

A

drugs cause greater harm to microbes than to human hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

the spectrum of antimicrobial medication

A

broad-spectrum: gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria (disrupt normal microbiota. important for acute diseases
narrow spectrum: requires identification of pathogen and testing it for sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Tissue distribution, metabolism, & excretion of drugs

A

antimicrobial behaviors differ in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Route of administration

A

IV, IM, oral, tropical ect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Drug combinations

A

Antagostnic: medications interfere with each other

Synergistic: one medication enhances another

Additive: combinations that are neither are additive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Adverse effects

A

Allergies
Toxic side effect
Suppression of normal microbiote may lead to dysbiosis

104
Q

Target of antimicrobial drugs

A

cell wall synthesis
cell membrane
protein synthesis
nucleic acid synthesis
metabolic pathways

105
Q

Glycopeptide

A

vancomycin (last resort against MRSA)

106
Q

bacitracin

A

topical, triple antibiotic ointment

107
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Inhibits cell growth

108
Q

Beta lactam antibiotics

A

all have a Beta lactam ring

109
Q

medications that inhibit beta lactam

A

penicillin, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactam

110
Q

resistance methods used by bacteria against Beta lactams

A

beta-lactamases: some bacteria synthesize Beta-lactamase, which break down the beta-lactam ring

111
Q

types of beta lactamase

A

penicillinase (inactivates members of the penicillin family)
extended spectrum Beta-lactamases (inactivates a wide variety of beta lactam)
carbapenemases- inactivate the greatest number of beta lactams lead to carbapenem drug resistance

112
Q

How antibiotic resistance happens

A

Lots of germs
Little resistance
Antibiotics kills bacteria causing the illness as well as good bacteria protecting the body of the infection
The drug resistance bacteria are allowed to grow and take over
Some bacteria give their drug resistance to other bacteria causing bacteria

113
Q

Five general groups of penicillins

A

natural
penicillin resistant (methicillin)
broad spectrum (amoxicillin)
extended spectrum (ticaricillin)
pencillin + beta-lactamase (augmentin- amoxicillin+clavulanic acid)

114
Q

Mechanism of drug resistance

A

Blocking entry of drug
Inactivate the drug enzyme and interfere with drug
Alteration or drugs target molecule

115
Q

Inhibits protein synthesis by attaching to various subunits of the [?] 70s Ribosome

A

prokaryotic

116
Q

Pleuromutlins

A

prevents peptide bonds from being formed

117
Q

streptogramins

A

each interferes with a distinct step of protein synthesis

118
Q

Lincosamides

A

prevents the continuations of protein synthesis by binding 50s subunit
resists many antibiotics

119
Q

macrolides

A

prevent the continuation of protein synthesis by reversibly binding 50s subunit to prevent the translation from continuing

120
Q

chloramphenicol

A

prevents peptide bonds from being formed by binding to 50s ribosomal subunit and prevents peptide bonds between amino acids

121
Q

oxazolidinones

A

interfere with the initiation of protein synthesis

122
Q

tetracyclines and glycylines

A

block the attachment of tRNA to the ribosome

123
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

block the initiation of translation and cause the misreading of mRNA
irreversibly bind 30s ribosomal subunit

124
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

inhibits topoisomerase 2 or gyrase

125
Q

Rifamycins

A

inhibits RNA synthesis by blocking prokaryotic RNA polymerase

126
Q

Metronidazole

A

binds DNA in anaerobic organisms only
anaerobic metabolism required to convert to active form

127
Q

Interfere with cytoplasmic membrane integrity

A

interfere with bacterial cytoplasmic membrane permeability or synthesis–> cell leakage and death

128
Q

Target Metabolic pathways

A

broad spectrum, bacteriostatic

129
Q

some antibiotics are folate inhibitors

A

acts as PABA substrate analogs to inhibit different folate pathways which produce nucleotides

130
Q

sulfonamides, trimethoprim

A

inhibit different steps in synthesis of folic acid and coenzyme required for nucleotide synthesis

131
Q

Sulfonamides and related are called

A

sulfa drugs

132
Q

amoxicillin

A

treats bacterial infection by inhibiting bacterial cell wall growth
amoxicillin binds to the transpeptidase active site
amoxicillin blocks transpeptidase activity
amoxicillin interrupts bacterial cross linking and cell wall synthesis

133
Q

Kirby baer disc diffusion test is routinely used to

A

determine susceptibility of a bacterial strain to antibiotics

134
Q

Blocking entry of drug

A

Decreased uptake of the meditation
Changes in porin protein of the outer membrane in gram negative bacteria

135
Q

Inactivation of drug by bacterial enzyme

A

Bacteria produces

136
Q

Alteration of drugs target molecules

A

Minor structural changes that affect binding

137
Q

Gram positive

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer absorbs
Surrounding layer absorbs surrounding

138
Q

Gram negative

A

Harder to kill

139
Q

Acquisition to resistance

A

Occur during DNA replication at a low rate but can have effect
In a population of 109 cells at least one will likely mutate
A single base pair change in a bacterial gene encoding a ribosomal proteins yields resistance to strepto

140
Q

Horizontal gene transfer

A

Genes encoding resistance Can spread to different strains

141
Q

R plasmids Can contain

A

Genes encoding for resistance to antimicrobial medications
Genes required for pilus synthesis

142
Q

Mechanism

A

Conjugation
Transduction

143
Q

Superbugs

A

Bacteria that is resistant to large numbers of antibiotics

144
Q

Multiple and extensive drug resistant mycobacterium tuberculosis

A
145
Q

Viruses

A

Obligate intracellular parasites
Not alive, acellular particles or agents
Not an organism
Not made up of cells
No metabolism, replication or motility

Hijack the host cells replications system to divide

146
Q

Can viruses divide outside is a living cell

A

No

147
Q

Viruses are ((n)) outside cells

A

Inert

148
Q

Smallest to largest

A

10 to 800nm

149
Q

All viruses have

A

Nucleic acid (Either DNA or RNA)
Capsid (protein coat)

150
Q

Some virus have

A

Spikes
Envelope (more vulnerable)

151
Q

Capsid

A

Protein coat that all virus’s have
Determines the shape of the virus
Protects the Nucleic acid
Capsid are protected

152
Q

Virus shape

A

Helical Ebola
Polyhedral adenovirus
Complex bacteriophages

153
Q

Virus envelope

A

No envelope= naked virus or non enveloped virus

Phospholipid bilayer membrane outside of the virus
Taken from host cell
Provide protection and attachments so it can hide from the immune system

154
Q

Naked vs enveloped

A

N

E

155
Q

Spikes

A

Glycoproteins
Outer surface protection
Important for attachment to the host cell

156
Q

Adenovirus

A

Polyhedral
Double stranded DNA
Non enveloped

157
Q

SARS CO V 2

A

Single stranded RNA
Helical
enveloped
Spikes glycoproteins

158
Q

For a virus to replicate multiply

A

It must invade the host cell
It must take over that hose metabolism machinery
Host are anything alive

159
Q

Virion

A
160
Q

Modes of transmission

A

Direct transmission
Direct contact
Direct Spray
Indirect transmission
Airborne
Vehicle borne (fomite)
Vector borne carry the agent

161
Q

Entry for virus

A

Epithelial surface

162
Q

Viral taxonomy

A

-viridae
-virus

163
Q

Enteric virus

A

Oral fecal

164
Q

Zoonotic

A

Animals

165
Q

Arbovirus

A
166
Q

Animal virus

A

DNA or RNA

167
Q

Animal virus cycle

A

Attachment

168
Q

Bacteriophage

A

Virus that infects bacteria
Most numerous viruses on earth
important for ecology and evolution
Removes bacteria from ocean
Used as models for learning about animal virus

169
Q

Lytic

A

Phage causes lysis and death of the host bacteria cell
Attachment
Genome
synthesis phage genome is transcribed
Assembly
Release bacterial cell lyses

170
Q

Lysogenic

A

Phage DNA is incorporated into the host DNA
Attachment
Genome entry
Phage DNA is integrated into the hosts cells called prophage
Prophage replication

171
Q

Temprate phage

A

Lambda
Can alter

172
Q

Toxins are encoded by

A

Phage genes

173
Q

Exotoxins

A

Released from bacterial cell
Potent

174
Q

Clostridium tétani

A

Tetanus neurotoxin block nerve impulses

175
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Botulinum toxin causes food poisoning

Botox prevents nerve impulses

176
Q

Escherichia coli

A
177
Q

Staphylococcus

A
178
Q

Opportunistic infection

A

Disease that is caused by microbes that is not known to be harmful

179
Q

Primary pathogens

A
180
Q

Skin and mucus membranes are barriers

A

Mutualism
Commercialism

181
Q

Acure

A

Short lived infection

182
Q

Chronic

A

Infection that develops slowly and last long

183
Q

Latent

A

Infection that is present but not causing symptoms

184
Q

Exotoxin

A

Toxic protein produced by a microorganism

185
Q

Normal microbiota

A

Group of microorganism found growing in healthy individuals

186
Q

Resident microbiota

A

Inhabit sites for extended periods permanently colonize

187
Q

Transient microbiota

A

Inhabit temporary

188
Q

Human micro biome

A

Colonization at birth changes when c section and with vaginal delivery
Breastfeeding
Environment
Changes with lifestyle

189
Q

Normal microbiota benefits

A

Protects against pathogens cancer
Antibiotic exposure kills normal bacteria leads to dysbiosis
Simulation of adaptive immune system
Promotes immune system tolerance
Aids in Digestion
Produces substances important to human health

190
Q

Pathogenicity

A

The ability of an agent to cause disease

191
Q

Virulence

A

The degree of pathogenicity of an organism

192
Q

Virulence factors

A

Traits of a microbes that allow it cause disease genes can be transferred via horizontal gene transfer

193
Q

Communicable

A

Infectious disease that spread from one host to another

194
Q

Etiology

A

Cause of disease

195
Q

Incubation period

A

Time between introduction of microbes to host and onset of signs

196
Q

Convalescence

A

Recuperation

197
Q

Carriers

A

Individuals who have recovered from the illness but still are capable of spreading disease

198
Q

Sign vs symptoms

A

Sign what you see
Symptom what you’re told

199
Q

Overview of the immune system

A

Collection of organs, tissues, and cells

Job is to guard the body against pathogen, abnormal malfunctioning cells,foreign cells or particles

200
Q

Adaptive immunity

A

activated by exposure to specific pathogens; continually develops over your lifetime as its exposed to specific pathogens
immunological memory

201
Q

Innate immunity

A

routine protection present at birth non specific, quick response

202
Q

Thymus

A

T cells mature here

203
Q

Spleen

A

Filtering out blood

204
Q

Appendix

A

Lymphoid tissues

205
Q

collectively, the main roles of the innate immune systems

A

prevent the entry of foreign material using physical and chemical barriers
prevent further spread of infection

206
Q

adaptive immunity

A

we are not born with , but is acquired throughout our lifetime T cells and B cells when exposed to specific antigens
acquire immunity
slower but very effective
“creates memory” through memory cells

207
Q

Immune tolerance

A

ability for the immune system to ignore normal self cells

208
Q

what is an antigen

A

foreign particle that the body recognizes as non self
adaptive is antigen-specific

209
Q

antigen presentation

A

requires the recognition of specific non self antigens during this process

210
Q

antigens react specifically with antibody

A

B-cell and T cell receptors

211
Q

antigenic determinants (epitope)

A

binds to receptors

212
Q

immunological memory

A

the ability of the immune system to respond more rapidly to any pathogen or antigens that has been encountered previously
thanks to this, we can vaccinate against infectious disease and avoid through natural infection

213
Q

neutrophils

A

common leukocytes found in the blood
when injury and or microbial occurs they are alerted via chemotaxis, they are the first to leave blood stream
phagocytes, they kill via phagocytosis and live hours to a few days then undego apoptosis

214
Q

natural killer cells

A

innate immune system
derived from lymphoid stem cells so they are lymphocytes
recognizes the abnormality

215
Q

monocytes macrophages and dendritic cells function

A

as phagocytes and form an important first line of defense against harmful

216
Q

dendritic cells

A

phagocytes that live in blood or tissue
phagocytic and antigen-presenting cells
only connection between adaptive and innate

217
Q

lymphocytes

A

type of white blood cell (leukocyte)
derived from lymphoid stem cells

218
Q

t cells

A

cell-mediated immunity
direct the immune response by helping to stimulate b cells

219
Q

B cells

A

humoral cells

220
Q

humoral immunity

A

b cells mature in bone marrow, make antibodies, memory cells

221
Q

cell mediated immmunity

A

t cells mature in the thymus helpert T cells activate B cells
cytoxic t cells are directly involved in killing infected cells

222
Q

anatomy of the lymphatic system

A

secondary lymphoid organs contatn dense populations of lymphocytes and other immune cells

223
Q

secondary lymphoid organs

A

lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils/adenoids/, apendix

224
Q

peyers patches

A

lymphoid tissue in intestinal wall

225
Q

cytotoxic t cells

A

directly involved in killing infected cells

226
Q

helper t cells

A

stimulate b cells towards antibody production; releases cytokines to stimulate other immune cells

227
Q

regulatory t cells

A

regulate and suppress immune cells as needed; peripheral tolerance

228
Q

memory t cells

A

can respond quickly upon re-exposure to the same antigen

229
Q

naive lymphocyte

A

has never encountered an antigen

230
Q

activated lymphocyte

A

received specific signals, proliferates produces proteins

231
Q

effector lymphocytes

A
232
Q

memory lymphocytes

A
233
Q

lymphocytes receptors

A

b cells and t cells have membrane bound receptors
function is to recognize and bind specific antigens

234
Q

b cell receptor

A

membrane version of the specific version of the specific antibody; binds free antigens

235
Q

t cell receptor

A
236
Q

antigen presenting cells

A

have receptors that bind antigens

237
Q

major histocompatibility complex proteins

A
238
Q

what cells are responsible for t cell activation

A

dendritic cells

239
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

inhibits topoisomerase 2 or gyrase

240
Q

Rifamycins

A

inhibits RNA synthesis by blocking prokaryotic RNA polymerase

241
Q

Humoral activity

A

antibody response

242
Q

three antigen presenting cells

A

dendritic
macrophages
b cells

243
Q

plasma cells

A

affector cells

244
Q

cytochines

A

chemical signal from helper T-cells to plasma cell

245
Q

B cell mature in

A

bone marrow

246
Q

BCR genes

A

V ariable, D iverity J oining regions

247
Q

Diversity is created through

A

gene diversity of VDJ genes on the light and heavy chains of b cell receptors

248
Q

Central tolerance

A

process during development where B cells that bind to self-antigens are destroyed

249
Q

peripheral tolerance

A

most mature b cells require signaling and confirmation from Helper t cells to begin making B cells

250
Q

Naive B cells

A

mature B cell with functional BC that has not yet encountered an antigen

251
Q

A naive b cell encounters an antigen

A

in secondary lymphoid organs

252
Q

antigen binds to the

A

variable region of the b cells receptor

253
Q

B cells internalizes processes and

A

presents antigen epitope on MHCII

254
Q

B cells presents antigen on MHCII to

A

Helper T cells (CD4)

255
Q

Activated B cells proliferation and differentiate to form

A

effector B cells or plasma cells and memory B cells

256
Q

Plasma Cells secrete

A

large quantities of antibodies that bind to the antigen

257
Q

memory B cells are long lived descendants of activated B cells

A